JVD 2018 deck

Question 1

According to “Congenital feline hypothyroidism w partially erupted adult dentition in a 10mo MN DSH case report” by Jacobson, Rochette, what are some clinical signs of congenital hypothyroidism in cats?

Answer 1

shorter stature, rounded body, enlarged broad heads/face, short neck, delayed eruption of dentition, delayed closure of ossification centers, lethargy, mental dullness, constipation/difficulty passing feces, palpable goiter

Question 2

According to “Congenital feline hypothyroidism w partially erupted adult dentition in a 10mo MN DSH case report” by Jacobson, Rochette, this kitten had thickened fibrous gingiva covering partially erupted adult dentition (all deciduous had exfoliated). What other findings were seen on dental rads and other radiographs taken?

Answer 2

open apices of 309/409 (should be closed by 7mo), epiphyseal dysgenesis (delayed closure of ossification centers), scalloped ventral borders of vertebral bodies

Question 3

According to “Congenital feline hypothyroidism w partially erupted adult dentition in a 10mo MN DSH case report” by Jacobson, Rochette, what blood work tests were performed to diagnose hypothyroidism? what was the treatment and outcome?

Answer 3

total T4, FT4, and TSH to help r/o euthyroid sick syndrome (T4 low, FT4 low, TSH high); tx w supplemental thyroid hormone and ginvivectomy/plasty to allow continued eruption; kitten became clinically normal by 22mo; side note: there is no feline TSH assay so canine was run

Question 4

According to “Congenital feline hypothyroidism w partially erupted adult dentition in a 10mo MN DSH case report” by Jacobson, Rochette, in this case, what was thought to be preventing eruption of adult teeth?

Answer 4

mechanical barrier of fibrous overgrown gingiva (no pocketing, tightly adhered to teeth); thyroid supplementation allowed for continued development of teeth but may not have fixed lack of eruption due to mechanical barrier; thyroid hormones potentiate effect of growth hormones and are necessary for skeletal bone and tooth development

Question 5

According to “Crown reduction and vital pulp therapy in a dog w malocclusion” by Blanchard, Koehm, what malocclusion did the dog have? What previous tx had been performed and why?

Answer 5

Class II with MAL I/LV 304, 404 with palatal trauma and trauma from mand incisors; interceptive orthodontics: previous XSS 704, 804 to allow for continued jaw growth and stop adverse/unfavorable dental interlock that was impeding jaw growth

Question 6

According to “Crown reduction and vital pulp therapy in a dog w malocclusion” by Blanchard, Koehm, what were possible tx options discussed for this malocclusion? what type of cement was used? What are its benefits?

Answer 6

Extraction 304/404, orthodontic mvmt 304/404 (inclined plane), CR/XP and VPT 304/404 w odontoplasty of mand incisors; used MTA (mineral trioxide aggregate) bc antibacterial, biocompatible, induces dentinal bridge, promotes bone and PDL growth formation

Question 7

According to “Crown reduction and vital pulp therapy in a dog w malocclusion” by Blanchard, Koehm, what % phosphoric acid is acid etch and what is its purpose? Why seal odontoplasty teeth?

Answer 7

37% (usually), removes smear layer, dissolves hydroxyapatite crystals and exposes dentinal tubules to allow for micro mechanical interlock with dentinal bonding agents; odontoplasty teeth removes enamel and exposes dentin, sealant allows time for tertiary dentin to form and prevent bacterial leaching into tubules

Question 8

According to “Dental pathology of Iberian Lynx part I: congenital, developmental, and traumatic abnormalities” by Collados, Garcia, Rice, 88 post mortem skulls were evaluated grossly and with dental rads. What is the dental formula of the Iberian lynx? Is this similar to other wild cats? What is the deciduous formula?

Answer 8

28 teeth= I3/3, C1/1, P2/2, M1/1; no second premolar as in domestic cats shift towards reduced dentition similar to caracal, leopard and Canadian lynx; I3/3, C1/1, P2/2= 24 teeth

Question 9

According to “Dental pathology of Iberian Lynx part I: congenital, developmental, and traumatic abnormalities” by Collados, Garcia, Rice, what are some noteable changes to the mandibular first molar present in 83% of cases? How was age estimated?

Answer 9

poorly developed cingulum and no metaconid (more distal of the lingual cusps of mammalian molar tooth); gross exam, radiographs, and cementum annuli analysis with first complete cementum annuli around 18mo of age

Question 10

According to “Dental pathology of Iberian Lynx part I: congenital, developmental, and traumatic abnormalities” by Collados, Garcia, Rice, what was the most common dental pathology noted? what was the second most common dental lesion?

Answer 10

attrition/abrasion 90.9% of specimens affected (43.7% of teeth examined) split into 3 types based on severity; tooth fractures (68% of specimens, 11.3% of teeth), affecting primarily canines and most often CCF or CCRF

Question 11

According to “Dental pathology of Iberian Lynx part I: congenital, developmental, and traumatic abnormalities” by Collados, Garcia, Rice, what was endodontic dz typically caused by? How frequent was intrinsic staining of teeth?

Answer 11

CCF/CCRF or attrition/abrasion type 3 (pulp exp) mostly affecting canines; 8.5% of teeth in primarily canines

Question 12

According to “Dental pathology of Iberian Lynx part I: congenital, developmental, and traumatic abnormalities” by Collados, Garcia, Rice, what percent of teeth were suspected to have artifactual defects?

Answer 12

2.3%; most missing teeth were lost through artifact (81%) with only 0.4% congenitally absent

Question 13

According to “Dental pathology of Iberian Lynx part II: perio, TR, oral neoplasia” by Collados, Garcia, Rice, what was the limiting factor to staging of perio? How common was perio in this study pop? IN domestic cats?

