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Jane (and Margie)'s Veterinary Dentistry export questions > Veterinary dentistry priciples and practice wiggs > Flashcards

Veterinary dentistry priciples and practice wiggs Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 parts of hand dental instruments?

A
  1. ) handle (shaft) - where you hold it
  2. ) Working end (blade/nib) - part of instrument with a specific function

3.) Shank - connects the two

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2
Q

3 types of motion of activation in dental instruments

A

Rotary, wrist, and digital

The way in which the instrument contacts the tooth is known as instrument adaptation

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3
Q

parts of scaler/ curette blade

A
  • cutting edge
  • back
  • face
  • toe
  • lateral surface
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4
Q

Marquis periodontal probe is

A

Color coded with alternating bands at 3,6,9,12 mm

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5
Q

Williams probe

A

Mm grooves at: 1,2,3,5,7,8,9,10

Missing at 4-6

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6
Q

Michigan-O PD probe

A

3, 6, 8mm

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7
Q

What periodontal probe has no markings

A

Nabors No. 2 it is curved and used for examining furcations

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8
Q

Which explorer is designed for detection of tooth caries above the gingival margin?

A

The No. 23 or classic shepherds hook

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9
Q

What is this instrument

A

Curette 2 cutting edges for universal and one for area specific curettes

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10
Q

What is this instrument

A

Scaler

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11
Q

Which explorer is has a gentle long curve used for detection of sub gingival calculus

A

Hu-friedy No.3A

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12
Q

What are the 3 common explorers

A

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/469/flashcards/6875469/jpg/explorers-hu-friedy-single-end-14A44BD541C336E11D6.jpg

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13
Q

What sickle scaler is straight

A

Jaquette

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14
Q

T/F: sickle scalers can be used both supragingivally and subgingivally

A

false! only supragingivally

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15
Q

what instrument is used for sub gingival removal of calculus

A

Curette with a toe not a sharp point used on the pull stoke after introduction into the gingival sulcus

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16
Q

Curettes are divided into three types…

A
  1. universal
  2. area specific pull
  3. area specific push
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17
Q

Gracey curettes have two types of shanks what are they

A

Rigid

flexible or finishing

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18
Q

Two types of blade angulation for the Gracey curettes?

Of the instrument face to the shank

A

70 degree and 40 degree

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19
Q

What are these instruments

A

Gracey curettes in humans 1-6 anterior teeth 7-10 posterior

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20
Q

Gracey curettes use shaft parrelism where universal curettes use ____

A

Handle parrelism

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21
Q

The hoe has what angle to the shank

A

99-100 degrees used to remove large deposits hard to use sub gingival

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22
Q

Turgeon Modified Gracey curette

A
  • more triangular cross-section

- lower lateral surface is flat 70 degree angle

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23
Q

What is the most common natural stone for sharpening dental instruments

A

Arkansas stone fine natural oil sludge and good for routine sharpening

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24
Q

Acrylic sticks are used for what purpose

A

Shave test for instrument sharpness

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25
Q

tests for instrument sharpness

A
  1. Visual glare test

2. Shave test plastic testing stick

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26
Q

Light curing guns are in the visible spectrum of what NM

A

400-450 NM

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27
Q

When pouring stone it is important to use what to reduce bubbles

A

Vibrator

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28
Q

What are the most common scalpel blades in veterinary dentistry

A

No.11,12B,15,15C

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29
Q

What is this

A

Periodontal pocket marker Goldman Fox

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30
Q

What is a good scissor for use in oral surgery

A

Goldman fox no15

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31
Q

What are the three types of powered scalers in dentistry

A

Type A Ultrasonic or piezoelectric
Type B mechanical, sonic or rotary

Type C Hydraulic

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32
Q

what 2 general types of ultrasonic scalers are there?

A

Piezoelectric and magnetostrictive (most common used)

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33
Q

Two types of magneto restrictive scalers

A

Ferromagnetic stack and Ferrite rods

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34
Q

What is the frequency range of ultrasonic scalers

A

20 Khz to 45 Khz

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35
Q

What pattern does the tip of ferromagnetic stacks move in?

A

an elliptoid figure-8 pattern

sometimes results in tip not contacting the tooth

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36
Q

What kind of tip is used in ferrite rod US scalers?

A

Titanium

move in an elliptical circular pattern reducing dead zones against the tip.

