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Vascular > Vascular Review Ch. 1-5 > Flashcards

Vascular Review Ch. 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following describes the standard anatomic position found in diagrams and references?
a. erect with arms extended to 90 degrees away from the side of the body
b. supine with arms at the side
c. erect with arms at the side and palms facing forward
d. supine with arms extended to 90 degrees away from the side of the body

A

c

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2
Q

Which of the following is not a scanning plane of the body?
a. transverse
b. decubitus
c. sagittal
d. coronal

A

b

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3
Q

The horizontal view is another name for which of the following scanning planes?
a. frontal
b. parasagittal
c. coronal
d. transverse

A

d

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4
Q

Which of the following patient’s positions facilitates venous filling in the lower extremities?
a. trendelenburg
b. reverse trendelenburg
c. right or left posterior oblique
d. right or left lateral decubitus

A

b

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5
Q

Which scanning plane separates the body into right and left sections?

A

sagittal

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6
Q

A transverse view of the main renal artery is obtained using which scanning plane?

A

sagittal

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7
Q

When scanning in a transverse plane, the ultrasound image should be oriented so that the left side of the ultrasound image (screen) corresponds to:

A

the right side of the patient

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8
Q

While a patient is supine, a transducer is placed in a transverse body scanning plane and positioned over the left kidney. With this transducer orientation and patient position, which portion of the left kidney will appear toward/near the left side of the screen?

A

medial

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9
Q

While the patient is supine, a transducer is placed in a coronal body scanning plane and positioned over the left kidney. With this transducer orientation and patient position which portion of the kidney will appear near the top of the image (screen)?

A

lateral

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10
Q

A structure or region where the returning echoes are not as bright as the surrounding tissue is termed:

A

hypoechoic

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11
Q

When performing an ultrasound, a mass is observed which displays echoes that are bright in some areas and dark in others. These echoes can be described as:

A

heterogeneous

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12
Q

What is the correct term for the anatomic plane that courses vertically exactly through the midline of the body?

A

median sagittal plane

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13
Q

An ultrasound image displays two structures on directly over another. The structure which appears beneath or lower than the other structure is said to be:

A

inferior

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14
Q

A patient presents with right lower extremity swelling. You begin scanning their right leg. Which of the following terms best describes the location of the swelling as compared to the side of the body being examined:
a. contralateral
b. anterolateral
c. posteriolateral
d. ipsilateral

A

d

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15
Q

When examining a small mass in the region of the naval, what term best describes the location being scanned?

A

ventral

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16
Q

When performing PW spectral Doppler, which of the following is true?
a. always use a 60 degree angle
b. 90 degree is the highest Doppler shift
c. higher doppler shifts have less chance of aliasing
d. zero degrees is the most accurate angle

A

d

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17
Q

What material is commonly used in today’s ultrasound transducers?

A

lead zirconate titanate

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18
Q

“Sound is transmitted constantly with no pause in transmission” describes which of the following ultrasound techniques?
a. M-mode
b. Color Doppler mode
c. Pulsed wave mode
d. Continuous wave mode

A

d

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19
Q

Which of the following describes the percentage of time sound is being transmitted by a transducer?
a. period
b. pulse repetition factor
c. duty factor
d. pulse duration

A

c

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20
Q

Sound energy that is lost with depth is referred to as:

A

attenuation

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21
Q

Which of the following measures potential detrimental effects to the tissue as a result of heat?
a. bioeffect index
b. mechanical index
c. thermal index
d. spatial peak index

A

c

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22
Q

If a higher frame rate is desired, which of the following would be the best option?
a. increase the sector angle
b. increase the number of focal zones
c. increase the pulse repetition period
d. decrease the depth

A

d

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23
Q

The difference between the transmitted frequency and the reflected frequency describes:

A

the Doppler shift

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24
Q

The Nyquist limit is equal to:

A

one-half the PRF

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25
Q

Which of the following techniques is used for spectral Doppler?
a. Poiseuille conversion
b. Fast Fourier transform
c. Cooper transformation
d. autocorrelation

A

b

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26
Q

Which of the following will help eliminate aliasing artifact?
a. increase the PRP
b. Increase the transducer frequency
c. Increasing the Doppler angle
d. Increasing the Doppler shift

A

c

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27
Q

Which of the following Doppler techniques relies on the amplitude of the Doppler shift?
a. CW Doppler
b. Spectral Doppler
c. Power Doppler
d. Color Doppler

A

c

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28
Q

Which of the following grayscale controls is responsible for optimizing the image brightness at different depths?
a. spatial compounding
b. overall gain
c. time gain compensation
d. depth control

A

c

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29
Q

Which color Doppler control would eliminate the “bleeding” of color pixels outside of the vessel walls?
a. increase transducer frequency
b. decrease wall filter
c. decrease color scale
d. decrease color gain

A

d

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30
Q

What artifact can be described as “parallel lines in an image caused by strong specular reflectors?”