Answer 13

post mortem bony examination only w rads (no gingivitis or perio pocketing for AL); 81.3% of teeth with 64.8% of specimens having at least 1 tooth affected by stage 3/4 dz, 63.1% affected by stage 2 with most common tooth affected by stage 3/4 maxillary and mandibular incisors (59.4%); in domestic cats >80% over age of 2y

Question 14

According to “Dental pathology of Iberian Lynx part II: perio, TR, oral neoplasia” by Collados, Garcia, Rice, how prevalent was TR? was this finding consistent w domestic cats? how many cats had neoplasia?

Answer 14

uncommon, affecting 0.63% of teeth in 6.8% of skulls; lower than that of domestic cats (by far) and that of other wild felids; only 1 case of suspect neoplasia (no biopsy obtained)

Question 15

According to “Management and outcome of maxillofacial trauma in a 9 week old dog” by Castejon-Gonzalez, Buelow, Reiter, what are the most common causes of maxillofacial trauma in dogs? what groups of dogs are over represented?

Answer 15

surprisingly did not reference Soukup/Snyder articles: HBC, dog fight; young dogs <1y, small breeds, and males;

Question 16

According to “Management and outcome of maxillofacial trauma in a 9 week old dog” by Castejon-Gonzalez, Buelow, Reiter, what factors should be considered when determining a type of jaw fracture management? what are some types of fixation?

Answer 16

patient age, fracture type and location, presence and condition of teeth for anchorage, jaw bone quality, available methods for stabilization, operator skill; Noninvasive: tape muzzles, labial reverse suture through buttons, BEARD, inter arch splinting, interdental wiring and splinting; Invasive: intraosseous wiring, ex-fix, bone plating

Question 17

According to “Management and outcome of maxillofacial trauma in a 9 week old dog” by Castejon-Gonzalez, Buelow, Reiter, what are complications of maxillofacial trauma even following fixation? what were some limitations in the type of fixation chosen given the patient’s signalment?

Answer 17

dental injuries/loss of vitality, malocclusion, palatal defects, osteomyelitis, bone sequestrum, delayed or malunion bone fx, facial deformities, delayed or abnormal dental eruption; patient age (9wk) jaws still growing, incomplete permanent dentition, location of developing tooth buds (interfere w wire/screws), plates inhibit jaw growth, splints not possible due to presence of deciduous teeth therefore, tape muzzle was most appropriate choice with monitoring for permanent dentition

Question 18

According to “Management and outcome of maxillofacial trauma in a 9 week old dog” by Castejon-Gonzalez, Buelow, Reiter, what were specific long-term complications told to the owner given the left mandibular non favorable fx, maxillary fractures including TMJ fracture?

Answer 18

abnormal development of upper and lower jaws causing malocclusion, malunion fx, abnormal tooth development including EH, abnormal crown/root shape, infection, pulpitis, pulp necrosis, abnormal eruption, TMJ pain, ankylosis, DJD of TMJ

Question 19

According to “Management and outcome of maxillofacial trauma in a 9 week old dog” by Castejon-Gonzalez, Buelow, Reiter, at 2 weeks a bony callous was forming. Where does bony deposition occur up to 50d? >50d? an asymmetric malocclusion (side-to-side and rostrocaudal) was noted. Is there additional fixation that could have been used to help avoid this?

Answer 19

rostral bone deposition of the mandible during first 50d after birth, continued growth via bone formation at caudal aspect of mandibles; in addition to tape muzzle could have added inter fragmentary stabilization with absorbable suture, will dissolve in 3 weeks and should not interfere w mandibular jaw growth

Question 20

According to “Management and outcome of maxillofacial trauma in a 9 week old dog” by Castejon-Gonzalez, Buelow, Reiter, what are the goals of management of maxillofacial fx? why was TMJ surgical correction not recommended?

Answer 20

restore function, non painful occlusion, avoidance of dental, vascular, and nerve damage during repair, long-term establish healthy dentition with normal eruption; minimally displaced fx, more damage to correct via condylectomy, should be reserved if TMJ ankylosis or DJD develops

Question 21

According to “Validation of quantitative light-induced fluorescent for quantifying calculus on dogs’ teeth” by Wallis, Allsopp, Colyer, what are the two main methods to quantify plaque and calculus on dogs’ teeth? which historically has the best results?

Answer 21

plaque indices (humans brush off plaque then do total scoring by hand) and planimetry (for plaque, dye then measured by computer analysis software w QLF; For plaque QLF repeatable, reproducible, and accurate, first study for calculus

Question 22

According to “Validation of quantitative light-induced fluorescent for quantifying calculus on dogs’ teeth” by Wallis, Allsopp, Colyer, what two plaque quantification models were used for this calculus study? how was the study performeD?

Answer 22

QLF and modified Logan and Boyce using VOHC teeth: buccal maxillary third incisor, canine, third/fourth premolar, first molar, mandibular buccal third/fourth premolar and first molar; randomized crossover study with 26 schnauzers with 7d brushing following prophy, then 1 test group w dental chew, one w just standard RC hard kibble diet, then test, then switch groups.

Question 23

According to “Validation of quantitative light-induced fluorescent for quantifying calculus on dogs’ teeth” by Wallis, Allsopp, Colyer, what was measured to test calculus quantity?

Answer 23

% coverage, thickness, coverage of 3 areas of tooth summed within each tooth as “coverage” and each of 3 areas scored per tooth coveragexthickness (Warrick-Gorrel) for overall tooth score for Logan Boyce; % coverage via avg percent across 18 teeth or “average mouth” and total calculus of teeth divided by total area of all teeth multiplied by 100 for overall percentage of calculus or “weighted mouth”

Question 24

According to “Validation of quantitative light-induced fluorescent for quantifying calculus on dogs’ teeth” by Wallis, Allsopp, Colyer, what were the results of each test method?

Answer 24

Dental chews led to 43.8% reduction of calculus using Warrick-Gorrel method (coveragexthickness from Logan, Boyce) and 65.8% reduction of calculus via QLF (average mouth)

Question 25

According to "Validation of quantitative light-induced fluorescent for quantifying calculus on dogs' teeth" by Wallis, Allsopp, Colyer, as a test method, which requires a lower # of dogs to achieve 90% power and at least 15% reduction in calculus btwn groups? how does the dye work in QLF? What type of numerical scales are used for each method?