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37
Q

Sonic scalers oscillate at , pattern

A
  • 2-6kHz
  • elliptical, oval, longitudinal pattern
  • Less heat generation
  • Air driven
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38
Q

Rotary scalers

A

six sided bur in a high speed handpiece at 300K RMP similar to ultrasonic can be very damaging to tooth surface and small teeth. Not used much

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39
Q

What category are the hydraulic scalers?

A

Type C

(water and abrasive stream) with high pressure air and sodium bicarbonate

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40
Q

what are the Dental handpiece classification by speeds

A

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/469/flashcards/6875469/jpg/fullsizerender-14A45287B2521CD9AD9.jpg

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41
Q

What is the importance of chelators in endodontics

A

Lubrication of files and chelation or softening of inorganic material of the canals
EDTA

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42
Q

What is the concentration of bleach used in endodontics Pg 29?

A

5.25% either full or 1/2 strength

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43
Q

Why do we use bleach in endodontics?

A

sterilization of the canal and to dissolve organic material.

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44
Q

What are two types of gutta percha points and what is each used for?

A
  • standard or Type 1 as master cones - conventional or Type 2 with a tapered point similar of spreader and used as accessory points
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45
Q

What are the different particle sizes that classify a resin composite?

A
  • Macrofill
  • microfill
  • microhybrid
  • nanocomposite
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46
Q

What are 6 constituents of dental resin composites?

A

Dimethylacrylate polymers
Inorganic fillers

Coupling agents

Polymerization inhibitors

Initiator/Activator systems

Ultraviolet stabilizers

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47
Q

composites are classified by particle size:

A
  • macrofilled - large 20-30 um
  • microfilled - small um
  • hybrid - mixed range average 1.5 um
  • nanofilled - very small and some with nanoclusters
  • flowable - enough filler to flow
    *
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48
Q

What cures a self cure composite

A

Benzol peroxide combining with an amine

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49
Q

What factors influence setting time and depth of cure in a Light cure composite?

A

Concentration of initiator & accelerator
Time to pulse the light

Size/percent/orientation of filler

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50
Q

How does a glass ionomer bond to enamel or dentin

A

ions forming salts that bond to the calcium in the dentin or enamel.

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51
Q

type 1 glass ionomer

A

luging agents

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52
Q

glass ionomer cement type 2

A

a hybrid of silicate and polycarboxylate cements designed for restorations

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53
Q

GLASS IONOMER CEMENT TYPE 3

A

Cements used as a liner and dentin-bonding agent

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54
Q

What are type IV glass ionomers and what are they used for?

A
  • admixtures with gold, silver or amalgam alloy

- build ups and cores but weaker than conventional materials and contraindicated in stress bearing areas

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55
Q

what is amalgam made of

A

mercury
silver

copper

tin

zinc

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56
Q

how does amalgam stay in place

A

-friction

NO bond

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57
Q

describe the setting rxn of amalgam:

A

silver tin alloy (powder) reacts with Hg (liquid) to form final dental amalgam alloy

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58
Q

2 categories of impression material

A

Inelastic and elastic

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59
Q

What are the 4 main groups of non-elastic (Rigid) impression materials?

A

impression plaster

impression compound

impression ZOE

impression waxes

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60
Q

What are impression compounds

A

Thermoplastics Type 1 for impressions and Type 2 for making impression trays

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61
Q

Dental Plasters and Stones

A
  • Dense, uniform, smaller particle size
  • Quick drying and show more detail
  • Hard to work with can be runny and brittle when set making it hard to remove
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62
Q

ZOE impression

A

2 pastes (base and catalyst)

for use over large edentulous area

not good with undercuts

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63
Q

Impression waxes?

A

combination of low-melting paraffin wax and beeswax

3:1 ratio

mostly used for bite registration

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64
Q

elastic impression materials (2)

A

A. Aqueous (involves water)
-alginate and agar

B. NonAqueous (rubber)

  • polysulfide rubber
  • silicone rubber
  • polyether
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65
Q

Reversible hydrocolloid impression materials

A

transforms from solution to gel by cooling, and then from gel to solution by heating

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66
Q

Alginate impression material is classified as:

A

irreversible hydrocolloid
Type 1 fast gelling in 1-2 mins

Type 2 regular set gelling in 2-4.5 mins

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67
Q

Technique in spatulation of alginate

A
  • fluff the powder
  • have a good water/powder ratio, scrape across with spatula after measuring powder
  • tap to expel air
  • add powder and water in rubber bowl and wet all powder without stirring
  • mix with stopping motion against bowl as you rotate figure of 8 motion
  • load enough and firm on trays to minimize air entrapment
  • you wanna place small amount of alginate on occlusal or palatal area
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68
Q

4 groups of synthetic elastomer impression materials

A

Polysulfides
polyethers

silicone rubber

Polysiloxane

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69
Q

Polysulfide rubber impression materials

A

Good accuracy and tear strength
Long set time 10mins

Pour after 15 minutes and up to 72 hours

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70
Q

Polyether rubber impression materials

A
  • non-aqueous material
  • relatively rigid, good tissue detail
  • unstable in presence of moisture (will distort if left wet)
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71
Q

impression materials based on silicone rubber; hydrophobic; must be poured immediately, usually has many voids

A

condensation curing silicone

excessive shrinkage and must not get wet.

