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Radiology Residency > Prelim TQs > Flashcards

Prelim TQs Flashcards

1
Q

What are the normal size for adrenal glands on U/S for dogs based on weight (< 10kg, 10-30kg, > 30kg)?

A

< 10 kg = 0.54cm
10-30kg = 0.68cm
> 30 kg = 0.80cm

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2
Q

Which cells of exocrine pancreas produce glucagon?

A) Alpha cells
B) Beta cells
C) D cells
D) F cells

A

Answer = A

Alpha = glucagon
Beta = insulin
D cells = somatostatin
F cells = pancreatic polypeptide

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3
Q

In U/S of the thyroid gland, you encounter a hypoechoic nodule within the parenchyma which you suspect may be a normal parathyroid gland. What is the PPV that this is true on histopathology? What is an alternative DDX for this structure?

A

74% that the nodule is truly a parathyroid gland (74% PPV)

A small percentage of these nodules will actually be LOBULAR THYROID TISSUE/THYROID LOBULES

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4
Q

A dog presents for a cervical U/S. Bloodwork shows elevated ionized calcium. rDVM PTHrP is positive. What finding do you expect to see associated with the parathyroid glands?

A) Bilaterally enlarged parathyroid glands
B) Unilateral enlargement of the parathyroid glands
C) All parathyroid glands will be inconspicuous or absent
D) A mixture of big and small parathyroid glands

A

Answer = C

With hypercalcemia of malignancy ALL parathyroid glands will be small.

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5
Q

Where does the neurohypophysis originate from?

A

The floor of the hypothalamus

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6
Q

What are the 7 hormones released by the hypothalamus?

A

1) Corticotrophin releasing hormone
2) Thyroid releasing hormone
3) Gonad releasing releasing
4) Prolactin releasing hormone
5) Prolactin inhibitory hormone
6) Growth releasing hormone
7) Growth hormone inhibitory hormone

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7
Q

The inner dural/meningeal layer of the hypophysis (pituitary gland) forms what?

A

Diaphragma sellae

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8
Q

Which lobe is the posterior lobe of the hypophysis?

A) Adenohypophysis
B) Neurohypophysis

A

B) Neurophypophysis

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9
Q

What 2 hormones are produced by the neurohypophysis?

A

1) Oxytocin -> uterine and udder smooth muscle contraction
2) Vasopressin/antidiuretic hormone -> vasoconstriction & fluid resorption by kidneys

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10
Q

What structure arises from the roof the mouth (Rathke’s pouch)?

A

Adenohypophysis

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11
Q

T or F, the adenohypophysis has NO direct vascular connection to the hypothalamus?

A

FALSE

Adenohypophysis has DIRECT vascular connection to hypothalamus

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12
Q

What signal intensity is the pituitary gland on T1 images?

A

HYPERintense due to vasopressin granules

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13
Q

Using dynamic CT for assessment of pituitary-dependent Cushing’s, what is the expected attenuation of the gland with a microadenoma?

A

Microadenoma often ISOattenuating to rest of pituitary parenchyma

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14
Q

Using dynamic contrast enhanced CT for pituitary adenomas, what is the characteristic feature?

A) Microadenomas are either hypo- or hyperattenuating to rest of gland
B) Displacement of pituitary flush
C) Marked early enhancement of the mass
D) None of the above

A

Answer = B

Some masses have diffusely abnormal enhancement.

Pituitary flush is STRONGER in normal glands. With adenomatous hyperplasia or mass formation, the flush will be displaced, distorted, smaller, or absent

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15
Q

What is the NORMAL brain to pituitary ratio?

A) Less than or equal to 0.31
B) Greater than or equal to 0.31
C) Less than or equal to 0.52
D) Greater than or equal to 0.52

A

Answer = A

Ratio MAY BE INCREASED if mass present

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16
Q

Which portion of the pituitary gland enhances first following contrast administration?

A

Neurohypophysis in the CENTER enhances first followed by peripheral adenohypophysis

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17
Q

Describe the pattern and type of enhancement (homogeneous versus heterogeneous) of the NORMAL feline hypophysis?

A

Homogeneous enhancement

2 patterns: central then peripheral (seen in 4 cats) or dorsal/peripheral then central (seen in 4 cats)

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18
Q

What is the optimal window width and window level for evaluation of the pituitary gland at the brain:pituitary edge and pituitary:bone edge, respectively?

