Veterinary dentistry priciples and practice wiggs Flashcards
what are the 3 parts of hand dental instruments?
- ) handle (shaft) - where you hold it
- ) Working end (blade/nib) - part of instrument with a specific function
3.) Shank - connects the two
3 types of motion of activation in dental instruments
Rotary, wrist, and digital
The way in which the instrument contacts the tooth is known as instrument adaptation
parts of scaler/ curette blade
- cutting edge
- back
- face
- toe
- lateral surface
Marquis periodontal probe is
Color coded with alternating bands at 3,6,9,12 mm
Williams probe
Mm grooves at: 1,2,3,5,7,8,9,10
Missing at 4-6
Michigan-O PD probe
3, 6, 8mm
What periodontal probe has no markings
Nabors No. 2 it is curved and used for examining furcations
Which explorer is designed for detection of tooth caries above the gingival margin?
The No. 23 or classic shepherds hook
What is this instrument
Curette 2 cutting edges for universal and one for area specific curettes
What is this instrument
Scaler
Which explorer is has a gentle long curve used for detection of sub gingival calculus
Hu-friedy No.3A
What are the 3 common explorers
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What sickle scaler is straight
Jaquette
T/F: sickle scalers can be used both supragingivally and subgingivally
false! only supragingivally
what instrument is used for sub gingival removal of calculus
Curette with a toe not a sharp point used on the pull stoke after introduction into the gingival sulcus
Curettes are divided into three types…
- universal
- area specific pull
- area specific push
Gracey curettes have two types of shanks what are they
Rigid
flexible or finishing
Two types of blade angulation for the Gracey curettes?
Of the instrument face to the shank
70 degree and 40 degree
What are these instruments
Gracey curettes in humans 1-6 anterior teeth 7-10 posterior
Gracey curettes use shaft parrelism where universal curettes use ____
Handle parrelism
The hoe has what angle to the shank
99-100 degrees used to remove large deposits hard to use sub gingival
Turgeon Modified Gracey curette
- more triangular cross-section
- lower lateral surface is flat 70 degree angle
What is the most common natural stone for sharpening dental instruments
Arkansas stone fine natural oil sludge and good for routine sharpening
Acrylic sticks are used for what purpose
Shave test for instrument sharpness
tests for instrument sharpness
- Visual glare test
2. Shave test plastic testing stick
Light curing guns are in the visible spectrum of what NM
400-450 NM
When pouring stone it is important to use what to reduce bubbles
Vibrator
What are the most common scalpel blades in veterinary dentistry
No.11,12B,15,15C
What is this
Periodontal pocket marker Goldman Fox
What is a good scissor for use in oral surgery
Goldman fox no15
What are the three types of powered scalers in dentistry
Type A Ultrasonic or piezoelectric
Type B mechanical, sonic or rotary
Type C Hydraulic
what 2 general types of ultrasonic scalers are there?
Piezoelectric and magnetostrictive (most common used)
Two types of magneto restrictive scalers
Ferromagnetic stack and Ferrite rods
What is the frequency range of ultrasonic scalers
20 Khz to 45 Khz
What pattern does the tip of ferromagnetic stacks move in?
an elliptoid figure-8 pattern
sometimes results in tip not contacting the tooth
What kind of tip is used in ferrite rod US scalers?
Titanium
move in an elliptical circular pattern reducing dead zones against the tip.
Sonic scalers oscillate at , pattern
- 2-6kHz
- elliptical, oval, longitudinal pattern
- Less heat generation
- Air driven
Rotary scalers
six sided bur in a high speed handpiece at 300K RMP similar to ultrasonic can be very damaging to tooth surface and small teeth. Not used much
What category are the hydraulic scalers?
Type C
(water and abrasive stream) with high pressure air and sodium bicarbonate
what are the Dental handpiece classification by speeds
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What is the importance of chelators in endodontics
Lubrication of files and chelation or softening of inorganic material of the canals
EDTA
What is the concentration of bleach used in endodontics Pg 29?
5.25% either full or 1/2 strength
Why do we use bleach in endodontics?
sterilization of the canal and to dissolve organic material.
What are two types of gutta percha points and what is each used for?
- standard or Type 1 as master cones - conventional or Type 2 with a tapered point similar of spreader and used as accessory points
What are the different particle sizes that classify a resin composite?