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72
Q

Siloxane polymer impression materials

A

Heavy body, medium body, and light body
Good tear resistance, short set times, Wait 1 hour to pour as hydrogen gas is released and is stable for 2 weeks. Powder of vinyl gloves can inhibit setting.

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73
Q

Gypsum

A

______ is the mineral used in the formation of plaster of Paris and stone. Named from where it was mined.

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74
Q

What are the types of dental plasters

A

Type I Impressions
Type II model fabrication

Type III Unimproved dental stones mostly for dentures

Type IV Improved dental stones for crown and bridge fabrication

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75
Q

Bite-registration wax (Alu-wax)

A
  1. Used to accurately articulate certain models of opposing quadrant
  2. Formulated from beeswax or hydrocarbon waxes such as paraffin or ceresin and contains alumina or copper particle
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76
Q

What are three types of disclosing agents?

A
  • Erythrosin : red dye in tablet or liquid form, stains soft tissues)
  • Fluorescein Sodium : Visible with UV light, more expensive but doesn’t stain soft tissue
  • Two-Tone : New biofilm stains RED , old stains BLUE , does not stain soft tissue
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77
Q

monophydont

A

animal only has one set of teeth in their entire lifetime

ex. marine mammals and most rodents

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78
Q

Polyphyodont

A

teeth continuously replaced (most verts.) (not mammals)

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79
Q

Diphyodont

A

Deciduous and permanent dentition

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80
Q

homodont

A

all teeth alike in shape

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81
Q

heterodont

A

mammals have incisors, canines, premolars and molars

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82
Q

Thecodont

A

Set in socket in dermal bone of jaw, held in place by ligaments, cementum. Not frequently lost/replaced

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83
Q

Acrodont

A

sit on top of the jaw; replacement tooth grows right alongside it

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84
Q

pleurodont

A

pockets; most lizards, snakes

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85
Q

Brachyodont

A

tooth type with a small, distinct crown compared with large, well developed roots

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86
Q

Hypsodont

A

Clinical crown reserve crown and short roots continued eruption.

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87
Q

Radicular hypsodont

A

Subdivision of hypsodont dentition, sometimes called closed root, in which true roots erupt additional crown through most of life. These teeth eventually close their root apices and cease growth. As teeth are worn down, new crown emerges from the reserve or submerged crown of the teeth. Horse and cattle

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88
Q

Aradicular hypsodont

A

Dentition with long crowned teeth, without a true structure, which are continually growing( lagomorphs, guineas, chinchilla) elodont

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89
Q

Secodont

A

Entire tooth elongated, cusps joined by long, shearing ridge which is parallel to the tooth row dogs and cats carnassial teeth

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90
Q

Bunodont

A

Rounded cusps covered by a layer of enamel

Crushing and grinding Humans, primates maxillary M1 cat and Mx M1,2 and MN M2,3 in dogs

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91
Q

Lophodont

A

Basic pattern of most herbivores
Ridged occlusal surfaces, ridges called lophs

Lophs are oriented perpendicular to regular jaw movement

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92
Q

selenodont

A

an occlusal pattern of a tooth in which longitudinally arranged, crescent-shaped ridges or lophs are are formed on the tooth surface; typically occurs in artiodactyls goats sheep deer etc

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93
Q

Bunolophodont

A

Rounded cusps and transverse ridges

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94
Q

Bunoselenodonts

A

Rounded cusps and concentric ridges

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95
Q

Isognathus

A

Equal jaws - pig only. Upper and lower jaws are the same width. Man is an imperfect form of this

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96
Q

What is anisognathus?

A

Jaw are unequal in size

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97
Q

1- The ____ arises from a series of invaginations in the dental lamina?
2- The oral epithelium, dental lamina, and enamel organ originate from what embryonic germ layer?

3- The dental papilla and sac arise from?