A) WW/WL 80/250 & 240/250
B) WW/WL 240/250 & 80/250
C) WW/WL 250/240 & 250/80
D) WW/WL 250/80 and 250/240

A

Answer = D

WW 250 WL 240 for bone pituitary edge
WW 250 WL 80 for brain pituitary edge

Overall BEST window is WW 250 WL 80

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19
Q

What is the correct pattern indicative of restricted diffusion on DWI/ADC?

A) DWI hypo/ADC hyper
B) DWI hyper/ADC hypo
C) DWI hyper/ADC normal
D) none of the above

A

Answer = B

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20
Q

Restricted diffusion on DWi/ADC maps usually indicates what kind of edema and is associated with what disease process?

A

Cytotoxic edema
Associated with acute ischemic infarcts

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21
Q

Describe the appearance of unrestricted diffusion on DWI/ADC maps, what kind of edema is it associated with, and what disease process does it indicate?

A

Unrestricted diffusion = DWI hypo, ADC hyper

Associated with VASOGENIC edema & indicates tissue cavitation in chronic infarcts

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22
Q

Describe DWI/ADC “pseudonormalization”….Additionally, What kind of edema and disease process is it associated with?

A

DWI hyper, ADC NORMAL

Corresponds to concomitant cytotoxic & vasogenic edema in SUBACUTE infarcts

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23
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT involved in the oropharyngeal phase of deglutition?

A) CrN 5
B) CrN 9
C) CrN 11
D) CrN 12

A

Answer = C

CrN 5,7,9, 10, & 12 are associated with deglutition

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24
Q

What 2 muscles make up the cranial esophageal sphincter?

A

Cricopharyngeus & Thyropharygeus

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25
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for oral dysphagia?

A) CrN 5
B) CrN 7
C) CrN 10
D) CrN 12

A

Answer = D, CrN 12 (hypoglossal)

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26
Q

Gastric size is considered normal in a foal when the _________ of the stomach is approximately half the _________

A

Normal when the height (width?) is approximately half the length

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27
Q

Distension of small bowel loops (in foals) is considered to be present when their diameter is greater than ___________?

A

SmI diameter is greater than the length of L1 vertebral body

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28
Q

Radiographic feature of undernourishment in a tortoise is __________?

A

Decreased visceral bulk compared to lung field volume

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29
Q

Clumping of barium contrast during upper GI study can be caused by all of the following except which?

A) Rapid administration of barium
B) Mixing of barium with fat or mucus
C) Too small of a bolus of contrast administered
D) Delated gastric emptying due to fullness of ileum (gastroileal reflex)

A

Answer = A

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30
Q

What are the sonographic signs associated with gastrointestinal pythiosis in dogs?

A
  • Stomach/duodenum/jejunum/colon can be affected
  • Gastrointestinal wall thickening with focal/multifocal loss of wall layering
  • Jejunal lymphadenopathy
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31
Q

Which 5 broad disease categories should be considered with the presence of small intestinal corrugation?

A

1) Enteritis
2) Peritonitis
3) Pancreatitis
4) Neoplasia
5) Bowel wall ischemia

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32
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of a retained surgical sponge on U/S?

A

HYPOechoic mass with a HYPERechoic center

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33
Q

A dog presents with clinical signs of retching and gulping. Physical examination reveals enlarged salivary glands. Normal body temperature. Bloodwork is normal. What is the primary DDX and treatment recommended?

A

Sialoadenosis
Tx = phenobarbital

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34
Q

Which of the following is/are NOT a feature seen on U/S of parvovirus enteritis in puppies?

A) Fluid-filled atonic small intestine
B) Hyperechoic mucosal speckling
C) Enlarged jejunal lymph nodes
D) Reduced mucosal wall thickness of the duodenum & jejunum
E) B, C & D
F) C & D
G) All the above

A

Answer = C ; incorrect because lymph nodes are NORMAL in size

Answers A, B, & D are true

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35
Q

When measuring the proventriculus:keel ratio in Amazon parrots, which of the following affects measurements?

A) Repeat imaging within an 8 hour period
B) Fasting/feeding status
C) Use of anesthesia/sedation
D) Rotation/obliquity from a true lateral projection

A

Answer = D

No significant effect was identified due to anesthesia, feeding, fasting, or repeated imaging through an 8-h period.