- Macrofill
- microfill
- microhybrid
- nanocomposite
What are 6 constituents of dental resin composites?
Dimethylacrylate polymers
Inorganic fillers
Coupling agents
Polymerization inhibitors
Initiator/Activator systems
Ultraviolet stabilizers
composites are classified by particle size:
- macrofilled - large 20-30 um
- microfilled - small um
- hybrid - mixed range average 1.5 um
- nanofilled - very small and some with nanoclusters
- flowable - enough filler to flow
*
What cures a self cure composite
Benzol peroxide combining with an amine
What factors influence setting time and depth of cure in a Light cure composite?
Concentration of initiator & accelerator
Time to pulse the light
Size/percent/orientation of filler
How does a glass ionomer bond to enamel or dentin
ions forming salts that bond to the calcium in the dentin or enamel.
type 1 glass ionomer
luging agents
glass ionomer cement type 2
a hybrid of silicate and polycarboxylate cements designed for restorations
GLASS IONOMER CEMENT TYPE 3
Cements used as a liner and dentin-bonding agent
What are type IV glass ionomers and what are they used for?
- admixtures with gold, silver or amalgam alloy
- build ups and cores but weaker than conventional materials and contraindicated in stress bearing areas
what is amalgam made of
mercury
silver
copper
tin
zinc
how does amalgam stay in place
-friction
NO bond
describe the setting rxn of amalgam:
silver tin alloy (powder) reacts with Hg (liquid) to form final dental amalgam alloy
2 categories of impression material
Inelastic and elastic
What are the 4 main groups of non-elastic (Rigid) impression materials?
impression plaster
impression compound
impression ZOE
impression waxes
What are impression compounds
Thermoplastics Type 1 for impressions and Type 2 for making impression trays
Dental Plasters and Stones
- Dense, uniform, smaller particle size
- Quick drying and show more detail
- Hard to work with can be runny and brittle when set making it hard to remove
ZOE impression
2 pastes (base and catalyst)
for use over large edentulous area
not good with undercuts
Impression waxes?
combination of low-melting paraffin wax and beeswax
3:1 ratio
mostly used for bite registration
elastic impression materials (2)
A. Aqueous (involves water)
-alginate and agar
B. NonAqueous (rubber)
- polysulfide rubber
- silicone rubber
- polyether
Reversible hydrocolloid impression materials
transforms from solution to gel by cooling, and then from gel to solution by heating
Alginate impression material is classified as:
irreversible hydrocolloid
Type 1 fast gelling in 1-2 mins
Type 2 regular set gelling in 2-4.5 mins
Technique in spatulation of alginate
- fluff the powder
- have a good water/powder ratio, scrape across with spatula after measuring powder
- tap to expel air
- add powder and water in rubber bowl and wet all powder without stirring
- mix with stopping motion against bowl as you rotate figure of 8 motion
- load enough and firm on trays to minimize air entrapment
- you wanna place small amount of alginate on occlusal or palatal area
4 groups of synthetic elastomer impression materials
Polysulfides
polyethers
silicone rubber
Polysiloxane
Polysulfide rubber impression materials
Good accuracy and tear strength
Long set time 10mins
Pour after 15 minutes and up to 72 hours
Polyether rubber impression materials
- non-aqueous material
- relatively rigid, good tissue detail
- unstable in presence of moisture (will distort if left wet)
impression materials based on silicone rubber; hydrophobic; must be poured immediately, usually has many voids
condensation curing silicone
excessive shrinkage and must not get wet.
Siloxane polymer impression materials
Heavy body, medium body, and light body
Good tear resistance, short set times, Wait 1 hour to pour as hydrogen gas is released and is stable for 2 weeks. Powder of vinyl gloves can inhibit setting.
Gypsum
______ is the mineral used in the formation of plaster of Paris and stone. Named from where it was mined.
What are the types of dental plasters
Type I Impressions
Type II model fabrication
Type III Unimproved dental stones mostly for dentures
Type IV Improved dental stones for crown and bridge fabrication
Bite-registration wax (Alu-wax)
- Used to accurately articulate certain models of opposing quadrant
- Formulated from beeswax or hydrocarbon waxes such as paraffin or ceresin and contains alumina or copper particle
What are three types of disclosing agents?