A

1- Enamel organ
2- Ectoderm

3- Mesoderm

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98
Q

What day in development do the branchial arches develop which become the maxillary and mandibular processes

A

Day 21 by day 23 the processes can be seen becoming the mandible and maxilla

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99
Q

Tooth development begins by day

A

25 in dogs

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100
Q

Thickening of the embryonic oral stratified epithelium is known as what at day 25 of development

A

Dental lamina

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101
Q

The dental lamina forms 2 u shaped structures that become what

A

upper and lower dental arches

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102
Q

Enamel Organ Stages

A
  • Bud Stage initial budding from the dental lamina
  • Cap Stage begins as a concavity of the bud and becomes 3 layers
  • Bell Stage a fourth layer is formed and a tooth can start to be reccognized as enamel is formed
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103
Q

Cap stage of tooth development

A
  • outer dental epithelium
  • central core of stellate reticulum
  • inner dental epithelium
  • mesenchyme forms the dental pulp
104
Q
  1. Enamel organ forms?
  2. Dental papilla forms?

3.Dental follicle forms?

A
  1. Enamel (Ectoderm)
  2. Dentin and pulp (Mesoderm)

3.Cementum PDL and alveolar bone

105
Q

Successional lamina

A

lingual growth of the dental lamina that forms permanent incisors, canines, and premolars.

106
Q

the lack of fusion/migration between the maxillary process and the medial nasal process would cause what

A

cleft lip

107
Q

Primary palate

A

area of the incisal bone back to the incisive foramen formed sole by the medial nasal process

108
Q

Secondary Palate

A

posterior to incisive foramen formed from the left and right maxillary processes

109
Q

What forms a cleft lip?

A

Failure of the maxillary and nasomedial processes to fuse

110
Q

5 stages of enamel formation from earliest to fully formed

A

1 - morphogenesis
2 - organization and differentiation

3 - secretion

4 - Maturation

5 - Protection

111
Q

What is the mineralization stage of calcification

A

when all of crystals are added to the enamel matrix at the end of the bell stage

112
Q

Enamel Maturation - Enamel Rods (Prisms)

A
  • Run perpendicular to DEJ
  • Head formed by 1 ameloblast
  • Tail formed by 3 ameloblasts
  • Outer portion (rod sheath) is less mineralized
113
Q

What are striae or stripes of Retzius?

A

darker curved line in the enamel that

radiate out in a curve from the DEJ

represent variations in crystal content

114
Q

In the last stages of enamel development the ameloblasts compress the two middle layers of the enamel organ they are what?

A
  • stellate reticulum

* stratum intermedium

115
Q

What is the protective layer laid down on the top of the enamel

A

Primary enamel cuticle or Nasmyth’s membrane

116
Q

enamel cuticle

A

thin layer of epithelial cells covering structure of tooth emerging to oral cavity

Composed of basal lamina (found beneath epithelium

secreted by ameloblasts after enamel formation is complete

117
Q

Once the enamel cuticle is formed what does the Ameloblasts form next

A

The ameloblast merge with the outer enamel epithelium and form the reduced enamel epithelium

118
Q

What is the Reduced Enamel Epithelium?

A

This is composed of shrunken ameloblasts as well as other layers of the enamel organ that will constitute a stratified layer of cells. This layer of cells will be a protective layer as eruption of the tooth occurs.

119
Q

The reduced enamel epithelium is produced on an adhesive like secretion known as the secondary enamel cuticle or epithelial attachment and functions as what

A

hold the gingiva and tooth at the bottom of the gingival sulcus

120
Q

What is Hypoplastic Enamel?

A

normal density or calcification

but enamel is thinner

121
Q

Enamel hypocalcification

A

spots or areas of teeth poorly mineralized

white, yellow brown spots

likely softer and wear faster than normal

often mislabeled as enamel hypoplasia

122
Q

Enamel tufts?

A

small areas of hypocalcification at DEJ

extend a 1/4 to 1/3 the way toward the surfaces

no known clinical significance

commonly found on histo

123
Q

3 distinct structures in dentin

A
  1. Dentinal tubule
  2. Odontoblastic process or Tomes fiber
  3. Peritubular dentin
124
Q

peritubular dentin

A

dentin that creates the wall of the dentinal tubule, is highly minerialized after dentin maturation.

125
Q

odontoblastic process

A

a cytoplasmic extension of the odontoblast
maintains the vitality of dentin

typically extends to DEJ/DCJ, may even extend into enamel (as spindles)

126
Q

Intertubular Dentin

A
  • Located between tubules
  • Highly mineralized

-Surrounds peritubular dentin

bulk of the dentinal substance

127
Q

Reserve mesenchymal cells of pulp will differentiate into what?