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36
Q

T or F, up at ~80% of enterotomy sites may be visible sonographically at least 6 months following surgery?

A

Answer = TRUE, 79%

  • Enterectomy scar typically appeared as mild focal intestinal WALL THICKENING (91%) with ALTERED (91%) or absent wall layering (9.1%) over a short distance of the bowel.
  • INTRAMURAL HYPERECHOIC FOCI (64%), most likely representing fibrosis or non-absorbed suture material of the visible enterectomy sites.
  • focal accumulation of INTRALUMINAL GAS (82%) at the enterectomy site.
  • Additional ultrasonographic features included the presence of an irregular hyperechoic rim bordering the enterectomy site (50%), and a focal deviation of the intestinal course (45.5%).
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37
Q

What is the CT appearance of necrotizing pancreatitis?

A) Thickening and hyperattenuation of parenchyma, non-enhancing necrotic regions
B) Thickening and hypoattenuation of parenchyma, non-enhancing necrotic regions
C) Thickening and hyperattenuation of parenchyma, contrast-enhancing necrotic regions
D) Thickening and hypoattenuation of parenchyma, contrast-enhancing necrotic regions

A

Answer = B

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38
Q

What are 5 most frequent non-pancreatic tumors that are associated with HYPOglycemia?

A

1) Leiomyoma
2) Leiomyosarcoma
3) Hepatoma
4) Hepatocellular carcinoma
5) Tumors with extensive hepatic metastases

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39
Q

What tumor is associated with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome? And what is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Pancreatic gastrinoma

Islet cell tumor that secretes excessive amounts of gastrin -> gastric acid hypersecretion -> erosive gastritis & duodenitis

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39
Q

What is a sonographic finding that is unique to malignant pancreatic tumors?

A) Hypoechoic echogenicity & multiple nodular appearance
B) Hyperechoic nodular appearance
C) Single nodule/mass exceeding 2cm
D) Pancreatic thickening, lymphadenopathy, abdominal effusion

A

Answer = C

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40
Q

True or false, renal hypoechoic subcapsular thickening has a poor positive predictive value and poor specificity for detection of feline lymphosarcoma?

A

FALSE.

Good PPV - 81%
Good specificity - 85%
POOR sensitivity 61%, POOR NPV 67%

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41
Q

A dog presents with lameness/difficulty walking and crusting, ulcerated lesions of the paws. What sonographic finding may be observed?

A) Nodular hyperplasia of various organs
B) Hyperechoic liver with honeycomb pattern
C)Hypoechoic nodules of the liver and spleen
D) None of the above

A

Answer = B

Dog likely has superficial necrolytic dermatitis (crusting and erythematous skin lesions)

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42
Q

Earliest indication of bile duct obstruction is _________ and occurs at ______ hours?

A

Gallbladder and cystic duct dilation at 24 hours.

CBD enlargement evident in 24-48 hours, while peripheral intrahepatic biliary duct dilation was seen in 5-7 days.

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43
Q

Combination of what 3 things has a 100% PPV and 51% NPV for congenital PSS?

A

Small liver (microhepatica), large kidneys (renomegaly), and uroliths

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44
Q

All dogs/cats with a PV:AO ratio of ________ had an extrahepatic PSS or idiopathic noncirrhotic portal hypertension?

A) Greater than or equal to 0.8
B) Less than or equal to 0.8
C) Greater than or equal to 0.65
D) Less than or equal to 0.65

A

Answer = D

Dogs & cats with a PV:Ao ratio ≥ 0.8 or PV:CVC ratio ≥ 0.75 did NOT have an extrahepatic PSS

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45
Q

Common bile duct diameter of ________in seen in 97% of cats with extrahepatic biliary obstruction.

A

> 5mm

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46
Q

In cats with an extrahepatic biliary obstruction, < 50% have what sonographic finding?

A) Gallbladder distension
B) Cystic/common bile duct dilation
C) A visible sonographic cause of obstruction (e.g. stone)
D) Gallbladder wall thickening

A

Answer = A

Ultrasound identified all obstructive choleliths (calculus or plugs) in the common bile duct.

However, neither common bile duct diameter nor appearance or any other ultrasonographic feature allowed differentiation between tumor and inflammation as the cause of obstruction.