Answer 25

Warrick Gordel required >30 dogs to achieve 90% power and 15% reduction in calculus btwn groups; QLF required 13-15 dogs for the same results, also avoided contradictory results (less calculus for control group); natural bacterial fluoresce under long wavelength of UV light due to presence of bacterial component porphyrin; QLF percentage of calculus coverage is continuous data, Warrick-Gorrel calculus coverage and thickness yields ordinal data

Question 26

Abstract: "Intra-op and post-op complications of partial maxillectomy for tx of oral tumors" by MacLellan, Rawlinson, Rao, Worley, JAVMA 2018, what were the most common intra-op complications? outcomes were significantly associated with what factors? 48 post op complications were? 48h to 4 week complications included?

Answer 26

excessive surgical bleeding (53.4%) of which 42.7% required blood transfusion; tumor size, location, maxillectomy type, and surgical approach with dorsolateral and combined oral approach higher bleeding (83%) and longer duration (106min) compared to intraoral approach (54% and 77min); epistaxis, excessive facial swelling, facial pawing, difficulty eating; lip trauma, ONF, wound dehiscence, infection

Question 27

Abstract: "Trismus, masticatory myositis and antibodies against type 2M fibers in a mixed breed cat" by Blazejewski, Shelton, JFMS 2018, what test was performed to diagnose the cat? What was the outcome?

Answer 27

2M antibody titer canine which was 1:1000 (ref interval for cats <1:100 like dogs) indicating cross reacting antibodies; owner declined m. biopsy and given end stage MMM corticosteroid tx did not improve the cats QOL, ended in euthanasia 1 year later. Post mortem m bx revealed end stage feline MM w normal limb muscle.

Question 28

Abstract: "Acanthomatous ameloblastoma with atypical foci in five dogs" by Malmberg, Howerth, Powers, Schaffer, JVDI 2017, describe the atypical cells, what IHC were tested? were these foci associated with a poor prognosis?

Answer 28

atypical cells had high mitotic rate and had modest amounts of electron-lucent cytoplasm, abundant rough ER, zonula adherent jncts, cleaved or irregular nuclei, occasional cytoplasmic structures consistent w secretory granules or lysosomes; IHC negative for cytokeratin, vimentin, melon, PNL2, CD3, Pax5, CD18, chromogranin A, synaptophysin; No, in fact 2/5 cases did not have complete excision and did not result in recurrence (none recurred) and none were associated w poor prognosis or mets.

Question 29

Abstract: "Oral and dental anomalies in purebred, brachycephalic Persian and Exotic cats" Mestrinho, Louro, Gordo, Requicha, Force, Gawor, JAVMA 2018, what were the most common anomalies noted? 

Answer 29

malocclusion in 72% of cats, crowding of teeth in 56% of cats with incisors most commonly affected, malpositioned teeth (abnormal orientation) 64%, numerical abnormalities 76% (hyperdontia, hypodontia), PD dz 88% (in older cats esp), TR 70% cats 

Question 30

Abstract: "An autosomal recessive mutation in SCL24A4 causing EH in Samoyed and its relationship to breed-wide genetic diversity" Pedersen, Shope, Liu, Can Genet Epid, 2017, what is the type of dental genetic mutation noted? do Samoyeds have high genetic diversity? what is the effected gene? what is the prevalence in the population? is testing available?

Answer 30

EH analogous to a form of autosomal recessive amelogenesis imperfect (ARAI) in humans; no they mostly all come from 2 lines; homozygosity on SCL24A4 gene; 3.6/1000; yes! commercial test available for breeders

Question 31

Abstract: "Oral-fluid thiol-detection test identifies underlying active perio not detected by visual awake exam" Queck, Chapman, Herzog, Shell-Martin, Burgess-Cassler, McClure, JAAHA 2018, what was the point? 

Answer 31

Use a thiol strip to detect thiol groups to show owners tangible evidence of PD dz not detected on oral exam. Solution: do a better oral exam. Problem: only identifies active thiol groups if VSCs present. What about quiescent phase?

Question 32

Abstract: "Outcomes following surgical excision +/- adjunctive hypo fractionated radiotherapy in dogs w oral SCC or FSA" Riggs, Adams, Hermer, Dobson, Murphy, Ladlow, JAVMA 2018, what was a significant predictor of survival time? which tumor type responded to radiation better? 

Answer 32

tumor type (longer for SCC); SCC w MST for incompletely excised tumors and follow up radiation of 2051d (w/o radiation 181d), FSA only 299d w radiation and 694 w/o radiation; SCC responds well to post op radiation if incomplete margins. FSA needs surgical margins

Question 33

Abstract: "Clinical presentation, causes, tx, and outcome of lip avulsion injuries in dogs and cats: 24 cases (2001-2017)" Saverino, Reiter, Front Vet sci 2018, what is the most common cause of lip avulsion? in what age group? what was the clinical presentation in dogs/cats, bilater/unilat? what was most common short-term complication?

Answer 33

dogs animal bite (45%); cats HBC (25%), young animals <3y (68.2%); dogs rostral bilateral rostral lip avulsion (36%), cats bilateral rostral mandibular lip avulsion (54%); wound dehiscence (21.4%)

Question 34

Abstract: "3D Osteometric analysis of mandibular symmetry and morphological consistency in cats" Southern, Haydock, Barnes, Front Vet sci 2018, was there a sig difference btwn R:L? what was most consistent measurement? least consistent? was there a strong correlation between any measurements?

Answer 34

No! when cats deviate from mean ratio it is by a small amount; lateral ramus inclination angle; ramus height and jaw width at mental foramen; ht, width, and length of ramus

Question 35

According to "Cementation of full coverage metal crowns in dogs" by Wingo, what steps should be taken to cement a crown?