- Erythrosin : red dye in tablet or liquid form, stains soft tissues)
- Fluorescein Sodium : Visible with UV light, more expensive but doesn’t stain soft tissue
- Two-Tone : New biofilm stains RED , old stains BLUE , does not stain soft tissue
monophydont
animal only has one set of teeth in their entire lifetime
ex. marine mammals and most rodents
Polyphyodont
teeth continuously replaced (most verts.) (not mammals)
Diphyodont
Deciduous and permanent dentition
homodont
all teeth alike in shape
heterodont
mammals have incisors, canines, premolars and molars
Thecodont
Set in socket in dermal bone of jaw, held in place by ligaments, cementum. Not frequently lost/replaced
Acrodont
sit on top of the jaw; replacement tooth grows right alongside it
pleurodont
pockets; most lizards, snakes
Brachyodont
tooth type with a small, distinct crown compared with large, well developed roots
Hypsodont
Clinical crown reserve crown and short roots continued eruption.
Radicular hypsodont
Subdivision of hypsodont dentition, sometimes called closed root, in which true roots erupt additional crown through most of life. These teeth eventually close their root apices and cease growth. As teeth are worn down, new crown emerges from the reserve or submerged crown of the teeth. Horse and cattle
Aradicular hypsodont
Dentition with long crowned teeth, without a true structure, which are continually growing( lagomorphs, guineas, chinchilla) elodont
Secodont
Entire tooth elongated, cusps joined by long, shearing ridge which is parallel to the tooth row dogs and cats carnassial teeth
Bunodont
Rounded cusps covered by a layer of enamel
Crushing and grinding Humans, primates maxillary M1 cat and Mx M1,2 and MN M2,3 in dogs
Lophodont
Basic pattern of most herbivores
Ridged occlusal surfaces, ridges called lophs
Lophs are oriented perpendicular to regular jaw movement
selenodont
an occlusal pattern of a tooth in which longitudinally arranged, crescent-shaped ridges or lophs are are formed on the tooth surface; typically occurs in artiodactyls goats sheep deer etc
Bunolophodont
Rounded cusps and transverse ridges
Bunoselenodonts
Rounded cusps and concentric ridges
Isognathus
Equal jaws - pig only. Upper and lower jaws are the same width. Man is an imperfect form of this
What is anisognathus?
Jaw are unequal in size
1- The ____ arises from a series of invaginations in the dental lamina?
2- The oral epithelium, dental lamina, and enamel organ originate from what embryonic germ layer?
3- The dental papilla and sac arise from?
1- Enamel organ
2- Ectoderm
3- Mesoderm
What day in development do the branchial arches develop which become the maxillary and mandibular processes
Day 21 by day 23 the processes can be seen becoming the mandible and maxilla
Tooth development begins by day
25 in dogs
Thickening of the embryonic oral stratified epithelium is known as what at day 25 of development
Dental lamina
The dental lamina forms 2 u shaped structures that become what
upper and lower dental arches
Enamel Organ Stages
- Bud Stage initial budding from the dental lamina
- Cap Stage begins as a concavity of the bud and becomes 3 layers
- Bell Stage a fourth layer is formed and a tooth can start to be reccognized as enamel is formed
Cap stage of tooth development
- outer dental epithelium
- central core of stellate reticulum
- inner dental epithelium
- mesenchyme forms the dental pulp
- Enamel organ forms?
- Dental papilla forms?
3.Dental follicle forms?
- Enamel (Ectoderm)
- Dentin and pulp (Mesoderm)
3.Cementum PDL and alveolar bone
Successional lamina
lingual growth of the dental lamina that forms permanent incisors, canines, and premolars.
the lack of fusion/migration between the maxillary process and the medial nasal process would cause what
cleft lip
Primary palate
area of the incisal bone back to the incisive foramen formed sole by the medial nasal process
Secondary Palate
posterior to incisive foramen formed from the left and right maxillary processes
What forms a cleft lip?
Failure of the maxillary and nasomedial processes to fuse
5 stages of enamel formation from earliest to fully formed
1 - morphogenesis
2 - organization and differentiation
3 - secretion
4 - Maturation
5 - Protection
What is the mineralization stage of calcification
when all of crystals are added to the enamel matrix at the end of the bell stage
Enamel Maturation - Enamel Rods (Prisms)
- Run perpendicular to DEJ
- Head formed by 1 ameloblast
- Tail formed by 3 ameloblasts
- Outer portion (rod sheath) is less mineralized
What are striae or stripes of Retzius?
darker curved line in the enamel that
radiate out in a curve from the DEJ
represent variations in crystal content
In the last stages of enamel development the ameloblasts compress the two middle layers of the enamel organ they are what?