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47
Q

In cats with sonographic features of extrahepatic biliary obstruction, _____________seems to be associated with obstructive cholelithiasis?

A) Progressively elevated liver enzymes
B) Gallbladder wall thickening and ductal dilation
C) Short duration of C/S (< 10 days)
D) Long duration of C/S ( > 10 days)

A

Answer = C

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48
Q

What is hepatocutaneous syndrome?

A

Hepatocutaneous syndrome (Superficial necrolytic dermatitis) belongs to a group of syndromes in which cutaneous signs signal the presence of systemic disease.
It is characterized by parakeratosis, superficial necrolysis, and basilar hyperplasia of the epidermis, in association with an unusual hepatopathy accompanied by certain metabolic derangements.
Sonography of the liver reveals a hyperechoic network surrounding hypoechoic areas of parenchyma, resulting a “Swiss cheese-like” appearance

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49
Q

In a study using CEUS for characterization of canine focal liver lesions, which of the following is FALSE?

A) Sonazoid is a useful agent because it has a parenchymal phase due to its ability to be phagocytized by Kupffer cells
B) In the portal phase there were no characteristic findings between benign and malignant lesions
C) In most dogs, malignant tumors were clearly hypoechoic to the surrounding normal liver during the arterial phase
D) During the arterial phase, malignant nodules had different echogenicity to the surrounding liver during arterial phase (e.g. nodular hyperplasia isoechoic, hepatocellular carcinoma hyperechoic, hemangiosarcoma hypoechoic)

A

Answer = C

False because malignant tumors are HYPOechoic to normal liver during PARENCHYMAL phase, not arterial phase

50
Q

In comparison of computed tomographic angiography and intraoperative mesenteric portovenography for extrahepatic portosystemic shunts, diagnostic intra-operative mesenteric portovenography is indicated in what circumstances?

A

In cases that have undergone diagnostic PRE-operative computed tomographic angiography there is NO indication for diagnostic intra-operative mesenteric portovenography BEFORE ligation.

In contrast, portovenography performed “after” temporary full ligation of the shunt provides clinical useful information and might be considered an integral investigation during shunt attenuation surgery.

51
Q

Normal ferret vertebral column:

a) C7, T13, L5, S3
b) C7, T14, L5, S3
c) C7, T14, L6, S3
d) C6, T13, L5, S3

A

Answer = C
C7, T14, L6, S3

52
Q

Which of the following vertebral column & species is INCORRECT?

A) Dog/Cat: C7, T14, L7, S3
B) Ferret: C7, T14, L6, S3
C) Horse: C7, T18, L6, S5
D) Cow: C7, T13, L6, S3

A

Answer = D
Cow = C7, T13, L6, S5

53
Q

Defective osteoclastic resorption of bone is the principle feature of _______?

A) Mucopolysaccharidosis
B) Osteochondrodysplasia
C) Osteoporosis
D) Osteopenia

A

Answer = C

54
Q

What are 2 disease processes that may cause diffuse medullary sclerosis?

A

FeLV
PKU deficiency

55
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta is secondary to abnormal ________ production.

A

abnormal Type 1 collagen production

56
Q

Which cat breed is predisposed to MPS 6?

A

Siamese

57
Q

Which of the following are seen with mucopolysaccharidosis?

A) Epiphyseal dysplasia, late closing & widened physes, disproportionate dwarfism
B) Epiphyseal dysplasia, widened irregular physes, disproportionate dwarfism
C) Normal epiphyses but late closing physes, osteopenia, proportionate dwarfism
D) None of the above

A

Answer = B

MPS causes osteopenia, epiphyseal dysplasia, wide & irregular physes, disproportionate dwarfism, vertebral fusion, & possible stunting
NO evidence of late closing physes

58
Q

Scottish Fold osteochondrodysplasia is an autosomal (dominant or recessive) trait?

A

Autosomal DOMINANT trait

59
Q

Describe the radiographic changes associated with Scottish Fold osteochondrodysplasia?

A
  • Shortened & irregular size/shape of tarsus, carpus, metatarsus, metacarpus, phalanges, & vertebrae (caudal)
  • Narrowed joint spaces
  • New bone production around distal limb joints
  • Diffuse osteopenia
  • Formation of plantar calcaneus exostosis
60
Q

What are the radiographic features of congenital hypothyroidism and which disease is a differential diagnosis that may appear similarly?

