VRU 2015 Flashcards
Which modality has the lowest sensitivity, but highest specificity for detecting presence/absence of shoulder OC/OCD?
A) U/S
B) Radiographs
C) MRI
D) Arthroscopy
Answer = B
Rad: 88% SN, 90%SP
U/S: 92% SN, 60%SP
MRI: 96%SN, 89% SP
True or False, odds of correct dx for shoulder OC/OCD are significantly higher for MRI compared to rads or U/S?
TRUE.
Odds of correct dx for MRI were ~3x higher than U/S & 2x higher than rads
True or False, radiographic visualization of duodenal Peyer’s patches/pseudoulcers is uncommon?
FALSE
Common to see Peyer’s patches/pseudoulcers on rads
When performing survey abdominal radiography, in what order should views be taken to increase the likelihood of gas presence within the duodenum?
A) Right lateral, left lateral
B) Left lateral right lateral
C) VD, right lateral
D) VD, left lateral
Answer = B
Dogs placed in LEFT LATERAL recumbency FIRST more likely to have duodenal gas (& larger volume of gas) on subsequent projections
T or F, on computed tomography the prevalence of subclinical middle and external ear changes is significant?
True.
Prevalence rate of 12.5% of subclinical middle ear changes
~82% have external ear lesions & 20% have middle ear lesions
What are 2 differential diagnoses for mineral attenuating “drum-stick” like hyperostoses within the tympanic bullae in dogs on CT?
Otoliths or hyperostotic tympanic bone spicules
20% Prevalence of hyperostotic tympanic bone spicules (HTBS)
Bilateral small tympanic bone spicules (pointed/clubbed tips) arising from free margin of the septum bullae in 100% necropsied dogs.
Spicules most likely due to physiological bone growth
Recommend using the terms “otolith(s)” or “otolithiasis” for stone-like mineral concretions of necrotic material within the bullae and “HTBS” for the stalked bony globular structures
Which sex and age of dog are more likely to have eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?
Young adult dogs, FEMALES > males
What is the characteristic CT finding of eosinophilic pulmonary granulomatosis?
Multiple pulmonary masses with HONEYCOMB-LIKE ENHANCEMENT (hyperattenuating rims with central hypoattenuating regions)
Which of the following is/are seen on CT of a dog with eosinophilic bronchopneumonopathy?
A) Pulmonary nodules
B) Bronchiectasis (cylindrical)
C) Peribronchial thickening & plugging
D) Pulmonary masses
E) Lymphadenopathy
F) All the above
G) B & C
H) A, B & C
I) A,B,C, E
Answer = I
Pulmonary parenchymal abnormalities (93%)- mostly peribronchial location & ground glass appearance, bronchial wall thickening (87%), bronchial plugging (73%), bronchiectasis (cylindrical) (60%), lymphadenopathy (67%); pulmonary nodules (33%) - 1 mass
1 dog had a NORMAL CT
Which modality/modalities have the HIGHEST ACCURACY for gender determination in lizards?
A) Ultrasound
B) Contrast CT
C) Contrast radiography
D) Noncontrast CT
E) Noncontrast radiography
F) B & C
G) D & E
Answer = F (contrast CT/radiography)
Diagnostic accuracy of hemipenes: contrast CT (100%) & contrast radiography (95%)
POOR accuracy of U/S (64%) & non-contrast CT (63%)
T or F, premedication with Fentanyl/Midaz vs Dexmed causes significant changes in heart rate and visibility of coronary artery anatomy on CT angiography?
FALSE.
No significant difference in heart rate or vessel visibility between different anesthetic protocols.
Mean BP HIGHER with Dexmed
True or False: Nitroprusside has no significant effect on length/diameter of visualization of the coronary arteries but does causes profound hypotension.
True
Using CEUS, what is the correct description of the U/S appearance of pancreatic insulinoma?