A

odontoblasts and begin producing reparative dentin.

128
Q

Sclerotic Dentin

A
  • Type of tertiary dentin.
  • Dentinal tubules that have lost their processes.
  • No longer vital and have been filled with calcium salts.
  • Reduces permeability of dentin
  • Appears dark and shiney
  • Difficult to bond to.
129
Q

Interglobular dentin

A

formed in sites of incomplete mineralization; most often seen in coronal dentin and DEJ

130
Q

Granular layers of Tomes dentin

A

same as interglobular except found next to CDJ

131
Q

Pulp Stones

A

Calcifications found in the pulp chamber or pulp canal.

132
Q

What makes up the Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath?

A

Epithelial cells of the inner and outer dental epithelium proliferate from the cervical loop of the enamel organ to form this sheath

133
Q

cervical loop

A

relatively inactive until crown formation is complete
changes from a 4-layered structure (reduced enamel epithelium) to a 2 layered structure (hertwig’s root sheath)

composed of the outer and inner enamel epithelium meeting

  • stellate reticulum
  • stratum intermedium
134
Q

When the root dentin comes into contact with the undifferentiated cells of the dental sac, what happens?

A

the undifferentiated cells become cementoblasts and cover the root dentin in cementum.

135
Q

As the root sheath contacts the dental papilla, cells are signaled to differentiate into dentin-producing odontoblasts and the epithelial root sheath begins to dissolve and move away from the dentin

A

The root sheath cells that fail to dissolve become entrapped in the PDL and are called epithelial rests of Malassez!

136
Q

Epithelial rests of Malassez can become active later in life forming what?

A

cystic, usually forming nondiagnostic, radiolucent apical lesions.

137
Q

Enamel pearls

A

Small masses of enamel formed from cells of Hetwig’s sheath that have covered to ameloblasts and situated in root surfaces near CE juntion or at the bifurcation of a root. On radiographs the appear as globular shape. Generally, no treatment is reuqired

138
Q

3 variations that can occur at the CEJ

A
  1. cementum slightly overlaps the enamel (most common)
  2. cementum joins smoothly with enamel
  3. tiny gap exists between the cementum and enamel.
139
Q

Entrapped Cementoblasts in the Cementum. Found more often in apical 1/3 of the root.

A

Cementocytes

140
Q

Acellular Cementum

A
  • Formed at a slower rate, and doesn’t contain embedded cementocytes
  • width never changes
  • Sharpey’s fibers are fully mineralized
  • closer to dentin
141
Q

Alveolar bone is ____ in origin?

A

Mesodermal

142
Q

cementum chemical composition

A

45-50% inorganic hydroxyappetite crystals and 50-55% organic matter collagen fibers and mucopolysaccharide ground substance

143
Q

The alveolus has three parts

A

Cribriform plate, Cortical bone and bundle bone

144
Q

Periodontal ligament is derived from the ___.

A

Dental sac or follicle of the mesoderm

145
Q

Three distinct categories of PDL fibers

A

1- gingival
a. dentogingival b. alveologingival c. circular

2- trans-septal

3- Alveolodental

146
Q

3 types of gingival fibers

A

dentinogingival, alveologingival, and circular gingival

147
Q

dentinogingival fibers

A

gingival fibers that extend from cementum to the lamina propria of the free and attached gingiva

148
Q

Alveologingival Fibers

A
  • extend from periosteum of alveolar crest into the gingival tissue
  • attach the gingiva to the bone
149
Q

circular gingival fibers

A

run around the tooth in free gingiva and hold gingiva against the tooth

150
Q

TRANS-SEPTAL FIBERS

A

FROM THE CERVICAL AREA OF ONE TOOTH ACROSS TO AN ADJACENT TOOTH (ON MESIAL OR DISTAL ONLY) TO PROVIDE RESISTANCE TO SEPARATION OF TEETH

151
Q

where do alveolodental fibers run?

A

run from cementum to alveolar bone

152
Q

Alveolodental Fibers

A

Alveolar Crest Group

Horizontal Group

Oblique Group

Apical Group

153
Q

Alveolar crest fibers function…

A

to resist tilting, intrusive, extrusive and rotational forces.