Answer 35

Inspect crown for proper defects, clean prepared tooth w hand scaling and pumice, trial fitting, apply metal primer to crown, acid etch tooth, 2 step self etching adhesive to tooth, mixing and application of cement, apply oxygen blocking gel, clean excess cement from margin 

Question 36

According to "Cementation of full coverage metal crowns in dogs" by Wingo, is an oxygen barrier gel always warranted?

Answer 36

No. It is specific to the type of cement used in this article where the cement is not light cured, the anaerobic environment allows polymerization of cement

Question 37

According to "Cementation of full coverage metal crowns in dogs" by Wingo, why should you not polish with fluoride prophy paste?

Answer 37

fluoride interferes w bonding and reduces effectiveness of acid etch; also contains waxes/oils which prevent bonding 

Question 38

According to "Cementation of full coverage metal crowns in dogs" by Wingo, what are some listed causes of full veneer failure? is cementation failure a common cause? 

Answer 38

inadequate resistance/retention, occlusal interference, improper selection of materials/technique, lab error, poor impressions, iatrogenic causes during perio tx, poor patient compliance; yes, second or third most common cause of prosthetic failure (depending on study) in humans or 9% or 4.4% in dogs

Question 39

According to "Cementation of full coverage metal crowns in dogs" by Wingo, what is the most commonly accepted factor to predict successful outcome of crown restorations?

Answer 39

tooth preparation with proper resistance and retention form (height, diameter, CA)

Question 40

According to "Cementation of full coverage metal crowns in dogs" by Wingo, what type of cement is typically recommended in vet med?

Answer 40

resin based (strongest, most resistant)

Question 41

According to "Cementation of full coverage metal crowns in dogs" by Wingo, what is so awesome about Panavia F?

Answer 41

2 paste, dual cured, self etching, self adhesive, fluoride releasing; but polymerization requires anaerobic environment meaning there is need for oxygen barrier gel. Recent addition of initiators made it UV light receptive (Panavia F 2.0)

Question 42

According to "Dental Radiography of the Horse" by Limone, Barratt, what are the standard radiograph views taken in equine vet dentistry?

Answer 42

Extraoral plate: Laterolateral view (cheek teeth), DV (cheek teeth), DV with mandible offset using speculum, open mouth R to L ventral lateral oblique for maxillary cheek teeth and L to R, open mouth R ventral to L dorsal lateral oblique and L to R for maxillary apices of cheek teeth, open mouth R ventral to left dorsal oblique view of mandibular cheek teeth and L to R (for apices); Intraoral: bisecting angle of maxillary and mandibular incisors, Left and R oblique views of maxillary and mandibular incisors (can be done extra oral for obliques, but challenging)

Question 43

According to "Dental Radiography of the Horse" by Limone, Barratt, name this view and the structures labeled in the pic.

Answer 43

Laterolateral view (plate on L side of horse); CMS=caudal maxillary sinus, RMS=rostral maxillary sinus, CFS= conchofrontal sinus, VCB= common dorsal compartment (bulla) of ventral conchae sinus and RMS dorsal to IFC=infraorbital canal

Question 44

According to "Dental Radiography of the Horse" by Limone, Barratt, name this view and the labeled structures.

Answer 44

DV; CMS=caudal maxillary sinus; VCS=ventroconchal sinus, RMS=rostral maxillary sinus

Question 45

According to "Dental Radiography of the Horse" by Limone, Barratt, name this view. If we want to focus on apices, how should the angle change?

Answer 45

Open mouth R dorsal to left oblique view of L mandibular cheek teeth; from 10 deg angle to 60 deg

Question 46

According to "Histopathologic diagnoses from bx of oral cavity in 403 dogs and 73 cats" by Wingo, what were the most common lesions in cats? dogs?

Answer 46

Cats: inflammatory lesions 51%, then SCC 37%, then benign/other (3%); dogs: malignant tumors 30%, odontogenic tumors 34%, inflammatory lesions 28%

Question 47

According to "Histopathologic diagnoses from bx of oral cavity in 403 dogs and 73 cats" by Wingo, what was the mean age of dogs and cats? breed overrepresentation?

Answer 47

9.4y cats, 9.3y dogs; DSH 60%, mixed breed 18% and labs 8%.

Question 48

According to "Histopathologic diagnoses from bx of oral cavity in 403 dogs and 73 cats" by Wingo, is there an breed predisposition for Low-Hi FSA? MM? is there a prognostic indicator? 

Answer 48

goldens; cockers, males, heavy pigmented dogs; tumor size, <2cm better PFS (45mo), >4cm worse (<7mo); mets at time of diagnosis (up to 75% regional LN) worse prognosis for MM and well differentiated melanocytes neoplasms have better prognosis

Question 49

According to "Histopathologic diagnoses from bx of oral cavity in 403 dogs and 73 cats" by Wingo, where is the most common location for POF? CAA? what structure do each tumor originate from? 

Answer 49

POF rostral maxilla 47% followed by caudal mandible 21%; rostral mandible; PDL; dental lamina within gingiva OR bone (rests of Serres), peripheral vs intraosseous

Question 50

According to "Histopathologic diagnoses from bx of oral cavity in 403 dogs and 73 cats" by Wingo, where the current study results on par with the previous UC Davis study of oral tumors? 

Answer 50

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Question 51

According to "Histopathologic diagnoses from bx of oral cavity in 403 dogs and 73 cats" by Wingo, were there limitations to this study vs the UC davis study?

Answer 51

Yes, only 1 pathologist reviewed each slide, not multiple, and different individual pathologist every time 

Question 52

According to "A Modified technique for extraction site closure of maxillary molars in a dog" by Ritchie, what is the point of this step-by-step?

Answer 52

Closure of maxillary molar extraction site w/o use of a vertical release (does anyone do that? this isn't new), just careful elevation and undermine then closure with smaller incision

Question 53

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, what are the 2 main categories of dental cements? 