A) Epiphyseal dysplasia & delayed growth plate closure; DDX = pituitary dwarfism
B) Delayed growth plate closure, irregular size/shape of multiple bones; DDX = MPS
C) Diffuse osteopetrosis, proportionate dwarfism; DDX = pituitary dwarfism
D) Multiple stages of various fracture healing; diffuse osteopenia; DDX = osteogenesis imperfect

A

Answer = A

Congenital hypothyroidism causes disproportionate dwarfism, block-like trunks, broad short skulls, epiphyseal dysplasia & delayed growth plate closure

61
Q

Which dog breed is predisposed to craniomandibular osteopathy?

A

West Highland White Terriers
-also Scottish, Cairn, Boston, & other terriers

62
Q

Skull radiographs of a young Terrier mix presenting for difficulty chewing show bony proliferation of the calvarium, tentorium osmium & petrous temporal bone. What is the radiographic diagnosis?

A

Craniomandibular osteopathy

-tympanic bullae, mandibles, TMJ joints may also be affected

63
Q

(Males or females) are overrepresented with panosteitis?

A

Males

64
Q

Panosteitis lesions are commonly found near what structure?

A

Nutrient foramen, may originate there but can expand to fill entire medullary cavity

65
Q

Which dog breed(s) are predisposed to calvarial hyperostosis?

A

Bullmastiffs
Weimaraners

66
Q

T or F, Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (avascular femoral head necrosis) is usually bilateral

A

FALSE, usually unilateral but can be bilateral in 12-20%

67
Q

What is the typical signalment of a dog with a bone cyst?

A) Middle age to older, female large breed dog
B) Middle age to older, male small breed dog
C) Young, male large breed dog
D) Young, female small breed dog

A

Answer = C
Young dogs of larger breeds most affected
GSDs & Dobermans overrepresented
Males predisposed

68
Q

At which bone location do bone cysts occur in?

A

Metaphysis or adjacent diaphysis of long bones
-Spares epiphyses & growth plates
- Distal radius & ulna MOST OFTEN affected

69
Q

A young dog fell off a bed months ago and suffered a tibial fracture. Presenting months later with a painful expansile mass at the site of fracture. Radiographs show an expansile cyst-like bone lesions with triangular laminated periostea proliferation. What is the primary differential?

A) Fracture recurrence
B) Synostosis production
C) Fibrous dysplasia
D) Aneurysmal bone cyst

A

Answer = D

Can occur in young or geriatric animals

Cause of aneurysmal bone cyst unknown - tumors, developmental abnormalities, trauma-induced hemorrhage causing venous obstruction or arteriovenous shunts

Localized partial disruption of medullary blood flow results in endosteal bone resorption & outward periosteal displacement (Codman’s triangle)

70
Q

A young dog sustained a traumatic injury to the jaw and owners have noticed a progressive firm, non painful bulge along his mandible and the regional tooth is displaced. What is the next diagnostic step & your primary differential?

A) CT; tooth root abscess
B) Radiographs; giant cell granuloma
C) Radiographs; mandibular fx
D) Aspirate; abscess from traumatic injury

A

Answer = B

Giant cell granulomas are rare, non-neoplastic masses initiated by trauma-associated intraosseous hemorrhage.

Affect mandible/maxilla of YOUNG dogs

Lesion is round/ovoid, expansile, uniloculated radiolucency surrounded by rim of nonreactive bone. Adjacent teeth may lose lamina dura & be displaced

71
Q

Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism results from diets providing excess ________, insufficient ______, or both. The imbalance produces ______calcemia, which increases secretion of ______(which hormone).

A

Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism = excess phosphorus, insufficient calcium -> HYPOcalcemia -> excess PTH secretion

PTH secretion normalizes blood calcium by calcium resorption from bone, increased intestinal calcium resorption, & causes renal phosphate excretion & calcium retention

72
Q

In both nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism and Rickets there is diffuse osteopenia and thin cortices of the bones, however there is a difference in the _____ _____, which are NORMAL in nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism but abnormal in Rickets (characteristic appearance is ________).

A

Difference in GROWTH PLATES

Growth plates NORMAL in secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism but not in Rickets

Growth plates in Rickets are thickened & have a “cup” appearance of the adjacent metaphysis

73
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of hypervitaminosis A?