A) All nodules clearly hypoechoic post-contrast
B) Nodules more clearly demarcated postcontrast but have variable enhancement patterns
C) Nodules more clearly demarcated postcontrast and are hyperechoic
D) Nodules not clearly identified
Answer = B
Pancreatic nodules more clearly demarcated AFTER contrast, but 3 different enhancement patterns – markedly hyperechoic for 5s, slightly hyperechoic for 1s, & hypoechoic for > 30s
Pancreatic insulinomas are tumors of which cell type?
Beta cell tumors
What percentage of hypercalcemic dogs have thyroid nodules on cervical U/S?
A) < 10%
B) 15%
C) 25%
D) > 25%
Answer = B
A dog with hypercalcemia and no palpable cervical mass has a cervical U/S performed & a hypoechoic thyroid nodule is identified. What is the correct recommendation?
A) Recommend sampling as the nodule may be benign or malignant
B) Nodule should not be present and is therefore malignant - recommend surgery.
C) Nodule is likely benign nodular hyperplasia or a thyroid cyst - no further workup required.
D) Serial sonographic monitoring in 2-3 months to evaluate for progression.
Answer = A
Incidental thyroid nodules may be present in hypercalcemic dogs with no palpable neck mass & no C/S of thyroid disease; may nodules may be malignant therefore sampling recommended
Nodule diagnoses = thyroid cyst (33%), thyroid adenoma (33%), thyroid adenocarcinoma (22%), nodular hyperplasia (11%)
U/S characteristics of thyroid adenoma, nodular hyperplasia & adenocarcinoma NOT distinctive
T or F, many horses with ultrasonographic findings of septic arthritis or tenosynovitis have normal radiographs?
True
Only 1/23 horses had radiographic changes. Radiographic changes likely take 2-3 wks between onset of C/S and appearance on rads.
Which of the following are common concomitant findings with uterus masculinus in male dogs?
A) Prostatomegaly & colonic distension
B) UTIs
C) UTIs & prostatomegaly
D) UTIs, prostatomegaly , & os penis agenesis
Answer = C
83% have prostatomegaly & 50% have UTIs
- os penis agenesis is possible but is UNCOMMON
What is the embryological origin of uterus masculinus?
Remnant of paramesonephric duct system
Persistent Mullerian duct
What is a characteristic finding associated with paragangliomas?
A) Strict intramedullary location
B) Hypervascularity leading to a T2W salt & pepper appearance
C) T1 & T2 hyperintense capsule
D) No evidence of vertebral invasion
Answer = B
In humans, hypervascularity results in punctuated areas of flow void, interspersed in a matrix of increased signal intensity caused by slow flow and tumor cells -> “salt and pepper” T2 appearance; characteristic of paragangliomas within head and neck, but also described in cauda equina lesions
True or False, paragangliomas may have a T1/T2 hypointense capsule
True, hypointense capsule is suggestive of hemosiderin deposition
Describe the appearance of a cauda equina paragnaglioma
well-defined, intramedullary lesion, T2 hyper, T1 hypo, T1 & T2 hypointense capsule (suggestive of hemosiderin), strongly enhancing, invading adjacent vertebral body & bilateral IV foramen infiltration
Intramedullary T2/T2 FLAIR hyperintense abnormalities can be in upper spinal cord segments due to edema or intramedullary cysts
hypervascularity results in punctuated areas of flow void, interspersed in a matrix of increased signal intensity caused by slow flow and tumor cells -> “salt and pepper” T2 appearance
What are the 4 subgroups of paragangliomas based off anatomic location?
1) Branchiomeric - near aortic & carotid bodies
2) Intravagal - along vagus nerve
3) Aortico sympathetic - in retroperitoneum
4) Visceral autonomic - widely dispersed in thyroid, larynx, middle ear, intrathoracic region, GB, GIT, pancreas, prostate, & peripheral blood vessels
Proliferative osseous lesions of the entire spine, more severe along the dorsal margins of the cervical/thoracic spine are seen in dog causing pseudoarthrosis of the spinous processes. What is the primary differential?
A) Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis
B) Multiple cartilaginous exostoses
C) Hypervitaminosis A
D) Hepatozoonosis
Answer = A
Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis should be suspected in any case of widespread extracortical, extra-articular ossification affecting entheses and soft tissues of the axial and/or appendicular skeleton
Tumors can cause paraneoplastic HYPOglycemia by what 3 methods?
1) Tumors produce excess insulin (e.g. pancreatic insulinomas, ectopic insulin-producing masses)
2) Tumors infiltrate & destroy normal hepatic parenchyma
3) Tumors produce substances that interfere with glucose metabolism (e.g. cytokines, catecholamines, insulin-like growth factors)
Which of the following is the best CT positioning for imaging the entire abdomen & specifically for the liver & UB?
A) Abdomen - Ventral recumbency; Liver/UB - ventral
B) Abdomen - Dorsal recumbency; Liver/UB - dorsal
C) Abdomen - Dorsal recumbency; Liver/UB - ventral
D) Abdomen - Ventral recumbency; Liver/UB - dorsal
Answer = C
For abdomen – DORSAL recumbency least displacement except for liver & UB
Ventral recumbency preferred for liver & UB
What is the best concentration of iodine for CT arthrography of the canine elbow?
A) 37.5 mg Iodine/mL
B) 150 mg Iodine/mL
Answer = A
T or F, CT arthrography of the canine elbow joint slightly overestimates articular cartilage thickness compared to histopathology.
True
On CT, a peripherally enhancing rim around an adrenal gland mass is associated with what & what is the relationship to the tumor grade?
A) Hemorrhage; high grade tumor
B) Hemorrhage; low grade tumor
C) Fibrous encapsulation; high grade tumor
D) Fibrous encapsulation; low grade tumor
Answer = D
Peripheral enhancing rim on delayed images associated with fibrous encapsulation (more frequent in LOW-GRADE tumors e.g. adenoma)
On CT, heterogeneous delayed enhancement of an adrenal gland mass is associated with what?
Hemorrhage /infarction
A “golf tee” sign on MT myelography is suggestive of what?
An intradural extramedullary lesion
Which of the following techniques may be more sensitive for diagnosing thoracolumbar intervertebral disc herniation in dogs, low-field MRI or CT myelography?
CT myelography
A “golf tee” sign and small filling defect on CT myelography may suggest what type of lesion?
Intradural extramedullary IV disc herniation
2D phase contrast MRI is used to evaluate flow imaging for cardiac MRI in dogs. T or F, sedation protocol with dexmed versus midaz/fentanyl yielded significant differences in flow and pulmonary to systemic flow ratios?
FALSE.
ANX with dexmed or midaz/fentanyl combo yield similar functional measures of cardiac blood flow using 2D PC MRI in healthy dogs
Which breed of horse has a suspected genetic predisposition to idiopathic epilepsy, occurring in horses < 1 year old?
A) Arabians
B) Fresians
C) Thoroughbreds
D) Tennessee Walkers
Answer = A
Leukoariaosis is a common MRI in older dogs/cats/equine, likely a benign change, characterized by what MRI features?
Bilaterally symmetrical patchy/diffuse white matter periventricular T2/T2 FLAIR hyperintensities
Which of the following is NOT associated with 4th ventricle arachnoid diverticula?
A) Cervical syringohydromyelia & cervical hyperesthesia
B) Mesencephalic aqueduct signal void
C) Crescent shaped cerebellum
D) T1 post contrast enhancement
Answer = D
4th ventricle arachnoid diverticula are developmental lesions secondary to partial obstruction of central canal or lateral apertures
- Most arise from quadrigeminal cistern
- MRI findings consistent with obstructive hydrocephalus based on dilation of all ventricles & cerebellum/brainstem compression, cervical syringohydromyelia with T2 hyperintensity of the cord adjacent to syringohydromyelia, signal void within mesencephalic aqueduct, characteristic crescent shape of cerebellum, periventricular FLAIR hyperintensity
- Cervical hyperesthesia is common & has been associated in 35% of dogs with syringohydromyelia
With regards to MRI lesion detection in dogs with inflammatory intracranial disease, which statement is TRUE?