- stellate reticulum
* stratum intermedium
What is the protective layer laid down on the top of the enamel
Primary enamel cuticle or Nasmyth’s membrane
enamel cuticle
thin layer of epithelial cells covering structure of tooth emerging to oral cavity
Composed of basal lamina (found beneath epithelium
secreted by ameloblasts after enamel formation is complete
Once the enamel cuticle is formed what does the Ameloblasts form next
The ameloblast merge with the outer enamel epithelium and form the reduced enamel epithelium
What is the Reduced Enamel Epithelium?
This is composed of shrunken ameloblasts as well as other layers of the enamel organ that will constitute a stratified layer of cells. This layer of cells will be a protective layer as eruption of the tooth occurs.
The reduced enamel epithelium is produced on an adhesive like secretion known as the secondary enamel cuticle or epithelial attachment and functions as what
hold the gingiva and tooth at the bottom of the gingival sulcus
What is Hypoplastic Enamel?
normal density or calcification
but enamel is thinner
Enamel hypocalcification
spots or areas of teeth poorly mineralized
white, yellow brown spots
likely softer and wear faster than normal
often mislabeled as enamel hypoplasia
Enamel tufts?
small areas of hypocalcification at DEJ
extend a 1/4 to 1/3 the way toward the surfaces
no known clinical significance
commonly found on histo
3 distinct structures in dentin
- Dentinal tubule
- Odontoblastic process or Tomes fiber
- Peritubular dentin
peritubular dentin
dentin that creates the wall of the dentinal tubule, is highly minerialized after dentin maturation.
odontoblastic process
a cytoplasmic extension of the odontoblast
maintains the vitality of dentin
typically extends to DEJ/DCJ, may even extend into enamel (as spindles)
Intertubular Dentin
- Located between tubules
- Highly mineralized
-Surrounds peritubular dentin
bulk of the dentinal substance
Reserve mesenchymal cells of pulp will differentiate into what?
odontoblasts and begin producing reparative dentin.
Sclerotic Dentin
- Type of tertiary dentin.
- Dentinal tubules that have lost their processes.
- No longer vital and have been filled with calcium salts.
- Reduces permeability of dentin
- Appears dark and shiney
- Difficult to bond to.
Interglobular dentin
formed in sites of incomplete mineralization; most often seen in coronal dentin and DEJ
Granular layers of Tomes dentin
same as interglobular except found next to CDJ
Pulp Stones
Calcifications found in the pulp chamber or pulp canal.
What makes up the Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath?
Epithelial cells of the inner and outer dental epithelium proliferate from the cervical loop of the enamel organ to form this sheath
cervical loop
relatively inactive until crown formation is complete
changes from a 4-layered structure (reduced enamel epithelium) to a 2 layered structure (hertwig’s root sheath)
composed of the outer and inner enamel epithelium meeting
- stellate reticulum
- stratum intermedium
When the root dentin comes into contact with the undifferentiated cells of the dental sac, what happens?
the undifferentiated cells become cementoblasts and cover the root dentin in cementum.
As the root sheath contacts the dental papilla, cells are signaled to differentiate into dentin-producing odontoblasts and the epithelial root sheath begins to dissolve and move away from the dentin
The root sheath cells that fail to dissolve become entrapped in the PDL and are called epithelial rests of Malassez!
Epithelial rests of Malassez can become active later in life forming what?
cystic, usually forming nondiagnostic, radiolucent apical lesions.
Enamel pearls
Small masses of enamel formed from cells of Hetwig’s sheath that have covered to ameloblasts and situated in root surfaces near CE juntion or at the bifurcation of a root. On radiographs the appear as globular shape. Generally, no treatment is reuqired
3 variations that can occur at the CEJ
- cementum slightly overlaps the enamel (most common)
- cementum joins smoothly with enamel
- tiny gap exists between the cementum and enamel.
Entrapped Cementoblasts in the Cementum. Found more often in apical 1/3 of the root.
Cementocytes
Acellular Cementum
- Formed at a slower rate, and doesn’t contain embedded cementocytes
- width never changes
- Sharpey’s fibers are fully mineralized
- closer to dentin
Alveolar bone is ____ in origin?
