Virginia Civil Procedure Flashcards

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1
Q

When does the general district court have original jurisdiction over personal property?

A

In an act for partition where the value of the personal property is between $20 and $25,000

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2
Q

Which court has exclusive jurisdiction over partitioning real property

A

the circuit court

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3
Q

When must a motion for a new trial be filed in GDC

A

30 days after entry of the judgment

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4
Q

When is venue tested

A

At the commencement of an action

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5
Q

Where is venue proper in a marriage related action

A

Venue is proper in the place where the couple last cohabitated, or where the defendant resides.

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6
Q

Where is venue proper for a case regarding a will

A

Venue is proper where the will was probated

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7
Q

Where is venue proper for injunctive action

A

Venue is proper in the place where the targeted conduct is

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8
Q

Where is venue proper for disbarment of an attorney

A

Venue is proper where the attorney resides, has his practice, resided/had office, had a pending case for misconduct

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9
Q

When must a defendant file a motion objecting to venue

A

Within 21 days of service of process in circuit court, before trial commences in GDC

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10
Q

How long does a defendant have to reply to service of process in circuit court

A

21 days

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11
Q

What constitutes service of process

A

Summons and an initial pleading

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12
Q

Who may serve process

A

Sheriff of the county or a contiguous county; disinterested party over the age of 18

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13
Q

What constitutes service

A

Delivery directly on the defendant’s person, delivery to a household family member that is at least 16 years of age; posting a copy of the process at the front door along with mailing a copy to the party at least 10 days before a default judgment (nail and mail service)

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14
Q

How long does a defendant have to respond if they waive process

A

60 days after the date the plaintiff requested waiver or 90 days if the defendant’s address is outside of Virginia

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15
Q

What is an aggressive pleading

A

An aggressive pleading is a pleading that states a claim for relief, such as a complaint or counterclaim.

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16
Q

When must a counterclaim be filed

A

Within 21 days after service of process in CC, before trial in GDC

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17
Q

What is an affirmative defense

A

An affirmative defense is an assertion by the defendant that, even assuming the plaintiff’s allegations are true, the plaintiff is not entitled to the relief sought. The defendant bears the burden of proving an affirmative defense. Affirmative defenses include: SoL, SoF, fraud, mistake, impossibility, infancy.

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18
Q

What is a plea in bar

A

A plea in bar allows a defendant to file a special plea containing their affirmative defenses, rather than listing the defenses int heir answer. A plea in bar typically asserts a single factual issue that if resolves in favor of the defendant constitutes a complete defense to one or more of the plaintiff’s claims.

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19
Q

What is a demurrer

A

A demurrer is a challenge to the sufficiency of the form, style, allegations, or appropriateness of an aggressive pleading. A demurrer contends that an aggressive pleading does not state a cause of action or fails to state facts upon which relief can be granted.

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20
Q

Can a demurrer be filed after an answer

A

No, unless the court permits withdrawal of the answer.

21
Q

What motion can a plaintiff file against a responsive pleading

A

A motion to strike a pleading, which can challenge the sufficiency of an answer, demurrer, or plea at bar.

22
Q

What is a motion craving oyer

A

A motion craving oyer seeks a court order compelling the plaintiff to produce a document mentioned in, but not attached to, the complaint that is essential to the complaint.

23
Q

What must a pleading include

A

A pleading must clearly inform the opposing party of the nature of the claim or defense by briefly and simply stating in numbered paragraph the facts on which the party relies

24
Q

Can a party join a contract claim with a tort claim

A

Yes, provided they arise out of the same transaction or occurrence

25
Q

What does a lawyer certify when signing a pleading

A

They have read the document, it is well grounded in fact and justified by existing law or good faith argument for the extension/modification/reversal of existing law, there is no improper purpose

26
Q

What two objections can a party raise to a pleading

A

The pleading was not sworn to or was not accompanied by an affidavit

27
Q

When must a party object to a pleading

A

Within 7 days after the pleading is filed

28
Q

How can service be made on counsels of record

A

Personal delivery, commercial delivery, fax, email, mail

29
Q

How can a party amend a pleading

A

A party must obtain leave of court to amend a pleading. The court should liberally grant leave to amend

30
Q

Who is a necessary party

A

(1) complete relief cannot be granted among the parties in that person’s absence; (2) ther person has an interest relating to the subject of the action in such a way that the absence may (a) impair or impede their ability to protect that interest (b) leave any of the current parties subject to a substantial risk of incurring double, multiple, or otherwise inconsistent obligations

31
Q

When must a motion to join a party be filed

A

21 days after service of the complaint

32
Q

Who is an indispensable property

A

A court sondiers whether the judgment (1) might be prejudicial to the absent person (2) extent to which prejudice can be lessened or avoided by protective provisions in the judgment (3) whether a judgment in the person’s absence will be adequate; (4) whether the plaintiff will have an adequate remedy if the action is dismissed

33
Q

What are the statutes of limitations for contract actions

A

Oral contract - 3 years; UCC contract - 4 years; non-UCC written contract - 5 years

34
Q

What is the SoL for defamation

A

1 year

35
Q

When may a plaintiff seek nonsuit

A

A plaintiff may seek a nonsuit any time prior to the granting of a motion to dismiss or when the jury retires to deliberate in a jury trial or when the court takes the case under advisement in a bench trial

36
Q

When can a plaintiff refile following a nonsuit

A

6 months from the court’s granting of the nonsuit or before the end of the SoL, whichever is longer

37
Q

Can a criminal defendant waive their right to a jury trial

A

A criminal defendant does not have a right to a bench trial and can only be tried bu a judge if the Commonwealth agrees to it

38
Q

How should a suit on behalf of a minor be brought

A

Because infants cannot sue on their own behalf, a next friend sues on their behalf.

39
Q

What is a misnomer

A

A misnomer occurs when the correct person or entity is named as a party in a pleading bu under an incorrect name, such as a misspelling.

40
Q

How can a misnomer be fixed

A

By the court or any motion of any party

41
Q

What is a misjoinder

A

A misjoinder occurs when an incorrect person or entity is named as a party in a pleading.

42
Q

How can you serve a city or town

A

Serve its attorney or mayor, manager, or trustee

43
Q

How can you serve a county

A

Attorney, or on the attorney for the commonwealth

44
Q

How does service occur under the nonresident motorist or pilot act

A

A nonresident who operate a motor vehicle or aircraft in VA is deemed to designated the Commissioner of the DMV or Secretary of the Commonwealth as his agent for receipt of process

45
Q

When is service by publication appropriate

A

(1) noresident or a foreign corporation (2) cannot be found despite a diligent effort (3) last known residence of the party to be served was in the county in which service is sought and the sheriff has been unsuccessfully attempting service for 21 days

46
Q

What should be filed to seek dismissal from a suit

A

A demurrer

47
Q

What can a party obtain if the court transfers a case for venue

A

The court may award an amount necessary to compensate a party for the inconvenience, expense, and delay caused by the commencement of the suit in the wrong forum or by the bringing of a frivolous motion to transfer

48
Q

What is the VA curative statute

A

Except in an action for divorce or annulment, process that has reached the person to whom it is directed within the time prescribed by law, if any, is sufficient, even though process was not served or accepted as required. The documents that reach the person must constitute process.