A) STIR sequences have the highest relative contrast between gray & white matter but do NOT have increased sensitivity for lesion detection
B) T2 FLAIR sequences have the highest relative contrast enhancement between gray & white matter
C) There is significant benefit of using fat-suppressed T2 FLAIR sequences for image quality
D) None of the statements are true
Answer = A
B is false because STIR sequences have the highest relative contrast
When using CT-guided injection for thoracolumbar spinal pain alleviation, which is the optimal site for exclusive epidural distribution?
A) Foraminally at ventral level of caudal articular process
B) Periforaminally at dorsal level of caudal articular process
C) Foraminally at dorsal level of cranial articular process
D) Periforaminally at ventral level of cranial articular process
Answer = D
Which of the following is the appropriate technique for epidural LS injection using ultrasound guidance?
A) Blind injection
B) 30° craniodorsal–caudoventral parasagittal injection
C) 45° craniodorsal–caudoventral parasagittal injection
D) 60° craniodorsal–caudoventral parasagittal injection
Answer = C
Target = trapezoid-shaped echogenic zone between contiguous articular facets of LS vertebral canal on parasagittal image
Needle inserted at 45° craniodorsal–caudoventral direction through SQ tissue and interarcuate ligament until reaching the epidural space -> successful epidural injection with variable subarachnoid space contamination
U/S-guided parasagittal epidural access is a feasible technique in normal dogs, in dogs with L-S radiographic abnormalities and in overweight dogs.
Which of the following is FALSE?
A) Most diverticula occur on the antimesenteric side, however in horses with lymphoma they occur on the mesenteric side, potentially due to location of Peyer’s patches causing the weakening in these cases
B) U/S identification of the 5 intestinal layers horses is not possible
C) Pseudodiverticula are herniations of the mucosa and submucosa through defects in the muscularis layer
D) Increased luminal pressure due to chronic intestinal distension & weakened areas of muscularis may contribute to diverticula formation
Answer = A
A is false because most diverticula occur on the mesenteric side while with lymphoma they occur on the antimesenteric side
Multifocal T2 hyperintense, T1 iso to mildly hyperintense intramedullary and intradural spinal cord lesions with strong enhancement and a dural tail sign are seen in a dog. Three neoplastic differential diagnoses include _______, ________, & ________.
lymphoma, histiocytic sarcoma, & meningioma
What 3 breeds of dog are predisposed to histiocytic sarcoma?
Bernese mountain dogs, flat-coated retrievers, Rottweilers
A neoplastic testicular seminoma may be considered with what signal characteristics on MRI images?
A) T1 hypo, T2 hyper with central septa that are more contrast-enhancing than the mass
B) T1 hypo, T2 hyper without central enhancing septa
C) T1 hyper, T2 hypo with central septa that are more contrast-enhancing than the mass
D) T1 hyper, T2 hypo without central septa
Answer = C
Regarding cardiac enlargement in cats on radiographs in comparison to echocardiographic signs of chamber enlargement which statement is FALSE?
A) There is no correlation between valentine shape and category of heart disease
B) Strong positive correlation between echocardiographic left atrial size & severity of radiographic valentine shape
C) Right atrial enlargement increases the likelihood of valentine shape if there is concurrent left atrial enlargement of any severity
D) All of the above are true statements
Answer = C
RA enlargement ONLY increases likelihood of valentine shape with concurrent SEVERE left atrial enlargement; no correlation with only mild or moderate LA enlargement
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding radiographic pulmonary vascular measurements in healthy dogs and dogs with MV disease?