A

reverberation

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31
Q

What spectral Doppler artifact is eliminated by the use of wall filters?

A

clutter

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32
Q

What is the biggest advantage of PW Doppler over CW Doppler/

A

PW Doppler has a selectable sample volume

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33
Q

Neutral postures result in all of the following except:
a. increased endurance
b. quicker onset of fatigue
c. decreased muscle firing
d. reduced muscular load

A

b

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34
Q

Optimal scanning workstation setup includes all of the following except:
a. abduction of the scanning arm limited to 30 degrees or less
b. positioning the system monitor, so the patient can see it
c. adjusting the chair height to reduce arm abduction
d. lowering the exam table to reduce abduction and reach of the scanning arm

A

b

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35
Q

These conditions result from an accumulation of repeated exposure to risk factors.

A

WRMSDs

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36
Q

Risk factors for WRMSDs include all except:
a. neutral posture
b. repetition
c. excess reach
d. statis postures

A

a

37
Q

This musculoskeletal disorder is common among sonographers, resulting from the inability to meet the demands of a task.

A

mucle injury

38
Q

This musculoskeletal disorder can occur when the adjacent muscles, tendons, or ligaments become swollen.

A

nerve injury

39
Q

WRMSDs are also known as all of the following except:
a. PST
b. MSI
c. CTD
d. MSD

A

a

40
Q

Which of the following does not generally contribute to WRMSDs?
a. slipping
b. gripping
c. bending
d. twisting

A

a

41
Q

Which of the following is considered to be a psychosocial risk factor?
a. repetitive tasks
b. lack of or poor communication
c. contact pressure
d. awkward postures

A

b

42
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
a. microtears in muscles is expected with exercise
b. muscle contraction and relaxation helps remove toxins
c. muscles and tendons normally do not have elasticity
d. the duration of muscle loading has little impact on muscle health

A

b

43
Q

Severity of pain depends on:

A

duration of muscle contraction and recovery time

44
Q

Using a palmar whole hand grip on the transducer rather than a pinch grip illustrates the concept of:

A

using large muscles before small ones

45
Q

Neutral scanning posture includes all but which of the following?
a. knees higher than the hips when sitting
b. weight evenly distributed on both feet when standing
c. upright spine with no twisting
d. forearms parallel to the floor

A

a

46
Q

Pain, numbness, and tingling at the base of the thumb are associated with:

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

47
Q

Which of the following statements about synovial fluid is incorrect?
a. synovial fluid allows tendons to elongate without adhering to the surrounding fascia
b. repetitive movement will increase the amount of synovial fluid
c. tendon sheath produces synovial fluid to keep the tendon lubricated
d. synovial fluid with poor lubricating qualities can lead to inflammation

A

b

48
Q

Which statement best defines a capillary?
a. the part of the vascular system that can offer resistance to flow
b. the part of the vascular system that works to move blood against the force of gravity
c. the part of the vascular system where exchange of nutrients and waste occurs
d. the part of the vascular system with a strong muscular layer

A

c

49
Q

Which statement best describes the walls of a capillary?
a. a capillary wall is a very thin layer of adventitita
b. a capillary wall is primarily composed of a single layer of endothelial cells
c. a capillary wall has dense collagen and elastin fibers in the wall
d. a capillary wall is primarily composed of smooth muscle cells

A

b

50
Q

Circular smooth muscle is in this part of a blood vessel wall.

A

the tunica media

51
Q

The principal point of resistance to blood flow within the vascular system is supplied by the:

A

arterioles

52
Q

Which statement about venous valves is correct?
a. they are more numerous than the abdomen and thorax
b. they are contained in a special region of a vein called the venule
c. they have three leaflets
d. They are inward projections of the tunica intima

A

d

53
Q

From which of the following vessels does the right CCA normally originate from?
a. the right subclavian artery
b. the thoracic aorta
c. the brachiocephalic artery
d. the aortic arch

A

c

54
Q

The first branch of the cerebral portion of the ICA is the:

A

opthalmic artery

55
Q

Which of the following vessels is not part of the circle of Willis?
a. the anterior choroidal arteries
b. the posterior communicating arteries
c. the posterior cerebral arteries
d. the anterior communicating arteries

A

a

56
Q

What anatomimc landmark is used to delineate the subclavian artery from the axillary artery?

A

the outer border of the first rib

57
Q

The superficial and deep palmar arches of the hand are continuations of which two arteries, respectively?

A

the ulnar and radial arteries

58
Q

This vein is commonly found communicating between the cephalic and basilic veins at the antecubital fossa.