Mesodermal
cementum chemical composition
45-50% inorganic hydroxyappetite crystals and 50-55% organic matter collagen fibers and mucopolysaccharide ground substance
The alveolus has three parts
Cribriform plate, Cortical bone and bundle bone
Periodontal ligament is derived from the ___.
Dental sac or follicle of the mesoderm
Three distinct categories of PDL fibers
1- gingival
a. dentogingival b. alveologingival c. circular
2- trans-septal
3- Alveolodental
3 types of gingival fibers
dentinogingival, alveologingival, and circular gingival
dentinogingival fibers
gingival fibers that extend from cementum to the lamina propria of the free and attached gingiva
Alveologingival Fibers
- extend from periosteum of alveolar crest into the gingival tissue
- attach the gingiva to the bone
circular gingival fibers
run around the tooth in free gingiva and hold gingiva against the tooth
TRANS-SEPTAL FIBERS
FROM THE CERVICAL AREA OF ONE TOOTH ACROSS TO AN ADJACENT TOOTH (ON MESIAL OR DISTAL ONLY) TO PROVIDE RESISTANCE TO SEPARATION OF TEETH
where do alveolodental fibers run?
run from cementum to alveolar bone
Alveolodental Fibers
Alveolar Crest Group
Horizontal Group
Oblique Group
Apical Group
Alveolar crest fibers function…
to resist tilting, intrusive, extrusive and rotational forces.
horizontal fibers
from cementum in middle of root to bone. resist horizontal pressure of tipping of tooth
oblique fibers
from the root above apical fibers, obliquely toward occlusal. resist vertical forces
apical fibers
form at tooths apex, parallel to long axis of the tooth to help cushion tooth from occlusal forces
Interradicular Fibers
Found only in multirooted teeth extending from cementum to bone in areas of furcation
Three stages of tooth eruption
- Pre-eruptive phase crown development
- Pre-functional phase onset of root development
- Functional or post eruptive phase teeth move into actual occlusion
Which theory is thought to best explain tooth eruption
1. Theory of root growth
- Theory of growth of pulpal tissue
- Bone deposition in alveolar cripts
- Theory of periodontal ligament forces
Theory of periodontal ligament forces
*This is according to Wiggs and Loprise
Facial surfaces include
The buccal and lingual surfaces
The teeth that lack occlusion the ridge is called
Occlusal ridge on premolars and incisal ridge on incisors
Canine teeth of dogs and cats at the tip is called
Cusp surface
Crowns Form from 4 lobes (primary growth centers)
Mesial
Distal
Facial
Lingual
Fusion of the lobe in crown formation is called
Coalescence
Fusion of tooth lobes in development of the crowns creates
Developmentalgrooves
Mamelons
Located on the incisal edge of newly erupted permanent anterior teeth (formed when the developmental lobes fuse)
Cingulum
Convex area on the lingual surface of the anterior teeth, near the gingiva
Epithelial lining of the sulcus and the col is different that the rest of the masticatory gingiva how?
Non keratinized
Philtrum
The vertical groove on the upper lip that extends along the midline to the inferior portion of the nose
Vermilion Border
Demarcation between lip and skin
Muco-cutaneous junction, only in humans
Red in color due to highly vascular dermal papillae (deep CT papillae for BVs to reach close to surface epithelium which is lightly keratinized)
Dermis does not have sweat or sebaceous glands, requires periodic moistening to prevent dessication
Epithelium highly sensitivie due to close proximity of afferent (GSA) nerve endings
Dog have 3 frenulas what are they
Maxillary midline
2 mandibular at the canine teeth.
Parents of cleft palate puppies can have what?
Assymetric meeting of rugae at the median raphe
Posterior crossbites are common in which dog head type
Doliocephalic breeds
Rostral belly of the digastricus is innervated by?
caudal belly is innervated by?
1- trigeminal
2- Facial nerve! (CN 7)
Which is the largest mastication muscle?
Temporalis
Biting force dogs and sudden biting force
300-800 psi sudden is the snapping force on a few millimeters of area generally thought to be 100 times biting force
Marginal Papillae
Newborn
Edge of rostral half of tongue
Function in suckling, prevent milk spilling
Disappear during ablactation
Fungiform Papillae
Mushroom shaped structures that are distributed densely on edges of tongue and tip. With up to 8 taste pores buried in the surface.