A) A cutoff ratio of 1.22X right caudal pulmonary to 9th rib diameter has the highest sensitivity and specificity for MV regurgitation
B) ~65-67% of healthy dogs have right caudal pulmonary artery & vein diameters larger than the 9th rib
C) Comparing the right caudal pulmonary vein to its respective artery has the highest sensitivity and specificity for predicting MV regurgitation
D) Right caudal pulmonary vein diameter is significantly larger in dogs with moderate to severe MV disease versus healthy dogs
Answer = A
Answer A is false because a cutoff ratio of 1.22x right caudal pulmonary VEIN to 9th rib diameter is recommended for differentiating healthy dogs from dogs with MV regurg, however this measurement is only ~73% Sn and 73% Sp which is LESS sensitive and specific than comparing the right caudal vein to its respective artery (cutoff of 1.18 PV:PA has a 80% Sn, 83% Sp)
Note than the right caudal pulmonary vein enlargement is only significantly larger compared to healthy dogs in dogs with MODERATE TO SEVERE mitral valve disease, NOT mild
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neoplastic esophageal nodules associated with Spirocerca lupi in dynamic triple-phase CT angiography?
A) Mineralization
B) Significantly more perfusion in early/late arterial phases
C) Irregular surface
D) Fewer and smaller hypoattenuating necropurulent cavities
Answer = B
Neoplastic nodules are significantly HYPOperfused compared to non-neoplastic nodules.
Postcontrast HYPOperfusion, nodule irregularity & mineralization are very suggestive of neoplastic transformation of Spirocerca lupi esophageal nodules
Non-neoplastic nodules – smooth, nonmineralized, higher proportion of hypopattenuating necropurulent cavities, significantly more perfusion in early/late arterial phases
No difference in ratio of normal adjacent esophagus to neoplastic or non-neoplastic nodules
NO lymphadenopathy in any dogs
There is ______ accuracy using CT to assess bronchial wall thickness to pulmonary artery diameter using the ______ lung lobes. A _______ lung lobe to pulmonary artery diameter ratio of _____has a 77% sensitivity and 100% specificity for predicting chronic bronchitis.
A) High; caudal; caudal; ≥ 0.6
B) Low; caudal; caudal; ≤ 0.8
C) High; cranial; cranial; ≥ 0.6
D) Low; cranial; cranial; ≤ 0.8
Answer = C
Dogs with bronchitis have HIGHER bronchial wall thickness: PA diameter versus healthy
Cranial lung lobe ratios > caudal in both healthy & affected
High accuracy
Cranial lung lobe ratio ≥0.6 has 77% sensitivity, 100% specificity for predicting for the presence of chronic bronchitis
A cat is presented with hyporexia and coughing. Thoracic CT is performed and a primary pulmonary tumor is identified. What is the most common location and appearance of this tumor?
A) Left cranial lobe, well-defined smooth margins, bronchial compression
B) Right caudal lobe, well-defined irregular margins, bronchial compression
C) Right cranial lobe, visceral pleural contact, gas-containing cavities
D) Left caudal lobe, gas and mineral foci, high likelihood of other pulmonary metastases
Answer = B
- Caudal lung lobe > cranial (49% right caudal, 30% left caudal)
- 53% had additional pulmonary metastatic foci
Common CT features = well-defined mass with irregular margins that contacts visceral pleura and causes bronchial compression. 63% gas-containing cavities, 56% mineral foci, 19% bronchial invasion, 30% pleural effusion & pleural tags, 12% thrombosis
What is the optimal insufflation pressure for CT pneumocolonography in dogs?
A) 10mmg Hg
B) 15 mmHg
C) 20 mmHg
D) 25 mmHg
Answer = C
What is the optimal time to image liver metastases using gadobenate dimeglumine on MRI?
A) <15-18 min post
B) 18-21 min post
C) 23-25min post
D) > 30 min post
Answer = C
What is the best sequence to image liver metastases using gadobenate dimeglumine on MRI?
A) transverse T1 post
B) transverse 3D VIBE
C) dorsal 3D VIBE
D) transverse 3D FLASH
Answer = D
Higher number of lesions detected in hepatobiliary contrast-enhanced sequences
Best sequence = transverse 3D FLASH 23-25 min after injection
In horses with carpal sheath effusion, which soft tissue structures are most commonly affected?
