Virology Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What should NOT be done to samples where you want to detect the virus?

A

no fixatives, no freezing

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2
Q

What should NOT be done to samples where you want to detect the virus?

A

no fixatives, no freezing

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3
Q

What is the definition of a sensitive diagnostic test?

A

precentage of animals with dz that test positive

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4
Q

What is the definition of specificity in relation to diagnostic tests?

A

animals that test negative that are healthy

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5
Q

What diagnostic methods are indirect examination?

A

Cell culture, embryonated eggs, animals and serology

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6
Q

What is a seroconversion?

A

4 fold or more increase in titer of IgG or total antibody

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7
Q

What is the criteria for diagnosing re-infection?

A

1 fold or more increase in IgG or total antibody, absence or slight increase in IgM

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8
Q

What is hemagglutination inhibition?

A

virus specific Ab interfere with agglutinating RBCs

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9
Q

What are the viruses that hemagluttinate RBCs?

A

Pox, Parvo, Toga, Flavi, Orthomyxo, Paramyxo, Corona, Bunya, Rhabdo and Reo

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10
Q

What is the virus neutralization assay?

A

quantifies neutralizing Ab, confirms identity of virus

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11
Q

What does Tissue culture infective dose 50 (TCID50) measure?

A

virulence of virus

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12
Q

What does CPE stand for?

A

quantification of cytophathic effect

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13
Q

What term is used for frequency of disease in population in a specific period of time?

A

incidence

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14
Q

What term is used for frequency of a disease at a moment in time?

A

prevalence

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15
Q

What term is used for disease that has an insect vector involved and the virus replicates in the vector?

A

arboviral disease

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16
Q

Which virus has all the hosts remain as latent carriers?

A

herpes

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17
Q

What herpes virus is an exception to being species specific?

A

pseudorabies

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18
Q

Which pox virus is an exception to being species specific?

A

cowpox

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19
Q

How are most pox viruses transmitted?

A

vectors

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20
Q

Why is pox an exception to most enveloped viruses?

A

very resistant in the environment

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21
Q

Where are most clinical signs in pox virus?

A

skin

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22
Q

What diagnostic tests are used for pox?

A

not always needed, PCR or EM for confirmation

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23
Q

What do adeno viruses have that make them susceptible to disinfectants?

A

penton fibers

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24
Q

What are the clinical signs of adeno viruses?

A

mostly respiratory

also hepatitis, death and decline in egg production

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25
Q

What do the intranuclear inclusion bodies of adeno viruses form?

A

paracrystalline arrays of viral particles

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26
Q

How is papo virus transmitted?

A

direct contact (but naked)

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27
Q

Which virus forms a “string of pearls”?

A

circoviridae

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28
Q

How are circo viruses transmitted?

A

naked virions in the environment

29
Q

What virus replicates in the nucleus of dividing cells only?

A

parvo

30
Q

What are is the hallmark clinical sign of parvo viruses?

A

panleukopenia

31
Q

Why is serology not useful in parvo viruses?

A

seroprevelance high in pigs

fatality of dz in cats and dogs

32
Q

What enveloped virus does not need it’s envelope to be infective?

A

asfaviridae

33
Q

What is the only virus in the asfaviridae family?

A

african swine fever

34
Q

What are the reservoirs and vectors for african swine fever?

A

soft ticks

35
Q

How is corona virus transmitted?

A

direct and indirect (although enveloped, moderately resistant in environment)

36
Q

What types of clinical signs are seen with corona virus?

A

respiratory and GI but also CNS and repro

37
Q

Which virus has a “pro” virus state where it inserts into host DNA?

A

retro virus

38
Q

Which RNA virus is quite species specific?

A

retro virus

39
Q

What are the two types of diseases retro viruses cause?

A

tumors

immunodeficiency

40
Q

What diagnostic tests are used for retro viruses?

A

PCR and antibody ELISA

41
Q

Which RNA virus is the host always a lifelong chronic or latent carrier?

A

retro virus

42
Q

Which is the only retro virus that has a vaccine?

A

feline leukemia

43
Q

Which viruses have fecal oral transmission?

A

reoviridae (reo and rota)

44
Q

Which reoviridae member causes severe systemic disease?

A

orbivirus

45
Q

What clinical sign does rotavirus produce?

A

diarrhea

46
Q

What are the two important groups of flaviviridae?

A

pestivirus and flavivirus

47
Q

What characterizes flaviviruses?

A

arbovirus and zoonotic

48
Q

What does pesitiviruses produce in animals?

A

persistently infected immunotolerant animals (will be missed by serology)

49
Q

What is the only genus of paramyxo viruses that cause severe systemic disease instead of just respiratory?

A

morbiliviruses

50
Q

What are the 2 types of peplomers that make up orthomyxo capsid?

A

HA - viral receptor
NA - neuroaminidase
important for typing, diagnostics

51
Q

Which orthomyxo virus does not transmit by direct contact?

A

avian influenza (can shed into water)

52
Q

Which species is refractory to infection by foot and mouth dz?

A

horses

53
Q

What clinical signs does picornivirdae produce in ruminants and swine?

A

vesicular mucosal lesions

54
Q

Where else can picorna viruses cause clinical sides besides mucosa?

A

myocardium, liver, CNS

55
Q

What tests are used commonly for picorna viruses?

A

ELISA and RT-PCR

56
Q

What are the intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies called in rhabdoviridae?

A

negri bodies

57
Q

How is rhabdoviridae transmitted?

A

varies between genus

58
Q

How is bunyaviridae viruses transmitted?

A

arbovirus in ruminants

59
Q

What clinical signs does arteriviridae cause?

A

respiratory dz and abortions

60
Q

How is the enveloped arteriviridae virus transmitted?

A

directly and indirectly

sexual and vertically

61
Q

Which RNA virus has a bi-segmented genome?

A

birnaviridae

62
Q

What are the reservoirs of toga viruses?

A

birds

63
Q

What are the dead end hosts of toga viruses?

A

horses and humans

64
Q

What CS does toga cause?

A

neurologic dz with sequuela

65
Q

Which RNA virus multiplies in the nucleus and leaves intranuclear inclusion bodies?

A

bornaviridae

66
Q

Where is bornaviridae virus found? Why is it important?

A

Germany, zoonotic

67
Q

What can distinguish between different prion?

A

monoclonal antibody - confirmational epitope

68
Q

How is prion disease diagnosed?

A

histopathology, IHC, WB of brain, not until postmortem