Folliate papillae
immediately rostral to the palatal glossal folds dorsal aspect caudal 1/3 of tongue and contain taste buds
Sublingual caruncles
Small elevation of tissue at base of the lingual frenum, opening for the mandibular salivary gland and duct and sublingual salivary gland
What is found in high concentrations in the saliva from the parotid gland in most animals but not in dogs and cats
Amylase
Regulation of saliva is controlled by?
Autonomic nervous system, salivary center in the medulla oblongata by a double efferent pathway
List the 4 major salivary glands in the dog?
1) Parotid
2) Mandibular
3) Sublingual
4) Zygomatic
List the major salivary glands in the cat
Parotid
mandibular
sublingual
buccal molar
lingual molar
Which portion of the sublingual gland has a common duct which opens near the mandibular gland duct opening
monostomatic
The _____ portion of the sublingual gland is contained in a capsule of the mandibular gland
monostomatic
Which part of the sublingual gland is often missing in the cat
Polystomatic
Taurodontia
Condition in which the crown and pulp chamber are enlarged and the root is typically small.
Peg teeth
Small conical shaped teeth with a single cusp
Dens in Dente
tooth within a tooth
Clinically - may have a deep L pit
Radiographically - has a tear or hour glass radiolucency surrounded by a thin radiopaque line
Fusion tooth
Happens in cap stage
Fused teeth with separate pulp chamber
Reduced number of teeth, fused tooth will be smaller than the two separate teeth would have been
Concrescence
Union of two adjacent teeth by cementum
Gemination
Partial split, tooth with common pulp chamber (1 root, two crowns) normal number of teeth
Twinning of teeth
Complete cleavage of the bud with the extra tooth being a mirror image of the original a type of supernumerary which did not arrive from an additional or separate bud
hypodontia
missing 1-5 teeth
oligodontia
missing 6 or more teeth
pericorontitis
inflammation in the periodontal tissues surrounding the erupting tooth.
complete cleft of the primary palate
into nostril, through lip and alveolus to incisive foramen either considered familial
cleft of secondary palate
lateral palatine processes fail to fuse with each other and with nasal septum
simple autosomal recessive lethal glossopharygeal defect of the tongue is
microglossia or bird tongue
Abfraction
stress corrosion of the cervical enamel margin of tooth caused by non-axial forces on the incisal, occlusal, and palatal surfaces of the tooth placing the hard tissue in tension and then compression
Apthous ulcers
(to set on fire) open shallow lesion in the oral cavity that causes pain (canker sore)
Female cats are more likely to get eosinophilic ulcers T OR F
True females 3:1
chronic niacin deficiency can lead to what with the tongue
black tongue
Deficiency of B vitamins leads to what of the tongue
Pellagra or a scarlet to beefy ulceration of the lips and lateral margins of the tongue
What 2 tumors are frequently associated with the palates
fibrosarcoma and M Melanoma
Hypothyroidism can lead to ___ affecting the tongue
Macroglossia
Calcinosis circumscripta can be seen affecting the tongue how?
white chalking nodules under the tongue or sublingual area
Tongue lesions in a linear or horseshoe pattern are thought to be from
Caustic chemical burn
***What breed of dog is predisposed to eosinophilic ulcers on the lateral surfaces of the tongue
Huskies
Cats get them on the dorsal central surface
What breeds are more commonly affected by mesioverted or lance canine teeth?
Shetland Sheepdogs
Italian Greyhounds
therefore possibly heredity involvement
The organic matrix of Plaque is made up of what
Salivary glycoprotein, oral bacteria, and extracellular pollysaccharides
Inorganic components of plaque
mainly calcium and phosphorus
Dental plaque accumulates at first how?
Pellicle of salivary glycoprotein covers the tooth as gram positive bacteria adhere to the Pellicle. Then extracellular polysaccharide (bacterial byproduct are produced giving the plaque a ivory to yellow appearance.
In clincially healthy gingiva of dogs and cats what is the microflora primarily composed of?
aerobic and facultative anaerobic bacteria, gram positive , non mobile cocci mostly
Describe the shift in bacterial populations from healthy gingiva to gingivitis and periodontitis in dogs
Healthy 25% anaerobes
Periodontitis 95% anaerobes
Early in periodontal disease how due Cytotoxins and endotoxins affect the tissues
Invade directly on their own, increasing educates and activating the polymorphonuclear granulocyte migration response.