A) SDFT & DDFT
B) SDFT & accessory ligament of SDFT
C) DDFT & accessory ligament of DDFT
D) Both accessory ligaments
Answer = B
What 2 factors increase the likelihood of having carpal effusion in horses?
A) History of racing
B) Prior soft tissue antebrachial injury
C) Lameness at presentation
D) Middle to older age
Answers C & D are correct
Adrenal gland is likely to be normal in size if the thickness of the caudal pole of the adrenal gland in the sagittal plane is:
_______ for dogs < 10 kg
_______ for dogs between 10-30kg
______ for dogs > 30kg
≤ 0.54 cm for < 10 kg dogs
≤ 0.68 cm for 10-30 kg dogs
≤ 0.80 cm for > 30 kg dogs
What is a differential for an abdominal mass that may exhibit atypical muscular contractions & lack an identifiable organ of origin?
Disseminated peritoneal leiomyomatosis
What is the only U/S feature helpful in differentiating GISTs from other tumor types?
A) Presence of abdominal effusion
B) Eccentric, extramural location
C) Origin from muscularis layer
D) Cecal/large intestine location
Answer = D
The other statements are true of GISTs, but are not helpful in differentiation
What is the most common anatomic location for infiltrative angiolipomas?
A) Distal extremities
B) Around the trunk
C) In the cervical region
D) No anatomical location predilection
Answer = B
Which of the following statements is true regarding U/S findings and cats with urethral obstruction?
A) Pericystic effusion is associated with severe hyperkalemia
B) Renomegaly, perirenal effusion, and urine sediment were associated with increased risk for reobstruction
C) No U/S findings were associated with increased risk of reobstruction
D) Intramural hematomas or blood clots are common findings
E) A and B are true
F) A and C are true
Answer =C
Perirenal effusion associated with severe hyperkalemia
Common U/S findings = echogenic urine sediment, bladder thickening, pericystic & perirenal effusion, hyperechoic pericystic & perirenal fat, increased urinary echoes, pyelectasia, renomegaly, ureteral dilation
Uncommon findings = intramural hematoma, luminal blood clots, suspected pseudomembranous cystitis (thick echogenic septa transecting bladder lumen)
2 patterns of bronchoespohageal artery hypertrophy and systemic to pulmonary fistula have been described - a congenital form & acquired form. Which of the following statements is the most accurate?
A) In the congenital form, there is a normal origin of both the right & left bronchoesophageal arteries.
B) Congenital forms are more likely to have pulmonary thrombi or emboli
C) Underlying pulmonary or pleural disease should be evaluated for in dogs with acquired form
D) The normal bronchoesophageal arteries arise at the level of the 4th left dorsal intercostal artery
Answer = C
A is false because in the congenital form the RIGHT bronchoesophageal artery has an aberrant origin (vs both have normal origins in the acquired form)
B is false because the acquired form is likely to have pulmonary thrombi/emboli ; not seen in congenital form
D is false because the normal bronchoesophageal arteries arise at the level of the right 5th dorsal intercostal artery
*N.B. - all patients with the congenital form have concurrent paraesophageal or esophageal varices
What is the best modality for diagnosis of circumcaval ureters?
Contrast-enhanced multidetector CT
In affected cats with a retrocaval/circumcaval ureter which of the following is seen?
A) IV urography is sufficient for diagnosis
B) Preureteral vena cava increases the risk for concurrent urinary signs
C) In all affected cats, a “spindle-shaped” ureter is observed running medially at L4-L5 and passing dorsal to CVC
D) Circumcaval ureters occur ~50% of cats
Answer = B
A is false b/c IV urography is NOT sufficient for dx, use contrast-enhanced MDCT
C is false because all have a “reverse-J ureter” shape observed running medially at L4-L5 and passing dorsal to CVC
D is false because circumcaval ureters are only seen in ~1/3 of cats
What is different about he anatomy of the major duodenal papilla in cats versus dogs?