Answer 53

resin based or acid-base (base metal oxide or silicate is powder and liquid is acidic), rxn forms a metal salt 

Question 54

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, what properties would an ideal cement have?

Answer 54

biocompatible, caries/plaque resistant (fluoride release), micro leakage, strength/mechanical properties, solubility, water adsorption, adhesion, setting stresses, wear resistance, color stability, radiopacity, film thickness or viscosity, working and setting times; OR not harmful to tooth/tissues, sufficient working time, fluid enough, quickly sets to resist functional forces, does not dissolve and maintains sealed/intact restoration; 

Question 55

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, what would the ideal properties of a cement be (table)?

Answer 55

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Question 56

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, define flexural strength, diametral tensile strength, elastic modulus, fracture toughness, and creep.

Answer 56

flexural strength: Amt of distortion expected, maximum stress applied to a material (beam); diametral tensile strength: indirect measure of tensile strength (disk w compressive forces); elastic modulus: resistance to being deformed (non permanently) when a force applied aka STIFFNESS, in dental cement should be equal to dentin (resin composites w hybrid filler); fracture toughness: ability of material w crack to resist fx relates to hardness (343kg/mm2 enamel)l creep: time dependent deformational change can occur under cyclical loads such as chewing 

Question 57

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, why is solubility important for dental cements?

Answer 57

resistant to disintegration and dissolution when cement is submerged in water or other solutions over lifetime of restoration (resin based have low solubility)

Question 58

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, what is water adsorption?

Answer 58

adhesion of water molecules to surface whereas absorption is uptake by volume of a structure

Question 59

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, what defines adhesion in human med? why is this not as important in vet med? what cements are nonadhesive and require surface irregularities to bone? which have micro mechanical interlock? which use molecular adhesion?

Answer 59

retention is dependent on geometric form of tooth prep parallel walls with interlocking rough surfaces; almost never attainable in vet med due to tooth structure; Zinc phosphate; resin based and RMGIs; polycarboxylate and GI

Question 60

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, which cement has highest film thickness? how does it compensate? how does thickness relate to tensile strength?

Answer 60

resin based; very low solubility; as film thickness increases, tensile bind strength decreases

Question 61

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, which cement has the lowest film thickness?

Answer 61

GI, followed by polycarboxylate,RMGI, zing phosphate and resin based have highest

Question 62

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, what is desirable of working and setting times? which cement is the easiest/hardest to remove?

Answer 62

long working and short setting times; cool slabs increase working time and light cure decreases setting time; zinc phosphate easiest to remove, resin-based hardest

Question 63

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, what is the basic composition of each dental cement?

Answer 63

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Question 64

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, what are listed water based cements? what is the benefit to ZOE?

Answer 64

zinc phosphate, polycarboxylate, GI, zinc oxide eugenol, EBA reinforced ZOE; neutral pH and biocompatible; 

Question 65

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, what are other names for GI? what do all conventional GI contain?

Answer 65

glass polyalkenoate cement, aluminosilicate polyacrylic acid; polycarboxylic acid, fluoroaluminosilicate (FAS), water, tartaric acid (increase working time and improve setting rxn of cement)

Question 66

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, how is molecular adhesion of GI achieved?

Answer 66

chelation w calcium and phosphate ions in dentin/enamel

Question 67

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, what are compomers?

Answer 67

aka polyacid-modified composite resins, combo of composite resin (comp) and glass ionomer (omer), more like composite than GI, LIMITED fluoride release

Question 68

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, compare/contrast overall properties of cements (table)

Answer 68

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Question 69

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, rank cements based on durability/strength and cost (table)

Answer 69

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Question 70

According to "A Review of dental cements" by Wingo, what are some downfalls to resin based cements?

Answer 70

Cost, film thickness, do not remove smear layer, initial low pH-- which is part of self-adhesion and moisture tolerance (but within 24h is 7)

Question 71

According to "Successful Tx of persistent Oroantral fistula via transbuccal and trans nasal endoscopic debridement in a horse" by Nottrott, Guio, Schramme, what are treatment options for oroantral fistulas? 

Answer 71

prosthetic plug (PMMA), muscle transposition or sliding flap (require GA)

Question 72

According to "Successful Tx of persistent Oroantral fistula via transbuccal and trans nasal endoscopic debridement in a horse" by Nottrott, Guio, Schramme, dystrophic mineralization was seen in the left maxillary and dorsoconchal sinus of the young QH, how many times was it debrided following extraction of 208 remnant? 

Answer 72

initial extraction, 2 wk recheck, replaced plug, 2mo later replaced plug, 3mo later performed MITE to achieve better debridement and replaced plug, 14 mo later (lost to follow up) remove plug and finally healed! 

Question 73

According to "Successful Tx of persistent Oroantral fistula via transbuccal and trans nasal endoscopic debridement in a horse" by Nottrott, Guio, Schramme, horses w sinusitis are how often dental in origin? what are the most common fractured teeth w associated sinusitis? what is metasplastic calcification in the sinus of horses always associated w?

Answer 73

24-62%; maxillary first molars through pulp horn 1, 2 (+/- fourth premolars); dental fracture 

Question 74

According to "Successful Tx of persistent Oroantral fistula via transbuccal and trans nasal endoscopic debridement in a horse" by Nottrott, Guio, Schramme, what wold have been an alternative to MITE for debridement of dorsal debridement? 

Answer 74

trephination above fistula through sinus or sinus flap

Question 75

According to "Transposition of mandibular molars in a dog" by Woody, what did the dog present for `and what did they find?

Answer 75

CCF 104, 204; found transposition of 310 and 311 with complete resorption of 311 root

Question 76

According to "Transposition of mandibular molars in a dog" by Woody, what is the etiology of transposition? prevalence?