154
Q

horizontal fibers

A

from cementum in middle of root to bone. resist horizontal pressure of tipping of tooth

155
Q

oblique fibers

A

from the root above apical fibers, obliquely toward occlusal. resist vertical forces

156
Q

apical fibers

A

form at tooths apex, parallel to long axis of the tooth to help cushion tooth from occlusal forces

157
Q

Interradicular Fibers

A

Found only in multirooted teeth extending from cementum to bone in areas of furcation

158
Q

Three stages of tooth eruption

A
  1. Pre-eruptive phase crown development
  2. Pre-functional phase onset of root development
  3. Functional or post eruptive phase teeth move into actual occlusion
159
Q

Which theory is thought to best explain tooth eruption
1. Theory of root growth

  1. Theory of growth of pulpal tissue
  2. Bone deposition in alveolar cripts
  3. Theory of periodontal ligament forces
A

Theory of periodontal ligament forces

*This is according to Wiggs and Loprise

160
Q

Facial surfaces include

A

The buccal and lingual surfaces

161
Q

The teeth that lack occlusion the ridge is called

A

Occlusal ridge on premolars and incisal ridge on incisors

162
Q

Canine teeth of dogs and cats at the tip is called

A

Cusp surface

163
Q

Crowns Form from 4 lobes (primary growth centers)

A

Mesial
Distal

Facial

Lingual

164
Q

Fusion of the lobe in crown formation is called

A

Coalescence

165
Q

Fusion of tooth lobes in development of the crowns creates

A

Developmentalgrooves

166
Q

Mamelons

A

Located on the incisal edge of newly erupted permanent anterior teeth (formed when the developmental lobes fuse)

167
Q

Cingulum

A

Convex area on the lingual surface of the anterior teeth, near the gingiva

168
Q

Epithelial lining of the sulcus and the col is different that the rest of the masticatory gingiva how?

A

Non keratinized

169
Q

Philtrum

A

The vertical groove on the upper lip that extends along the midline to the inferior portion of the nose

170
Q

Vermilion Border

A

Demarcation between lip and skin

Muco-cutaneous junction, only in humans

Red in color due to highly vascular dermal papillae (deep CT papillae for BVs to reach close to surface epithelium which is lightly keratinized)

Dermis does not have sweat or sebaceous glands, requires periodic moistening to prevent dessication

Epithelium highly sensitivie due to close proximity of afferent (GSA) nerve endings

171
Q

Dog have 3 frenulas what are they

A

Maxillary midline

2 mandibular at the canine teeth.

172
Q

Parents of cleft palate puppies can have what?

A

Assymetric meeting of rugae at the median raphe

173
Q

Posterior crossbites are common in which dog head type

A

Doliocephalic breeds

174
Q

Rostral belly of the digastricus is innervated by?

caudal belly is innervated by?

A

1- trigeminal

2- Facial nerve! (CN 7)

175
Q

Which is the largest mastication muscle?

A

Temporalis

176
Q

Biting force dogs and sudden biting force

A

300-800 psi sudden is the snapping force on a few millimeters of area generally thought to be 100 times biting force

177
Q

Marginal Papillae

A

Newborn
Edge of rostral half of tongue

Function in suckling, prevent milk spilling

Disappear during ablactation

178
Q

Fungiform Papillae

A

Mushroom shaped structures that are distributed densely on edges of tongue and tip. With up to 8 taste pores buried in the surface.

179
Q

Folliate papillae

A

immediately rostral to the palatal glossal folds dorsal aspect caudal 1/3 of tongue and contain taste buds

180
Q

Sublingual caruncles

A

Small elevation of tissue at base of the lingual frenum, opening for the mandibular salivary gland and duct and sublingual salivary gland

181
Q

What is found in high concentrations in the saliva from the parotid gland in most animals but not in dogs and cats

A

Amylase

182
Q

Regulation of saliva is controlled by?

A

Autonomic nervous system, salivary center in the medulla oblongata by a double efferent pathway

183
Q

List the 4 major salivary glands in the dog?

A

1) Parotid
2) Mandibular

3) Sublingual
4) Zygomatic

184
Q

List the major salivary glands in the cat

A

Parotid
mandibular

sublingual

buccal molar

lingual molar

185
Q

Which portion of the sublingual gland has a common duct which opens near the mandibular gland duct opening

A

monostomatic

186
Q

The _____ portion of the sublingual gland is contained in a capsule of the mandibular gland

A

monostomatic

187
Q

Which part of the sublingual gland is often missing in the cat

A

Polystomatic

188
Q

Taurodontia

A

Condition in which the crown and pulp chamber are enlarged and the root is typically small.