In cats, both the common bile duct and pancreatic duct open into the MDP
In cats without abdominal disease. a _____ injection duration results in ________ bolus geometry with a ________ time to peak and ______ peak aortic enhancement.
A) Longer; broader; shorter; higher
B) Shorter; narrower; longer; lower
C) Longer; narrower; longer; higher
D) Longer; broader; longer; lower
Answer = D
Longer injection duration results in broader bolus geometery with a longer time to peak and lower peak aortic enhancement in cats, BUT did not cause overlap of arterial & portal phases
Carotid body paragangliomas have all of the following features EXCEPT:
A) Precontrast heterogeneous hypointensity on CT
B) Strong heterogeneous contrast enhancement
C) Metastatic predilection for vertebrae
D) Iso to hyperattenuating to muscles on precontrast CT and T1/T2 hyperintense to muscles on MRI
E) A & D
F) A & C
G) All the above are correct
Answer = E
A is wrong because paragangliomas are precontrast CT hyperattenuating
D is wrong because masses are iso to hypo to muscles on CT & T1/T2 hyperintense to muscles on MRI
Carotid body paragangliomas often ______ and/or ______ the external carotid artery.
displace and/or entrap
Approximately 56% of carotid body paragangliomas will have regional invasion, which can extend dorsally into the cranial vault through which structure?
Tympano-occipital fissure -> jugular foramen
Can cause jugular foramen syndrome
Presenting C/S include difficulty swallowing, dyspnea, Horner’s syndrome, head tilt, facial nerve paralysis
T or F, when performing contrast-enhanced CT of the equine head, high volume intravenous injection results in significantly better image quality & soft tissue enhancement compared to low dose intraarterial contrast administration.
FALSE.
Low-dose intraarterial administration of contrast material in the equine head resulted in comparable soft tissue enhancement & image quality vs. high volume intravenous administration
What are the two criteria for diagnosis of an acute non-compressive nucleus pulposus extrusion?
Intramedullary T2 hyperintensity immediately dorsal to an IV disc of decreased size and reduced T2W signal intensity of nucleus pulposus
What are the two most common intramedullary spinal metastatic tumors?
TCC and hemangiosarcoma
Oculomotor, trochlear, abducens, & ophthalmic branch of trigeminal exit the skull through the _________.
Orbital fissure
Maxillary branch of trigeminal enters through the ________ foramen and then proceeds through the _________
Round foramen; rostral alar foramen/canal
Mandibular branch of 5 exits through _______
Oval foramen/ foramen lacerum
Facial nerve emerges through the __________ and passes dorsal to the cochlea before entering the _______.
Facial canal; internal acoustic meatus
CrN 9, 10. & 11 exit together through the _______.
Jugular foramen
CrN 12 exits through the ________.
Hypoglossal foramen
Which 4 cranial nerves pass through the guttural pouch?
Facial (CrN 7)
Glossophayngeal (CrN 9)
Vagus (CrN 10)
Accessory (CrN 11)
In birds, the yolk sac usually regresses and becomes a remnant termed ___________.
Meckel’s diverticulum - attaches to jejunum by a small papilla
Middle age cat presents with vomiting and diarrhea. On PE a heart murmur is noted and there is hindlimb paresis. Radiographs are taken revealing moderate generalized cardiomegaly, dilated GI loops, portal venous gas, and small volume of peritoneal free gas. What is the most likely differential for the gastrointestinal and neurologic clinical signs?
Acute mesenteric ischemia secondary to thrombi emboli in abdominal aorta, mesenteric artery, renal arteries, and CVC
- Bowel wall thickening is the most frequently seen with mesenteric ischemia caused by mural edema and hemorrhage. However, the bowel wall becomes thinner rather than thicker in case of exclusively arterial occlusive mesenteric ischemia or infarction