A) Diffuse osteopenia, bowed diaphyses of long bones
B) Epiphyseal dysplasia, widened physes
C) Exurberant exostoses & enthesophytes involving cervical & cranial thoracic vertebrae
D) None of the above

A

Answer = C

74
Q

What are the 3 types of viable non-union fractures? And describe them

A

Hypertrophic non-union (elephant’s foot) = ABUNDANT callus but FAILS to bridge gap usually due to rotational instability

Slightly hypertrophic non-union (horse foot callus) = SOME callus formation but without fracture gap bridging usually due to rotational or angular instability in simple RU or tibial fractures

Oligotrophic non-union = minimal to no callus formation usually seen in avulsion fractures

75
Q

What are the 4 types of non-viable non-union fractures? and describe them

A

1) Dystrophic non-union : intermediate fragment becomes united with one of the two main fragment ends but not the other
2) Necrotic non-union: generally involving comminuted fractures which creates avascular pieces of bone
3) Defect non-union: significant bone loss at fx site causing excessive gap formation that cannot be bridged
4) Atrophic non-union: RARE, usually involves simple distal RU fractures in toy breeds

76
Q

Hematogeneous osteomyelitis occurs most commonly at the _________ region of bone.

A) Epiphyseal
B) Metaphyseal
C) Diaphyseal

A

B = Metaphyseal

77
Q

Why are horses with hematogeneous osteomyelitis MORE likely to have concurrent septic arthritis than dogs/cats?

A

Horses have transphyseal vessels at birth unlike dogs/cats

78
Q

Medullary bone infarcts are usually found in conjunction with which disease(s)?

A
  • Usually osteosarcoma
  • Occasionally associated with skeletal fibrosarcoma or renal adenocarcinoma
79
Q

Bone infarcts are usually found in which region of the bone?

A) Distal to distal 1/3 of diaphysis
B) Epiphysis
C) Proximal or distal metaphyses
D) Any region of bone

A

Answer = A
- Also mainly found in femur or distal to elbow

80
Q

Which is associated with more aggressive periosteal reaction, continuous or interrupted pattern?

A

Interrupted periosteal reaction is MORE aggressive

Continuous periosteal reactions = solid, lamellar, lamellated

Interrupted periosteal reactions = brushlike/palisade (thick or thin), sunburst, amorphous

81
Q

Place the following 6 types of periosteal reaction in order from LEAST to MOST aggressive: sunburst, lamellated, brush-like, solid, amorphous, and lamellar.

A

LEAST -> MOST aggressive

1) Solid
2) Lamellar (parallel)
3) Lamellated (onion skin) - may be seen with osteomyelitis particularly fungal osteomyelitis
4) Brush-like/Palisade : the thinner or more speculated it is the MORE aggressive it is ; may be seen with acute hematogeneous osteomyelitis & hypertrophic osteopathy
5) Sunburst
6) Amorphous: technically NOT a periosteal reaction but neoplastic new bone production

82
Q

Which 2 bone pathologies cause diffuse osteopenia & bone fractures?

A) Hypervitaminosis A & nutritional secondary hyperparathyoridism
B) Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism & Rickets
C) MPS & osteogenesis imperfecta
D) Osteogenesis imperfecta & secondary nutritional hyperparathyroidism

A

Answer = D, Osteogenesis imperfecta & nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism

83
Q

A young adult male cat presents with proliferative lesions of the tarsal joints with ill-defined regions of osteolysis. What is the primary differential?

A

Periosteal proliferative polyarthritis - a form of erosive immune polyarthritis

  • this disease is more common in cats > dogs
  • mainly affects tarsi & carpi
84
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is a form of (erosive or non-erosive) polyarthritis?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis = EROSIVE immune-based arthritis

85
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus is a form of (erosive or non-erosive) polyarthritis?

A

SLE = NON-erosive immune based arthritis

86
Q

Systemic lupus erythematous is a multi systemic disease characterized by simultaneous/sequential development of what conditions?

A
  • IMHA
    -IMTP
  • Leukopenia
    -Glomerulonephritis
  • Dermatitis
  • Polymyositis
  • Pleuritis
  • CNS disease
  • Symmetric polyarthritis
87
Q

T or F, idiopathic arthritis can be associated with neoplasia?