189
Q

Peg teeth

A

Small conical shaped teeth with a single cusp

190
Q

Dens in Dente

A

tooth within a tooth

Clinically - may have a deep L pit

Radiographically - has a tear or hour glass radiolucency surrounded by a thin radiopaque line

191
Q

Fusion tooth

A

Happens in cap stage
Fused teeth with separate pulp chamber

Reduced number of teeth, fused tooth will be smaller than the two separate teeth would have been

192
Q

Concrescence

A

Union of two adjacent teeth by cementum

193
Q

Gemination

A

Partial split, tooth with common pulp chamber (1 root, two crowns) normal number of teeth

194
Q

Twinning of teeth

A

Complete cleavage of the bud with the extra tooth being a mirror image of the original a type of supernumerary which did not arrive from an additional or separate bud

195
Q

hypodontia

A

missing 1-5 teeth

196
Q

oligodontia

A

missing 6 or more teeth

197
Q

pericorontitis

A

inflammation in the periodontal tissues surrounding the erupting tooth.

198
Q

complete cleft of the primary palate

A

into nostril, through lip and alveolus to incisive foramen either considered familial

199
Q

cleft of secondary palate

A

lateral palatine processes fail to fuse with each other and with nasal septum

200
Q

simple autosomal recessive lethal glossopharygeal defect of the tongue is

A

microglossia or bird tongue

201
Q

Abfraction

A

stress corrosion of the cervical enamel margin of tooth caused by non-axial forces on the incisal, occlusal, and palatal surfaces of the tooth placing the hard tissue in tension and then compression

202
Q

Apthous ulcers

A

(to set on fire) open shallow lesion in the oral cavity that causes pain (canker sore)

203
Q

Female cats are more likely to get eosinophilic ulcers T OR F

A

True females 3:1

204
Q

chronic niacin deficiency can lead to what with the tongue

A

black tongue

205
Q

Deficiency of B vitamins leads to what of the tongue

A

Pellagra or a scarlet to beefy ulceration of the lips and lateral margins of the tongue

206
Q

What 2 tumors are frequently associated with the palates

A

fibrosarcoma and M Melanoma

207
Q

Hypothyroidism can lead to ___ affecting the tongue

A

Macroglossia

208
Q

Calcinosis circumscripta can be seen affecting the tongue how?

A

white chalking nodules under the tongue or sublingual area

209
Q

Tongue lesions in a linear or horseshoe pattern are thought to be from

A

Caustic chemical burn

210
Q

***What breed of dog is predisposed to eosinophilic ulcers on the lateral surfaces of the tongue

A

Huskies

Cats get them on the dorsal central surface

211
Q

What breeds are more commonly affected by mesioverted or lance canine teeth?

A

Shetland Sheepdogs

Italian Greyhounds

therefore possibly heredity involvement

212
Q

The organic matrix of Plaque is made up of what

A

Salivary glycoprotein, oral bacteria, and extracellular pollysaccharides

213
Q

Inorganic components of plaque

A

mainly calcium and phosphorus

214
Q

Dental plaque accumulates at first how?

A

Pellicle of salivary glycoprotein covers the tooth as gram positive bacteria adhere to the Pellicle. Then extracellular polysaccharide (bacterial byproduct are produced giving the plaque a ivory to yellow appearance.

215
Q

In clincially healthy gingiva of dogs and cats what is the microflora primarily composed of?

A

aerobic and facultative anaerobic bacteria, gram positive , non mobile cocci mostly

216
Q

Describe the shift in bacterial populations from healthy gingiva to gingivitis and periodontitis in dogs

A

Healthy 25% anaerobes

Periodontitis 95% anaerobes

217
Q

Early in periodontal disease how due Cytotoxins and endotoxins affect the tissues

A

Invade directly on their own, increasing educates and activating the polymorphonuclear granulocyte migration response.

218
Q

What 2 factors are effect whether gingivitis will progress to periodontitis

A

Virulence of the bacteria and the hosts response

219
Q

This show a what

A

1 wall bony pocket

220
Q

This show a what

A

2 wall boney pocket

221
Q

This show a ____ wall bony defect

A

2 wall crater between 2 teeth

222
Q

This show a _____ wall bony pockets

A

3 wall bony pockets

223
Q

This show a ____ wall bony pocket?

A

4 wall

224
Q

What type of interdental wiring is seen here

A

Stout

225
Q

What type of interdental wiring is this

A

Ivy Loop

226
Q

What type of interdental wiring is this

A

Essig’s

227
Q

What type of interdental wiring is this?

