W7: Pharmalcology Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

Large/narrow therapeutic index (TI) is safe (what is TI?)

A

Large (big gap between effectiveness and toxicity)

TI is ratio: TD50/ED50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define pharmacokinetics and name what ADME stands for.

A

what body does to drug;

ADME – absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is quantal dose-response (d-r) curve? Describe its components:

X and Y axis

ED50
TD50
LD50

A

graph used to quantify quantal response to a drug (quantal - all or none; yes or no)

X - dosage each person took
Y - % of people who responded to the drug

Median effective dose (ED50) - dosage at which 50% responded favorably

Median toxic dose (TD50) - toxic dosage for 50% of participants

Median lethal dose (LD50) - dosage at which 50% found lethal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is graded dose-response (d-r) curve ?

X and Y axis?

What are 2 important information you can get?

A

D-R curve is a graphical representation between quantity of drug and a graded biological effect

X - drug concentration
Y - % maximal response

efficacy and potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Magnitude of a response is called __.

A

Efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

EC50 is used to compare the potency/efficacy of two drugs.

A

Potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Therapeutic window is utilized in quantal/graded dose-response to gauge the effective plasma drug concentration range.

A

graded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

competitive/non-competitive antagonist reduces the EC50 (efficacy/potency) of the original drug.

A

competitive, potency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Non-competitive antagonists reduces the efficacy/potency of the original drug which can/cannot be overcome with increased [original drug].

A

efficacy, cannot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define concept of spare receptors. How was this discovered?

A

Idea that when maximal response is reached, not all receptors are activated

Experiment: When agonist + irreversible antagonist are added, maximal response was still achieved.

Conclusion: Max response can be achieved with less than 100% of receptors (because spare receptors are present)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

difference between EC50 and Kd?

A

EC50 describes potency of the drug action.

Kd describes the binding affinity of drug/ligand to receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference between occupancy theory and the two state receptor model?

A

occupancy: one ligand, one receptor (receptor inactive if no ligand)

two state: presence of constitutively active receptor and inactive receptor that needs to be bound to a ligand (receptor can be spontaneously active in absence of ligand)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Draw a dose x drug activity graph indicating the terms below:

constitutive activity
full agonist
partial agonist
antagonist
inverse agonist
A

constitutive activity - activity (y axis) > 0 (all graphs start here)

full agonist - sigmoidal, max activity

partial agonist - sigmoidal, less than max activity

*antagonist = constitutive
(two state receptor model)

inverse agonist - decrease to zero from constitutive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

3 targets of drug

A
  1. receptor (potency, efficacy)
  2. enzyme (affinity, efficacy)
  3. transporters (blockers)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Two factors that influence absorption of drug into plasma are __ and __, which both determine the __ of drug.

A

route of administration, membrane penetration;

bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Differentiate therapeutic index and therapeutic window and their parameters (X vs. Y).

A

TI: range of safe dose for general population
(X - dose; Y - % of people who responded to the drug)

TW: - range of doses that produce a therapeutic response without unacceptable side effects
(X - time; Y - PLASMA drug concentration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Calculation for oral bioavailability (%)

A

AUC (area under the curve)
iv does is 100% bioavailability (plasma absorption)

oral dose AUC/ iv dose AUC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Enteral/Parenteral administration of drug means via the GI tract.

A

Enteral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

__ is the disadvantage of oral administration of drug, subjecting drug to degradation/alteration in __ and __ prior to reaching the systemic circulation (blood).

A

First Pass Effect;
liver and intestine

Trajectory: oral –> GI –> vasculature –> portal vein –> liver (metabolism) –> hepatic vein –> systemic circulation (absorption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3 ways drug enters cell/tissue (distribution)

A
  1. Diffusion (partition coefficient)
  2. Carrier-mediated transport
  3. Endocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What determines the diffusion of drug into cell/tissue?

A

Jx = Px A (Co – Ci)

Px - partition coefficient
A - area of membrane
(Co – Ci) - concentration gradient

22
Q

__ is measure of solubility of drug in lipid.

A

Partition coefficient

[Drug] lipid phase / [Drug] aqueous phase

23
Q

Drug distribution to tissue is influenced by 3 factors (list them), determining the __.

