Week 1 MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

Which ONE of the following receptor types is capable of the fastest response (milliseconds)?

A.	 kinase-linked receptors

B.	 nuclear receptors

C.	 metabotropic receptors

D.	 ionotropic receptors

E.	 G-protein coupled receptors
A

d

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2
Q

In G-protein coupled receptors what is the correct order of events following G-protein activation that leads to a cellular response?

A.	 second messenger – primary effector – secondary effector –cellular response

B.	 primary effector – secondary effector – second messenger – cellular response

C.	 primary effector – second messenger – secondary effector – cellular response

D.	 secondary effector – second messenger – primary effector –cellular response

E.	 second messenger – secondary effector – primary effector –cellular response
A

c

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3
Q

Schedule 4 drugs are usually available:

A.	 only from pharmacists on a prescription

B.	 from a pharmacy, but a pharmacist must be aware of the sale

C.	 in supermarkets

D.	 only with prior authority from the Department of Health

E.	 from a pharmacy
A

a

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4
Q

f a drug has an apparent volume of distribution of 10 litres and a plasma concentration of 2mg/ml, the total amount of drug in the body is around:

A.	 20 mg

B.	 2 mg 

C.	 20 g

D.	 200 mg

E.	 2.0 g
A

CorrectC.

20 g

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5
Q

You need to give an 80 kg patient a loading dose of drug X by a single intravenous injection, prior to commencing an i.v. infusion. The required plasma concentration of drug X is 0.2 mg/ml. Given that the apparent volume of distribution (Vd) of drug X is 0.5 litres/kg, what loading dose of drug X will most closely reach this concentration?

A.	 8 g

B.	 40 mg

C.	 8 mg

D.	 160 g

E.	 16 mg
A

a

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6
Q

A patient is started on an infusion of an antibiotic drug at a constant rate. The antibiotic has a half-life of 1 hours. How long will it take for the antibiotic to reach a steady-state level in the blood?

A.	  it depends on the infusion rate

B.	 2-3 hours

C.	 4-5 hours

D.	 3-4 hours

E.	 1-2 hours
A

C.

4-5 hours

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7
Q

ntagonists for a specific receptor possess:

A.	 Affinity and efficacy

B.	 Affinity and intrinsic activity

C.	 Affinity only 

D.	 Efficacy only

E.	 Intrinsic activity only
A

c

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8
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding irreversible competitive antagonist?

A.	 Agonist will act normally at unoccupied receptors

B.	 The Emax is decreased for the agonist

C.	 The ED50 is increased for the agonist 

D.	 The antagonist dissociates slowly, or not at all, from the receptors 

E.	 No change in antagonist occupancy takes place when the agonist is applied
A

CorrectC.

The ED50 is increased for the agonist

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9
Q

Amphetamines are weak bases with a pKa of around 9.8. Their elimination from the body can be increased by which one of the following?

A.	 It is not possible to increase the elimination of weak bases.

B.	 Alkalinisation of the urine using sodium bicarbonate

C.	 Acidification of the urine using sodium bicarbonate

D.	 Alkalinisation of the urine using ammonium chloride

E.	 Acidification of the urine using ammonium chloride
A

e

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10
Q

Star fruit increases the plasma concentration of statins due to which of the following mechanisms?

A.	 activation of CYP2D6

B.	 inhibition of CYP3A4

C.	 decreased statin secretion in the kidney tubule

D.	 a decrease in gastric pH

E.	 an acceleration in gastric emptying
A

b

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11
Q

The Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA) has classified category A drugs in pregnancy as drugs that:

A.	 have not been fully evaluated in prenant women

B.	 increase the incidence of foetal malformations or irreversible damage 

C.	 have been used by many pregnant women and there is no proven increase in the frequency of harmful effects on the foetus 

D.	 may cause harmful effects to the foetus without causing malformations

E.	 have a high risk of causing permanent damage to the foetus and should not be used in pregnancy, or when there is a possibility of pregnancy
A

c

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12
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT a chronic effect of ethanol abuse?

A.	 higher glucose metabolism

B.	 brain shrinkage

C.	 loss or damage to neurons and glial cells

D.	 enlarged ventricles visible on a CT/MRI scan of the brain

E.	 irreversible neurological abnormalities
A

a

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13
Q

A drug has a steady-state plasma concentration of 300 mg/ml and an elimination half-life of 30 minutes. Approximately how long will you have to wait till most (> 95%) of the drug has been lost from the body?

A.	 4 - 5 hours

B.	 1 hour

C.	 1 - 2 days

D.	 2 - 2.5 hours

E.	 not enough information is given to calculate this
A

d

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14
Q

Which of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to individual variation to drugs?

age

interactions with other drugs

genetic factors

liver disease

route of drug administration

A

E

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15
Q

The amount of plasma protein binding of a drug may affect:

A.	  the concentration of unbound drug in plasma

B.	  the amount available for metabolism in the liver

C.	 all of the above

D.	  the amount available to bind to its site of action

E.	  the amount available for filtration through the kidneys
A

c

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16
Q

Zero-order kinetics apply:

A.	 when the rate of drug elimination decreases as the plasma drug concentration decreases

B.	 when a drug is very lipid soluble

C.	 when the rate of drug elimination is constant, independent of the drug concentration

D.	 if the half-life is constant despite rising plasma drug concentration

E.	 only in the case of ethanol
A

when the rate of drug elimination is constant, independent of the drug concentration

17
Q

For a maximal therapeutic effect, the plasma concentration of a drug must:

A.	 be given by multiple oral dosing

B.	 be monitored every half-life

C.	 remain between the minimum effective concentration and the maximum safe concentration

D.	 remain above the maximum safe concentration

E.	 remain below the minimum effective concentration
A

remain between the minimum effective concentration and the maximum safe concentration

18
Q

Question 18

In the liver, aspirin normally undergoes:

very limited biotransformation

phase I hydrolysis only

phase II glucuronidation only

both phase I hydrolysis and phase II glucuronidation

dimerisation

A

both phase I hydrolysis and phase II glucuronidation

19
Q

A doctor has recommended intravenous sodium bicarbonate for a patient who is suffering from salicylate toxicity. This is because:

A.	  salicylates are weak acids and sodium bicarbonate will decrease their ionisation

B.	 salicylates are weak bases and sodium bicarbonate will increase their ionisation  

C.	  sodium bicarbonate will precipitate salicylates in plasma

D.	  salicylates are weak acids and sodium bicarbonate will increase their ionisation

E.	  salicylates are weak bases and sodium bicarbonate will decrease their ionisation
A

d

20
Q

Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding drug interactions and CYP450 isoenzymes?

A.	 Drugs can be substrates, inducers or inhibitors of CYP450 isoenzymes concurrently

B.	 CYP2C19 activity is genetically determined

C.	 Drug interactions most commonly occur due to interactions at phase II

D.	 A drug can be a substrate for multiple enzymes

E.	 CYP3A4 is responsible for the metabolism of the greatest number of drugs
A

Drug interactions most commonly occur due to interactions at phase II

21
Q

. Use the table below to select which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT.

   CYP1A2 Substrates                            CYP1A2 Inhibitors                           CYP1A2 inducers

CYP1A2 Sutrates

CYP1A2 Inhibitors

CYP1A2 Inducers

haloperidol

cimetidine

broccoli

naproxen

amiodarone

insulin

caffeine

interferon

tobacco/smoking

verapamil

brussel sprouts

propranolol

omeprazole

A.	 The dose of haloperidol might have to be decreased if omeprazole is added to the drug treatment.

B.	 Blood levels of verapamil could increase if a patient started to take amiodarone.

C.	 Haloperidol and naproxen complete for the same CYP450 enzyme

D.	 Smoking could decrease blood levels of caffeine.

E.	 Eating a large amount of broccoli could decrease the effectiveness of haloperidol.
A

a

22
Q

Which ONE of the following effects CANNOT be attributed to alcohol?

A.	 an increase in plasma high-density lipoproteins (HDL)

B.	 decreased platelet aggregation

C.	 vasodilation

D.	 central nervous system stimulation
	E.	
cerebellar degeneration (with chronic use)
A

d

23
Q

Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A.	  A low expression of the alcohol dehydrogenase in the liver results in an accumulation of aldehyde

B.	 Thiamine is used to treat Wernicke-Korsikoff Syndrome

C.	 The accumulation of aldehyde in the blood can result in nausea, headache and dizziness

D.	 One standard alcoholic drink contains around 8 grams of pure alcohol

E.	  The approximate rate of alcohol metabolism in humans is 100mg/kg/hour
A

a

24
Q

Bethanechol can be used in the management of urinary retention. Which one of the following statements regarding its mechanism of action is CORRECT?

A.	 bethanechol is a partial agonist at nicotinic ACh receptors

B.	 bethanechol is an agonist at muscarinic ACh receptors 

C.	 bethanechol is an antagonist at nicotinic ACh receptors

D.	 bethanechol is an antagonist at muscarinic ACh receptors

E.	 bethanechol is an agonist at nicotinic ACh receptors
A

b

25
Q

Total renal clearance (CLrenal) of drugs is most accurately described by which one of the following equations?

A.	 CLrenal = CLfiltration + CLsecretion – Clreabsorption

B.	 CLrenal = CLfiltration + CLsecretion + Clreabsorption

C.	 CLrenal = CLfiltration

D.	 CLrenal = CLsecretion + Clreabsorption 

E.	 CLrenal = CLfiltration - CLsecretion
A

a

26
Q

Given the information available at the time of TGA drug approval, most medications are assigned to which risk category for drug use in pregnancy?

A.	 C

B.	 X

C.	 D

D.	 A

E.	 B
A

C

27
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding teratogens?

A.	 Ionising radiation and infectious agents can be teratogens

B.	 Exposure to more than one teratogen can result in additive effects

C.	 Most potent teratogens lack toxicity in the mother

D.	 Teratogens allow transmission of heritable effects through germ cells to the next generation

E.	 The effect of a teratogen on the foetus can vary depending on the time of exposure
A

d

28
Q

A drug has a steady-state plasma concentration of 2 mg/ml and an elimination half-life of 30 minutes. The drug is known to undergo first-order elimination. What will be the approximate plasma concentration 2 hours after administration is discontinued?

A.	 0.3 mg/ml

B.	 250 µg/ml

C.	 300 µg/ml

D.	 125 µg/ml

E.	 1 mg/ml
A

d

29
Q

Which ONE of the following is NOT a chronic effect of ethanol abuse?

A.	 irreversible neurological abnormalities

B.	 loss or damage to neurons and glial cells

C.	 a decrease in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume

D.	 lower glucose metabolism

E.	 brain shrinkage
A

c

30
Q

Question 30

In the adult human liver, paracetamol normally undergoes:

A.	 deamination

B.	 phase I hydrolysis only

C.	 excretion unchanged by the kidney

D.	 mainly phase II glucuronidation

E.	 both phase I hydrolysis and phase II glucuronidation
A

mainly phase II glucuronidation