A

Risdon

228
Q

Describe endodontic files by color and size

A

https://s3.amazonaws.com/classconnection/469/flashcards/6875469/jpg/file_sizes-14A4FA14BED581F7067.jpg

229
Q

Briefly delineate the endodontic instrument group classifications…

A

Group I - hand use only Group II - engine driven (2 part shaft and operative head) - (Lentulos McSpaddens) Group III - engine driven - one part shaft and operative head (GGs, Peesos) Group IV - endodontic points or cones all types of filling points or cones

230
Q

Black’s 7 Steps of Cavity Preparation

A
  1. Obtain outline form
  2. Obtain resistance form
  3. Obtain retention form
  4. Obtain convenience form
  5. Pathology removal form
  6. Wall finishing form and cavosurface margins
  7. Preparation cleansing form
231
Q

Trituration

A

mixing of amalgam

232
Q

Glass ionomers can bond ____ to tooth structure

A

Chemically by chelation ***only one that’s chemical the rest are mechanical

233
Q

Which has a stronger bond to enamel glass Ionomer or resin composites?

A

Composite bonds are stronger to enamel than Glass Ionomer.

234
Q

Why does glass ionomer bond better to enamel than dentin

A

Higher calcium content in enamel

235
Q

T/F - Glass ionomer sealants have a chemical retention to Ca+ in tooth structure but bond strength and retention are lower than those of resin-based sealants.

A

T - It also releases more fluoride than resin-based sealants

236
Q

What are the types of glass ionomers?

A

I luting cements
II esthetic restorative
III bases and liners
IV admixtures

237
Q

How many dentinal tubules per square centimeter

A

30-40 thousand

238
Q

What are the basic concepts of dental restorative procedures

A
  1. Conservation
  2. Esthetics
  3. Contours and contacts
  4. Extension for prevention
  5. Cavity Prep
  6. Identification and resolution of cause
239
Q

The noble metals

A

gold, iridium, osmium, palladium, platinum, rhodium, ruthenium

240
Q

Types of Crown lengthening

A

Type 1 including simple gingivectomy

Type2 apically repositionend flaps following bone modelling

Type3 orthodontic extrusion

241
Q

Biological Width in dogs

A
  • portion of tooth surface covered by JE and CT including supra gingival fiber bundles (2 mm)
  • important that margin of restoration/crown NEVER be placed so close to alveolar bone that it encroaches on width
  • Dogs 2mm
242
Q

Teeth Occlusion

A

Contact between maxillary and mandibular teeth; mammals have precise occlusion

243
Q

centric Occlusion

A

The position of the arches in relation to each other when the teeth are in maximum occlusal contact

244
Q

Static occlusion

A

The relationship of the teeth when the jaws are closed in centric occlusion Static occlusion can be studied in the actual patient or on an occluded study model and it can be used to classify occlusion

245
Q

Centric relation

A

The most functional, unrestrained, anatomically retruded position of the heads of the Condyles of the mandible int he Glenoid fuss of the TMJ

246
Q

Functional or dynamic occlusion

A

The active tooth contacts made during mastication and swallowing

247
Q

Malocclusions

A

Any deviation from normal occlusion

248
Q

level bite

A

upper and lower incisors meet edge to edge

249
Q

Closed bite

A

The dental arches close too far when the bite in in static occlusion. This is typically seen when excessive wear of the teeth occurs allowing excessive closure of the occlusion.

250
Q

What are the six basic tooth movements? List from easiest to hardest movement to accomplish…

A

extrusion, tipping, radicular (root), rotation (torsion), translation (body), intrusion

251
Q

Symphyseal injury classification

A

Type 1 Separation with no break in soft tissue
Type 2 Separation wit break in soft tissue

Type 3 Separation with torn inthrall soft tissues and comminution of the bone, broken teeth

252
Q

Atraumatic malocclusion

A

results from genetic malpositioning of teeth or dietary causes involving insufficient attrition

253
Q

Traumatic malocclusion hypsodonts

A

are the result of fracture or loss of opposing dentition causing an overlong tooth.

254
Q

What type of molars do rats, mice, hamsters, and gerbils have?

A

Brachydont closed rooted; do not continue to grow

255
Q

Rabbits chinchilla and guine pigs have what type of premolars and molars

A

Aradicular hypsodont

256
Q

The incisors of rodents and lagomorphs are

A

Aradicular hypsodont

Jane (and Margie)'s Veterinary Dentistry export questions (17 decks)

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