Answer 76

unclear, may be genetic or environmental (DT/P, trauma, migration during eruption, homeotic variation= taking on characteristic of another tooth during development, or actual transposition of tooth germs; in humans 0.3-0.4% predilection for females, unilateral more common in maxilla, unknown in vet med this is first case

Question 77

Abstract: "According to "Reconstruction of congenital nose, cleft primary palate, and lip disorders" by Fiani, Verstraete, and Arzi, what age is ideal for primary palate repair and why? what modalities should be used for surgical planning? should teeth be extracted?

Answer 77

4-6mo, maxillofacial growth and dental development. Different than what is stated in other sources in regard to secondary palate of 8-12 wks bc these dogs are not typically as clinically affected; CT gold standard and dental rads to better evaluate teeth; if teeth need to be extracted (minimal tissue, interfering w closure or displaced/malfrmed) do so as a staged procedure 4 wks prior to palate surgery

Question 78

`Abstract: "According to "Reconstruction of congenital nose, cleft primary palate, and lip disorders" by Fiani, Verstraete, and Arzi, what position should surgery be performed? what is the most common complication? why? when to recheck?

Answer 78

dorsal except for lip repair in sternal; dehiscence due to tension or poor surgical technique OR occlusion (mandibular canines); recheck 2 and 4 wks

Question 79

Abstract: "According to "Reconstruction of congenital nose, cleft primary palate, and lip disorders" by Fiani, Verstraete, and Arzi, what is this defect?

Answer 79

bifid nose

Question 80

Abstract: According to "Evaluation of diagnostic yield of dental radiography and CBCT for identification of dental disorders in small to medium sized brachycephalic dogs" by Dorling, Ari, Verstraete, 19 dogs had 3 CBCT modules (pano, slices, 3D) compared to dental rads. What were the findings? Limitations?

Answer 80

Perio was most common anomaly; CBCT in all 3 modules was better at detecting 4/10 (abnormal eruption, abnormal shaped roots, perio, TR) noted abnormalities than radiographs w statistical significance; higher in all other categories for CBCT in all 3 modules EXCEPT loss of tooth integrity (rads better); sample size, lack of histo, rads used with dental charting (not performed and compared here)

Question 81

Abstract: According to "Evaluation of diagnostic yield of dental rads and CBCT for identification of anatomic landmarks in small to medium sized brachycephalic dogs" by Dorling, ARzi, Verstraete, what was the main point of the article? 

Answer 81

19 digs w CBCT (pano, slices, 3D) vs rads only for 26 structures (anatomic) CBCT 3 modules were significantly better for 19/26 landmarks rad scores were higher than PANO views in 4/19 landmarks 

Question 82

Abstract: "Morphological evaluation of clefts of lip, palate, or both in dogs" by Peralta, Fiani, Verstraete, what was the point of this article? Did classification system was referenced from human med?

Answer 82

32 dogs w cleft lip, palate or both that were suspected congenital had CT to evaluate morphology of defect, there were many variations; 9 anatomic forms of clefs, 2 anatomic forms in 23 dogs w cleft palate with individual variants, 7 anatomic forms in 9 dogs w clef lip or CLP and most had incisive bone abnormalities and facial asymmetry; the LAHSHAL classification (did not help identify clinically severity or surgical implications of clefts) L is lip, A alveolus, H hard palate, S soft palate

Question 83

Abstract: According to "Therapeutic efficacy of fresh, allogeneic, mesenchymal stem cells for severe refractory FCGS" by Arzi, Brojesson et al, what was the outcome of this study? How was the study population treated prior to ASC administration? 

Answer 83

7 cats: 3 had no response, 2 had complete resolution by 20mo, 2 had substantial improvement. Overall, fresh autologous ASCs had better clinical efficacy over allogeneic (delayed response, not as good). All were refractory to full mouth extractions for 2 mo minimum prior to ASC administration, recheck mouth rads to r/o RTRs, all Felv/FIV negative, off steroids for at least 2 weeks prior to starting treatment 

Question 84

Abstract: "The application of 3D printing prep planning in oral and maxillofacial surgery in dogs/cats" Winer, Verstraete, Arzi, what was the point of this article. 

Answer 84

28 dogs 4 cats w 3D models for a variety of different preop planning served as great tool for surgical planning, resident training, and client education. 

Question 85

According to "Malignant Transformation of a Canine Papillomavirus Type 1-Induced Persistent Oral Papilloma in a 3-Year-Old Dog"by Ibarra, Legendre, Munday, what are 3 different PV genera, and of the 20 known Canis familiars PVs, which are commonly associated with oral lesions? Which is most common? What is the incubation period of PV? 

Answer 85

Taupapillomavirus, Chipapillomavirus, Lambdapapillomvisu; CPV-1, CPV-13, CPV-17, CPV-19; CPV-1; 4-8 wks

Question 86

According to "Malignant Transformation of a Canine Papillomavirus Type 1-Induced Persistent Oral Papilloma in a 3-Year-Old Dog"by Ibarra, Legendre, Munday, what typically happens with a young dog and symptomatic PV? For non-resolving PV what are some txs? what tx did this dog receive?

Answer 86

develop cellular immunity and self resolve within 2-4 weeks (95%), tx usually unnecessary; Possibly in response to more humoral immunity, tx surgical (electrocautery, scalpel, lasers, cryosurgery), immunomodulatory drugs (azithromycin, interferon, Propionibacterium acne), vaccines (mixed efficacy); B/E, debunking, topical solution, azithromycin, interferon, meloxicam, Thuja occidentals LM1, Nitricum acidum LM1, none were successful.

Question 87

According to "Malignant Transformation of a Canine Papillomavirus Type 1-Induced Persistent Oral Papilloma in a 3-Year-Old Dog"by Ibarra, Legendre, Munday, what CPV viruses have been associated with malignant transformation to OSCC? were there any indicators in the dogs history of immune compromise? on rads and bx at referral center, why was this lesion not called OSCC? What other test was performed?