What 2 factors are effect whether gingivitis will progress to periodontitis
Virulence of the bacteria and the hosts response
This show a what
1 wall bony pocket
This show a what
2 wall boney pocket
This show a ____ wall bony defect
2 wall crater between 2 teeth
This show a _____ wall bony pockets
3 wall bony pockets
This show a ____ wall bony pocket?
4 wall
What type of interdental wiring is seen here
Stout
What type of interdental wiring is this
Ivy Loop
What type of interdental wiring is this
Essig’s
What type of interdental wiring is this?
Risdon
Describe endodontic files by color and size
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Briefly delineate the endodontic instrument group classifications…
Group I - hand use only Group II - engine driven (2 part shaft and operative head) - (Lentulos McSpaddens) Group III - engine driven - one part shaft and operative head (GGs, Peesos) Group IV - endodontic points or cones all types of filling points or cones
Black’s 7 Steps of Cavity Preparation
- Obtain outline form
- Obtain resistance form
- Obtain retention form
- Obtain convenience form
- Pathology removal form
- Wall finishing form and cavosurface margins
- Preparation cleansing form
Trituration
mixing of amalgam
Glass ionomers can bond ____ to tooth structure
Chemically by chelation ***only one that’s chemical the rest are mechanical
Which has a stronger bond to enamel glass Ionomer or resin composites?
Composite bonds are stronger to enamel than Glass Ionomer.
Why does glass ionomer bond better to enamel than dentin
Higher calcium content in enamel
T/F - Glass ionomer sealants have a chemical retention to Ca+ in tooth structure but bond strength and retention are lower than those of resin-based sealants.
T - It also releases more fluoride than resin-based sealants
What are the types of glass ionomers?
I luting cements
II esthetic restorative
III bases and liners
IV admixtures
How many dentinal tubules per square centimeter
30-40 thousand
What are the basic concepts of dental restorative procedures
- Conservation
- Esthetics
- Contours and contacts
- Extension for prevention
- Cavity Prep
- Identification and resolution of cause
The noble metals
gold, iridium, osmium, palladium, platinum, rhodium, ruthenium
Types of Crown lengthening
Type 1 including simple gingivectomy
Type2 apically repositionend flaps following bone modelling
Type3 orthodontic extrusion
Biological Width in dogs
- portion of tooth surface covered by JE and CT including supra gingival fiber bundles (2 mm)
- important that margin of restoration/crown NEVER be placed so close to alveolar bone that it encroaches on width
- Dogs 2mm
Teeth Occlusion
Contact between maxillary and mandibular teeth; mammals have precise occlusion
centric Occlusion
The position of the arches in relation to each other when the teeth are in maximum occlusal contact
Static occlusion
The relationship of the teeth when the jaws are closed in centric occlusion Static occlusion can be studied in the actual patient or on an occluded study model and it can be used to classify occlusion
Centric relation
The most functional, unrestrained, anatomically retruded position of the heads of the Condyles of the mandible int he Glenoid fuss of the TMJ
Functional or dynamic occlusion
The active tooth contacts made during mastication and swallowing
Malocclusions
Any deviation from normal occlusion
level bite
upper and lower incisors meet edge to edge
Closed bite
The dental arches close too far when the bite in in static occlusion. This is typically seen when excessive wear of the teeth occurs allowing excessive closure of the occlusion.
What are the six basic tooth movements? List from easiest to hardest movement to accomplish…
extrusion, tipping, radicular (root), rotation (torsion), translation (body), intrusion
Symphyseal injury classification
Type 1 Separation with no break in soft tissue
Type 2 Separation wit break in soft tissue
Type 3 Separation with torn inthrall soft tissues and comminution of the bone, broken teeth
Atraumatic malocclusion
results from genetic malpositioning of teeth or dietary causes involving insufficient attrition
Traumatic malocclusion hypsodonts
are the result of fracture or loss of opposing dentition causing an overlong tooth.
What type of molars do rats, mice, hamsters, and gerbils have?
Brachydont closed rooted; do not continue to grow
Rabbits chinchilla and guine pigs have what type of premolars and molars
Aradicular hypsodont
The incisors of rodents and lagomorphs are
Aradicular hypsodont