A

True.

Neoplasia-associated idiopathic arthritis has been seen with SCC, heart base tumors, leiomyomas, mammary adenocarcinoma, & feline myeloproliferative diseases (FeLV, FIV)

88
Q

Which dog breed is predisposed to polyarthritis/polymyositis syndrome?

A) Australian Shepherds
B) Spaniels
C) German Shepherds
D) Dobermans

A

Answer = B, Spaniels

  • Polyarthritis/polymyositis seen in limb & TMJ ; dogs may be unable to open their mouths
89
Q

Traumatic shoulder luxation is more likely to occur in which direction?

A) Proximal
B) Distal
C) Medial
D) Lateral

A

Answer = C

90
Q

What are the components of a Monteggia fracture?

A) Fracture of distal radius & ulna
B) Fracture of proximal radius & ulna with radial head luxation
C) Fracture of proximal radius and ulna & ulnar head luxation
D) Fracture proximal ulna with an associated radial head luxation

A

Answer = D

91
Q

The long digital extensor tendon originates from which femoral condyle?

A

Originates from lateral femoral condyle

92
Q

What is the function of the long digital extensor tendon?

A

Flexes the tarsocrural joint & extends the digits

93
Q

Which 5 structures combine to form the common calcaneal tendon in the dog?

A

1) Gastrocnemius
2) Gracilis
3) SemiTENDINosus
4) SDFT
5) Biceps femoris

Includes soleus muscle in cats

94
Q

In most long bones, growth plates contribute approximately ____% of final bone length and epiphyseal growth centers contribute approximately ____%.

A

Growth plates ~75-80%
Epiphyseal growth centers ~20-25%

95
Q

Growth plate is located between the ______ and ______.

A

Epiphysis and metaphysis

96
Q

What are the 4 regions of the growth plate in order from the epiphyseal side to the metaphyseal side?

A

Epiphysis
Resting zone
Proliferative zone
Hypertrophy zone
Calcification zone
Metaphysis

97
Q

Which is the only region of the growth plate that is vascularized?

A) Hypertrophic
B) Resting
C) Proliferative
D) Calcification

A

Answer = B

98
Q

Which humeral and femoral condyle, respectively, are MORE predisposed to OCD lesions?

A) Medial humeral, Medial femoral
B) Lateral humeral, Lateral femoral
C) Medial humeral, Lateral femoral
D) Lateral humeral, Medial femoral

A

Answer = C

Medial aspect of humeral condyle and lateral > medial femoral condyle

99
Q

What is the most common site affected by osteochondrosis lesions in HORSES?

A) Humeral head
B) Tarsus
C) Stifle
D) Fetlock

A

Answer = A

Humeral head is the MOST COMMON OC(D) site in horses

100
Q

In regards to OC of the stifle joint in horses, which site(s) is/are usually affected?

A

Lateral trochlear ridge of the femur

101
Q

In regards to OC of the tarsus in horses, which site(s) is/are usually affected?

A

Lateral trochlear ridge
Distal intermediate ridge of the tibia

102
Q

Which joint is the fetlock joint?

A

Metacarpo/tarso phalangeal joint

103
Q

Higher atomic numbers of barium (Z = ____) and iodine (Z = _____) versus soft tissue (Z = 7), means that barium and iodine absorb (more/less) photons X-rays photons than soft tissue.

A

Barium: Z= 56
Iodine: Z = 53

Barium/iodine absorb MORE photons and therefore increase the radiopacity of the tissues/organs containing these agents

104
Q

If a positive contrast GI study is indicated and perforation is a concern, what type of contrast medium should be used?

A

Iodinated water soluble contrast medium

105
Q

______ contrast media, due to their dissociation in solution, have a GREATER osmolality than _______ agents.

A

Ionic ; non-ionic

106
Q

When a hyperosmolar contrast medium is injected intravenously, the osmolality of the ______ fluid increases, which will cause a shift of fluid _____ of adjacent cells.

A) Intracellular; out
B) intracellular; in
C) extracellular; in
D) extracellular; out

A

Answer = D

107
Q

______ contrast media are LESS nephrotoxic than ______ contrast media and should be used on any patient with impaired renal function.