Answer 87

CPV-1, CPV-17; intermittent diarrhea, demodicosis (and chronic CPV); bone loss and premalignant changes were detected but o declined bone bx, pathologist would not call OSCC; performed PCR and found presence of CPV-1

Question 88

According to "Malignant Transformation of a Canine Papillomavirus Type 1-Induced Persistent Oral Papilloma in a 3-Year-Old Dog"by Ibarra, Legendre, Munday, 2 mo later the lesion progressed and a significant biopsy with bone confirmed OSCC. what is denoted by black arrows?

Answer 88

invasive nests and islands of anapestic squamous cells. 

Question 89

According to "Malignant Transformation of a Canine Papillomavirus Type 1-Induced Persistent Oral Papilloma in a 3-Year-Old Dog"by Ibarra, Legendre, Munday, what is represented by each arrow? 

Answer 89

green arrow: koilocyte and inclusion body (CPV), blue arrow neoplastic cells w squamous differentiation, black arrow: invasion beyond basement membrane into underlying bone

Question 90

According to "Malignant Transformation of a Canine Papillomavirus Type 1-Induced Persistent Oral Papilloma in a 3-Year-Old Dog"by Ibarra, Legendre, Munday, the owner elected palliative care and euthanasia. What tests were performed post mortem? what were the results?

Answer 90

IHC to detect p16 CDKN2A protein (p16) for expression of PV oncogenes, not detected; biopsy in formalin sent to 2 separate labs to look for DNA sequences of CPV and ONLY found CPV1 within OSCC

Question 91

According to "Malignant Transformation of a Canine Papillomavirus Type 1-Induced Persistent Oral Papilloma in a 3-Year-Old Dog"by Ibarra, Legendre, Munday, what does the author recommend surgically? for immunomodulation? which PV strains have been associated with OSCC?

Answer 91

CO2 laser; azithromycin (only tx w real studies); CPV-1 and CPV-17

Question 92

According to "Unusual Dental Morphology in a Chimpanzee: A Case Report Utilizing Cone-Beam Computed Tomography" by Al-Amery, Vellayan et al, what measurements were taken and with what modality? Were there interesting findings?

Answer 92

From regular chimp (non-bonobo) skull CBCT was used to determine tooth and crown ht, root length, root canal length and width (posterior teeth), pulp cavity length (anterior teeth), # of canals and foramina our root; mandibular central incisor longer than lateral incisor, mandibular anterior teeth presented w solitary flame shaped or conical calcified structure in pulp; first maxillary premolar has 3 roots (all others 2 roots), presence of bilateral radicular dens invaginatus in mandibular first premolars WITH conical stone mineralizations at pulp cavity,, and possibility of having 2 canals and 2 foramina in roots of posterior teeth. 

Question 93

According to "Unusual Dental Morphology in a Chimpanzee: A Case Report Utilizing Cone-Beam Computed Tomography" by Al-Amery, Vellayan et al, what are main differences between chimp and orangutan teeth?

Answer 93

lack enamel wrinkling; mostly bc less herbivorous than orangs

Question 94

According to "Oral and Dental Examination Findings in a Family of Zoo Suricates (Suricata Suricatta)" by Kvapil, Racnik et al, what was looked at in this study? what was found to be the most common anomaly? what is the dental formula? What was the percentage of PD 1?

Answer 94

similar to mongoose, 6 captive suricate had intraoral rads and charting; found most common PD and attrition/abrasion; 2 (I3/3, C1/1, P3/3, M2/2), 83.7%

Question 95

According to "Interrelationships Between Morphometric, Densitometric, and Mechanical Properties of Teeth in 5-Month-Old Polish Merino Sheep"by Tatara, Ostapiuk et al, extracted deciduous teeth (3 incisors, canine, P2) post mortem were quantitative CT and micro CT'd to determine overall tooth density and enamel, dentin density specifically. Which tooth had positive correlations and predictive value of tooth and masticatory organ quality in sheep?

Answer 95

Deciduous first mandibular incisor

Question 96

According to "A Volumetric Assessment Using Computed Tomography of Canine and First Molar Roots in Dogs of Varying Weight" by Scherer, Snyder, Waller et al, the volume of the mandible was calculated using CT at the canine, mesial and distal M1. What significant findings with regard to patient weight were noted?

Answer 96

M1 mesial and distal mandible volume and root volume increased with increasing weight at different rates with distal root increasing at a greater rate than mesial , as patient wt increases mandible and root volume increase at diff rates, root percentage by volume at C, M1 mesial and distal decrease by the same rate, C and M1 roots are proportionately larger than supporting mandibular bone in small patients  

Question 97

According to "Dental Dam Application for Endodontics in Dogs—A Novel Clamp Kit" by Cardoso, Viegas et al, what are some benefits to a dental dam? why have them been used so little in vet med?

Answer 97

aseptic field free of saliva, blood, debris, improves access and visibility by retracting soft tissues, protects from aspiration, drugs, irrigating solutions and tooth/material and debris; poor fit of human clamps on dog teeth is one reason, another is suspected extra time (minimal 1-2 min)

Question 98

According to "Assessment of Temporary Crown Extensions to Correct Linguoverted Mandibular Canine Teeth in 72 Client-Owned Dogs (2012-2016)" by Storli, Menzies, Reiter, in this retrospective study of 72 dogs with LMC treated with TCE, what was the overall success rate?

Answer 98

98.6%, 77.8% of dogs had complete resolution with normal functional occlusion, 20.8% had canines that were too short to achieve normal retainer and had permanent 1-2mm crown extensions placed, and 1.4% ( 1 dog) had LMC that reverted back to original position

Question 99

According to "Assessment of Temporary Crown Extensions to Correct Linguoverted Mandibular Canine Teeth in 72 Client-Owned Dogs (2012-2016)" by Storli, Menzies, Reiter, what are some sequelae of LMC? what are the 3 categories of orthodontic treatment? define them.