A

the median cubital vein

59
Q

The three major branches of the abdominal aorta are:

A

celiac
superior mesentary
inferior mesentary

60
Q

Which vessel supplies most of the small intestine?

A

superior mesenteric artery

61
Q

How are the renal arteries oriented with respect to the renal veins as the renal arteries approach the kidneys?

A

the renal arteries are slightly posterior to the renal veisn

62
Q

These arteries supply most of the pelvic organs

A

the internal iliac arteries

63
Q

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the blood supply of the liver?
a. the flow into the liver is carried by the hepatic artery and the flow out of the liver is carried by the portal and hepatic veins
b. the flow into the liver is carried by the hepatic and superior mesenteric arteries and flow out of the liver is carried by the hepatic veins
c. the flow into the liver is carried by the portal vein and hepatic artery, whereas the flow out of the liver is carried by the hepatic veins
d. the flow into the liver is carried by the portal vein and the flow out of the liver is carried by the superior mesenteric veins

A

c

64
Q

The profunda femoral artery, also known as the deep femoral artery, is ____ and _____ to the SFA.

A

it is posterior and lateral

65
Q

The opening in the leg where the superficial femoral artery passes through as it courses toward the ankle is called:

A

the adductor canal

66
Q

The longest vein in the body is:

A

great saphenous vein

67
Q

The tibal-peroneal trunk artery arises directly off which vessel?

A

the popliteal artery

68
Q

Which vessels form the portal vein?

A

superior mesenteric and splenic

69
Q

Which statement best defines the potential energy of the vascular system?
a. it is represented by the mean velocity of the blood
b. it is represented by cardiac output
c. it is represented by the peak systolic velocity of blood
d. it is represented by the intravascular pressure

A

d

70
Q

In the vascular system, blood flows:

A

from an area of high energy to an area of low energy

71
Q

What principle states that if fluid flows without a change in velocity the total energy will remain constant?

A

The Bernoulli principle

72
Q

Which item listed has the most influence of blood viscosity?
a. inertia
b. blood pressure
c. hematocrit
d. cross sectional area

A

c

73
Q

Which of the following cannot be a unit of velocity?
a. m/s
b. mL/s
c. cm/s
d. m/min

A

b

74
Q

Moving from the aorta through the arteries, then arterioles, and into the capillaries, which statement is correct?
a. the blood velocity decreases and the wall thickness increases
b. the blood velocity decreases and the total cross-sectional area increases
c. The blood velocity increases and the total cross sectional area increases
d. the wall thickness increases and the cross sectional area increases

A

b

75
Q

According to Poiseuille’s law, an increase in the change in pressures will:

A

increase the blood flow if all other components stay the same

76
Q

If the superficial femoral artery has multiple stenoses along the vessel, what will happen to the total resistance?

A

the resistance will increase with each additional stenosis

77
Q

Which of these vessels do not normally display a low resistance waveform?
a. the eca
b. the ca
c. the ra
d. the va

A

a

78
Q

Which of these vessels normally display a high resistance waveform?
a. the splenic artery
b. the superficial femoral artery
c. the internal carotid artery
d. the hepatic artery

A

b

79
Q

Which of these vessels shows a change from a high resistance waveform to a low resistance waveform after eating?
a. the renal arteries
b. the superior mesenteric artery
c. the abdominal aorta
d. the common hepatic artery

A

b

80
Q

Plug flow is:

A

found at the entrance to a vessel

81
Q

Vasomotor tone is produced by:

A

the constant contraction of smooth muscle cells of the vessel wall

82
Q

Which of the following is an example of a local feedback mechanism that controls blood flow?
a. blood pressure
b. viscosity
c. norepinephrine
d. oxygen

A

d

83
Q

Atherosclerotic changes are thought to begin with:

A

a lipid streak

84
Q

A change in which of the following factors will have the greatest change on blood flow?
a. the radius of a vessel
b. the blood viscosity
c. the length of a stenosis
d. the blood hematocrit

A

a

85
Q

Which of the following statements about arterial disease, blood flow, and pressure is correct?
a. blood flow distal to a mild stenosis will be decreased three-to five-fold after exercise
b. blood pressure distal to a mild arterial stenosis will be increased after exercise
c. blood pressure distal to a multilevel stenosis increases more as compared to mild disease
d. blood flow will change very little after exercise in patients with multilevel disease

A

d

86
Q

As vessels age, what happens to the blood vessel wall?

A

capacitance decreases as walls become stiffer

87
Q

Turbulence develops within a blood vessel mainly due to:

A

changes in the velocity of the blood and size of the vessel

88
Q

The velocity of the blood at the center of a vessel is approximately:

A

twice the mean velocity across the entire vessel

89
Q
A

Vascular (33 decks)

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