A

Non-ionic media are LESS nephrotoxic

108
Q

_____ and ______ negative contrast agents are MORE SOLUBLE than room air and are therefore less likely to cause fatal air embolism.

A

CO2 and NO2

109
Q

The presence of ___________ is an important feature of contrast medium induced nephrotoxicity.

A

Persistent nephrogram

110
Q

Immediately following intravenous contrast administration your canine patient begins to have dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. What is the primary concern and what is the next step?

A) Anaphylaxis; administer diphenhydramine
B) Air embolism; place in left lateral recumbency & decline head
C) Air embolism; place in right lateral recumbency & perform CT angiography
D) This is a normal reaction following intravenous contrast administration

A

Answer = B

Left lateral recumbency and tipping head down/body raised to 45 degree angle traps air in RIGHT VENTRICLE APEX and prevents it from going into pulmonary arteries.

111
Q

For a patient with compromised cardiac function, which contrast medium is preferred?

A) Non-ionic
B) Ionic

A

Answer = A

112
Q

When performing a mesenteric arteriogram and portogram, respectively, which vessels are used?

A) Carotid artery; Cranial vena cava
B) Brachial artery; jugular vein
C) Femoral artery; jejunal vein
D) Femoral artery; splenic vein

A

Answer = C

113
Q

You perform a swallow study on a dog with a possible esophageal stricture using barium. The fluoroscopic examination is inconclusive and the IM team would like to immediately perform endoscopy. What is your recommendation?

A) Proceed with endoscopy for final diagnosis.
B) Wait 1-2 hours before proceeding to allow dilution of positive contrast barium.
C) Perform CT instead.
D) Do not perform endoscopy until the following day.

A

Answer = D

if endoscopy is to be performed following iodinated contrast media should be used, NOT barium (barium will ruin scope)

114
Q

True or false, inhalation of ionic iodinated contrast media can result in significant pulmonary edema?

A

True

115
Q

A pneumocolonogram should be performed in which laterality?

A

Right lateral recumbency

  • Unless a PSS is suspected, then left lateral recumbency should be used to limit risk of fatal air embolism
116
Q

Match the following conditions with their associated nephrogram appearances:

  • Systemic hypotension
  • Acute renal obstruction
  • Contrast induced renal failure
  • Acute extra renal obstruction
  • Polyuric renal failure

A) Fair to good initial opacification followed by progressively increasing opacity
B) Fair to good initial opacification followed by persistent opacity
C) Poor initial opacification followed by progressively decreasing opacity
D) Poor initial opacification followed by progressively increasing opacity

A

Systemic hypotension = A, B, D

Acute renal obstruction = A

Contrast induced renal failure = A, B

Acute extra-renal obstruction = D

Polyuric renal failure = C

117
Q

Primary glomerular dysfunction & severe generalized renal disease will have what appearance on a contrast nephrogram?

A) Good initial opacification followed by progressively increasing opacity
B) Poor initial opacification followed by decreasing opacity
C) Poor initial opacification followed by persistent opacity
D) Good initial opacification followed by persistent opacity

A

Answer = C

118
Q

Renal ischemia results in what contrast nephrogram appearance?

A) Poor initial opacification followed by progressively increasing opacity
B) Poor initial opacification followed by persistent opacity
C) Poor initial opacification followed by progressively decreasing opacity
D) None of the above

A

Answer = A

119
Q

Which 2 disease processes have the same appearance of poor initial opacification following by progressively decreasing opacity on a contrast nephrogram?

A) Systemic hypotension & acute extra-renal obstruction
B) Polyuric renal failure & inadequate contrast dose
C) Inadequate contrast dose & systemic hypotension
D) Renal ischemia and systemic hypotension

A

Answer = B

120
Q

What is the ONLY type of contrast medium that should be used for myelography?

A

Non-ionic iodinated contrast (e.h. iohexol, iopamidol)

121
Q

What volume of contrast is used for myelography and into what region is the contrast administered?

A) 0.25mL/kg; epidural
B) 0.45mL/kg; epidural
C) 0.45mL/kg; subarachnoid space
D) 0.25mL/kg; subarachnoid space

A

Answer = C

122
Q

Hyperthyroidism results in (increased or decreased) gastrointestinal transit time?

A

Hyperthyroidism -> DECREASED (faster) transit time [causes diarrhea]

Radiology Residency (21 decks)

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