A

ion trapping, protein binding, tissue barrier;

volume of distribution

24
Q

Drug-protein binding in the plasma functions as a

__ of drugs in the circulation. The fraction of bound (drug-protein complex) to total drugs in plasma remains constant.

25
Treatment for Aspirin toxicity is __ by administering __ intravenously.
basifying (alkalinization) of urine, bicarbonate
26
Describe the mechanism of detoxification of aspirin in the context of ion trapping.
When urine is alkalinized, aspirin (weak acid) in urine (basic environment) becomes charged (cation). A significant amount of drug (cation) is now trapped in urine for excretion.
27
Drug distribution to target tissue will be most ideal for a weak acid drug in an acidic/basic environment.
acidic (weak acid becomes more neutral) basic environment for weak base drug (conjugate acid)
28
Drugs first end up in location with highest/lowest blood flow (2 organs in the body)
highest; kidney and liver
29
Functional outcome of metabolism (actions of phase I and II)
make metabolites more H2O soluble Phase I - functionalization Phase II - conjugation reaction
30
Sites of metabolism (2)
GI tract (intestine) and liver
31
What is CYP450 system and where does it occur?
CYP450 system facilitates (the most common) Phase I of drug metabolism. CYP450 proteins are mostly found in the liver.
32
Components of CYP450 and how they work
``` Flavoprotein (P450 reductase) Heme protein (CYP450) ``` Oxidation of drug: flavoprotein takes e- from NADPH, transfers to CYP450, add -OH to H (oxidizes the drug)
33
4 different mechanisms of phase I
Monooxygenase (oxidation by CYP450) Monoamine Oxidase (non-P450 oxidation) Alcohol Metabolism (CYP and non-CYP) Esterase (hydrolysis)
34
List 4 major P450 CYP enzymes.
CYP3A4/5 CYP2E1 (minor metabolism of ethanol) CYP2D6 CYP2C19
35
Major pathway for ethanol metabolism: enzymes and their products
ADH (alcohold DH) ALDH (aldehyde DH) ethanol --ADH--> aldehyde --ALDH--> acetate
36
Esterase is part of Phase __ activity, found in __.
I; plasma and other tissues
37
Monoamine oxidase (located in __ of cell) is part of Phase __ activity, converting __ to __.
mitochondria; I; amine to aldehyde
38
Describe the main types of end-products of phase 1 metabolism (3).
aliphatic hydroxylation aromatic hydroxylation N-dealkylation
39
Describe the main types of end-products of phase 2 metabolism (5).
``` glucuronidation (add sugar) acylation (add R-C=O) glycine conjugation sulfate conjugation glutathione conjugation ```
40
Most phase II metabolites are active/inactive (except __)
inactive; morphine
41
Prodrugs become active upon __.
metabolism
42
What does induction of CYP450 mean and what is the result?
Enhancing synthesis and activity of CYP450 that results in reduced availability, hence reduced effect of drug
43
What does inhibition of CYP450 result in?
Decreases ability of CYP450 to metabolize more drug, resulting enhanced effect of drug
44
To increase drug effect, you __ (induction/inhibition of CYP450)
add drug that acts as a CYP450 inhibitor (inhibition)
45
CYP450 inhibition leads to increased/decreased drug effect.
increased
46
CYP450 induction leads to increased/decreased drug effect.
decreased
47
To decrease drug effect, you __ (induction/inhibition of CYP450)
add inducing agent of CYP450 (increase expression) (induction)
48
Phase I and II application: Acetaminophen (Tylenol) toxicity can be reversed by administration of __ (mechanism?)
NAC (N-acetylcysteine) mechanism: NAC + glutamine--> glutathione in liver (avoid toxic pathway)
49
__ can result in difference in ability to metabolize xenobiotics in the body (extensive vs. poor metabolizers)
SNP (single nucleotide polymorphism)
50
Enzyme polymorphism: give examples of how polymorphism of each enzyme can have adverse effect. ADH - ALDH -
``` ADH - alcohol dehydrogenase high activity (and relatively low activity of following ALDH) leads to build-up of acetaldehyde. ``` ALDH - aldehyde dehydrogenase many Asians produce inactive ALDH, leading to acetaldehyde build-up
51
Build-up of __ leads to histamine release from __ cells
acetaldehyde; mast cells