Answer 99

soft tissue trauma, ONF, PD, attrition, displaced opposing teeth, fx, endodontic dz, disturbance of orofacial development, pain; preventative: client education, operculectomy, feberotomy, strategic extraction, interceptive: elimination of developing or established malocclusion (ext DT/P causing MAL), or ext of adult teeth, corrective: correction of malocclusion w/o loss of tooth or part of crown (usually via orthodontic mvmt)

Question 100

According to "Assessment of Temporary Crown Extensions to Correct Linguoverted Mandibular Canine Teeth in 72 Client-Owned Dogs (2012-2016)" by Storli, Menzies, Reiter, in regards to corrective orthodontics, what are 2 different types of appliances and 2 different modes of action? name examples 

Answer 100

removable or fixed; active, continuous force OR passive, intermittent force; Removable: IP of acrylic or silicone snapped onto teeth, kong balls; fixed: IP; passive force: IP, TCE, etc; active: masel chain

Question 101

According to "Assessment of Temporary Crown Extensions to Correct Linguoverted Mandibular Canine Teeth in 72 Client-Owned Dogs (2012-2016)" by Storli, Menzies, Reiter, what steps were taken when placing TCE on LMC?

Answer 101

cleaning, acid etch tooth, and bond labial side of tooth (for easier removal of TCE), bis-acryl composite over LMC w or w/o guide wire or syringe cap for guide, smoothed with diamond and polishing discs

Question 102

According to "Assessment of Temporary Crown Extensions to Correct Linguoverted Mandibular Canine Teeth in 72 Client-Owned Dogs (2012-2016)" by Storli, Menzies, Reiter, was there any significant difference btwn treatment times for 3 classes of MAL or gender? what was the mean overall tx time (when excluding 4 outliers)? how were the majority of the 72 dogs effected?

Answer 102

No; 43d (outliers included poor o compliance or issues w travel); majority were Class I bilateral moderately affected LMC 

Question 103

According to "Assessment of Temporary Crown Extensions to Correct Linguoverted Mandibular Canine Teeth in 72 Client-Owned Dogs (2012-2016)" by Storli, Menzies, Reiter, what are some noted shortcomings of acrylic IP overcome by TCEs listed by the author? what percentage of dogs had complications? what were they?

Answer 103

allow for continued growth of upper jaw and effectively widen diastema btwn I3 and max C w/o soft tissue or gingiva trauma; 25% of dogs had complications, 12.5% were fx of detached TCE, 7 dogs had ulceration/inflammation from TCE contact, enamel fracture in 1 dog

Question 104

According to "Assessment of Temporary Crown Extensions to Correct Linguoverted Mandibular Canine Teeth in 72 Client-Owned Dogs (2012-2016)" by Storli, Menzies, Reiter, was there a breed overrepresentation?

Answer 104

Staffordshire Bull Terrier 11/72 dogs; genetic potential was discussed w all owners 

Question 105

According to "Relationship between Feline calicivirus Load, Oral Lesions, and Outcome in Feline Chronic Gingivostomatitis (Caudal Stomatitis): Retrospective Study in 104 Cats" by Druett, Hennet, what was the author's hypothesis and what was the outcome?

Answer 105

FCV viral load would be positively correlated w severity of clinical lesions in FCGS cats (104) and negatively correlated with tx outcome; 104 cats with RT reverse transcriptase PCR of oropharyngeal swabs for calici and dental extractions for part 1, only 56 for part 2 (outcome), severity of stomatitis was NOT associated with FCV, lingual ulcers WERE associated with FCV, extent of tooth extraction did NOT influence outcome, overall 32% cats were cured, 20% had significant improvement in 38d. Severity of oral inflammation was NOT associated w healing time or achievement of cure. 

Question 106

Abstract: According to "A comparison of CT, radiographic, gross and histological, dental, and alveolar findings in 30 abnormal cheek teeth from equine cadavers" by Liuti, Smith, Dixon, what was the point of this study and what were the findings?

Answer 106

validate accuracy of CT and radiographic imaging of cheek teeth disorders by comparing CT and rad imaging, gross and histo findings of abnormal cheek teeth and there alveoli extracted from equine cadaver heads; 54 heads from euthanized horses (no breed/age info) had 26 maxillary cheek teeth and 4 mandibular disease extracted (30) with alveoli for imaging and histo comparisons, gross pathologic exam confirmed 28/30 had pulpar/apical infection or changes, CT confirmed 27/28 (96%), rads confirmed changes in 22/28, and histo 21/28 (some missing bone), EXCELLENT CORRELATION ON CT!

Question 107

Abstract: "Rostral mandibular fx repair in pet bearded dragon (Pogona vitticeps)" by Nau, Eshar, what was the outcome of this case report?

Answer 107

2y bearded dragon w R rostral open comminuted mandibular fx and dorsal displacement, stabilized w 2 inter fragmentary 36g wire loops and external fixator w 4 25ga needles covered w IV line tubing and filled w acrylic for external fixator. 3mo later ex fix removed due to bony callous healing. 5.5mo complete fx resolution and inter fragmentary wires removed. Combination of internal and external fixation.

Question 108

Abstract: "Pharmacokinetics of buprenorphine after intravenous and oral transmucosal administration in guinea pigs (Cavia porcellus)." Sadar, Paul-murphy, et al. What was determined in this study?

Answer 108

The accurate dose and route of buprenorphine to GPs; 0.2mg/kg IV q7h or OTM every 4h to maintain target plasma concentration of 1ng/mL.

Question 109

Abstract: According to "Survival analysis to evaluate associations between periodontal disease and the risk of development of chronic azotemic kidney disease in cats evaluated at primary care veterinary hospitals" by Trevejo, Lund et al, what was the point and main findings of this study at Banfield? (related to Glickman studies)

Answer 109

association btwn PD and CKD risk and does CKD increase with severity of PD? 169,242 cats at canfield; PD associated w increased risk of CKD, risk highest for cats w stage 3 or 4 PD; risk of CKD increased with age, purebred cats had higher risk of CKD, GA within 1 year before study exit and cystitis associated w increased CKD, DM or hepatic lipidosis at any point decreased CKD risk.... little can actually be drawn from this study.