VALLEY: EQUIPMENTS & INSTRUMENTATION Flashcards

1
Q

In which publication is the purity of medical
gases specified? What agency enforces the
purity of medical gases in the United States?

A

The purity of medical gases is specified in the United States Pharmacopoeia and is enforced by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

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2
Q

Which United States government agency
regulates matters affecting the safety and
health of employees in all industries

A

The U.S. government regulates matters affecting the safety and health of employees in all industries through the Department of Labor

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3
Q
In 1970, the U.S. Congress passed the
Occupational Health and Safety (OSHA)
Act. Which two executive-branch
agencies were created to carry out the
provisions of OSHA
A

The Occupational Health and Safety Act (OSHA) created two separate executive- branch agencies to carry out the provisions of the act: ( 1) the National
Institute of Safety and Health (NIOSH), an agency with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention under the Department of Health and Human Services, and OSHA. under the Department ofLabor.

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4
Q

Who controls such processes as the filling

and manufacturing of gas cylinders

A

The US Department ofTransportation {DOT).

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5
Q

What is the role of the Federal Food and
Drug Administration (FDA) in the regulation
of compressed gas cylinders?

A

The FDA enforces regulations of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act. FDA inspectors inspect medical gas and liquefaction plants every other year. Oxygen cylinders and nitrous oxide tanks have been recalled
for numerous reasons including improper labeling, inappropriate testing, filling of cylinders with the wrong gases, and contamination of gases with ammonia, rusty water, oil, or chlorine.

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6
Q

List the responsibilities of the Department
of Transportation when dealing
with compressed gases.

A

The Department of Transportation has set requirements for the manufacturing, marking, labeling, filling, qualification, transportation, storage,handling, maintenance, requalification and disposition of medical gas cylinders and containers

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7
Q

How often should cylinders be inspected?

A

At least every five years, or, with special permit, up to every ten years

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8
Q

What is the working pressure of the

hospital pipeline system?

A

5O psig

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9
Q

Describe the diameter index safety system

(DISS), and state its purpose.

A

The pipeline inlet fittings are gas specific DISS threaded body fittings. The DISS provides threaded non-interchangeable connections for medical gas lines, and
this minimizes the risk of misconnection

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10
Q
  1. What are common contaminants of
    medical gas lines? Which contaminant is
    most common?
A

Common contaminants of medical gas lines are oil, water, bacteria, particulate matter, and residual sterilizing solutions. Water is the most common contaminant of medical gas lines

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11
Q
  1. Which two gases are in liquid form in

pressurized cylinders?

A

N20 and C02

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12
Q
  1. What is fusible plug?
A

The fusible plug is a thermally operated, non-reclosing pressure-relief device with the plug held against the discharge channel. It offers protection from
excessive pressure caused by a high temperature but not from overfilling. The yield temperature is the temperature at which the fusible material becomes
sufficiently soft to extrude from its holder so that cylinder contents are discharged.The fusible plug has supplanted Wood’s metal.

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13
Q

What is the capacity (L) and pressure A full E cylinder of oxygen ( 0 2) has a capacity of 660 L under a pressure of(psig) of a full E cylinder of oxygen (02)?

A

A full E cylinder of oxygen ( 0 2) has a capacity of 660 L under a pressure of 1900

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14
Q

What is the capacity (L) and pressure A full H cylinder of oxygen (02) has a capacity of 6,900 L under a pressure
(psig) of a full H cylinder of oxygen of 2200 psi.

A

A full H cylinder of oxygen (02) has a capacity of 6,900 L under a pressure 2200

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15
Q

Think about an E-cylinder of oxygen what do pressures of 2000, 1000, and 500 psi corresponds to>

A

2000 full
1000 half
500 quarter

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16
Q

If the pressure gauge of an e-cylinder reads 700 psi, how much gas remain in the cylinder

A

210 L

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17
Q

At what pressures should the O2 E-cyliner on an aensthesia machine be changed

A

less than 1000psi

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18
Q

What is the capacity and pressure of a full e cylinder of nitrous oxide

A

A full E cylinder of nitrous oxide {N 20) has a capacity of 1590 L under 745 psi.

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19
Q

What is the capacity (L) and pressure of a full H cylinder of nitrous ?

A

A full H cylinder of nitrous oxide {N20) has a capacity of 15,800 L under a pressureof745 psi. [
(psig)

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20
Q

Nitrous oxide {N20) is stored as a liquid
in cylinders, as you know. What does
the gauge pressure of745 psi actually ture.

A

Since nitrous oxide {N20) is stored as a liquid, the cylinder pressure of 745 psi represents the vapor pressure of liquid nitrous oxide at room temperature

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21
Q

What is the capacity (L) and pressure .

{psig) of a full E cylinder of air?

A

A full E cylinder of air has a capacity of 625 L under a pressure of 1900 psi

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22
Q

What is the capacity (L) and pressure

(psig) of a full H cylinder of air? psi.

A

A full H cylinder of air has a capacity of 6,550 L under a pressure of 2,200

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23
Q

Because the pressure on a nitrous oxide cylinder remains relatively constant (745
oxide in the cylinder, what is the only
way to know the amount of liquid in the
cylinder of nitrous oxide?

A

In a cylinder containing a liquefied gas, the pressure depends on the vapor pressure of the liquid-weight must be used to determine the amount of in cylinders that store liquefied gas.

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24
Q

What is the weight of an empty EE cylinder

cylinder?

A

An empty weighs 14 pounds. [

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25
Q

During the case, the wall oxygen pressure fails. The E-cylinder registers 2000 psig, but within a few breaths falls to zero pressure. What should you do?

A

Open the valve on the e-cylinder. The E-cylinder gauge may read 2000 psig after the e-cyliinder valve is turned off if the pressure in the line was not vented (bled) when the wall pressure of oxygen fails, the oxygen in the line form the closed E-cylinder “bleeds” quickly and the pressure fall abruptly.

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26
Q

The gauge on an E cylinder of nitrous oxide reads 740 psi. Explain the significance of this pressure reading.

A

Since nitrous oxide is stored as a liquid, the nitrous oxide cylinder pressure gauge remains at 745 psi until the liquid is gone; at this point, the cylinder is more than three-quarters empty. After all the liquid nitrous oxide isgone, the pressure rapidly declines until the cylinder is exhausted.

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27
Q

Before installing a gas cylinder on the anesthesia machine, the valve is “cracked:’ How and why is the cylinder
valve “cracked?”

A

A gas cylinder valve is “cracked” by slowly and briefly opening the valve with the port pointed away from the user or any other persons. The purpose of “cracking” the valve is to remove dust, dirt, metal shavings and other foreign matter from the valve port. This reduces the possibility of flash fire or explosion when the valve is later opened with the fittings in place.

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28
Q

What prevents back-flow pressure in the

gas cylinder

A

The check valve on the hanger yoke prevents back-flow pressure in a gas cylinder.

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29
Q

Explain the purpose of the pin index

system

A

The pin index system ensures that the cylinders will be non-interchangeable.
For example, an oxygen cylinder cannot be attached to a nitrous oxide yoke. [

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30
Q

Identify the four ( 4) components of the
anesthesia gas machine that are exposed
to high pressures (cylinder pressure

A

The four components of the anesthesia gas machine that are exposed to high-pressure (cylinder pressure) are: (1) hanger yoke, (2) yoke block with check valves, (3) cylinder pressure gauge, and (4) cylinder pressure regulators.

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31
Q

Identify the eight (8) components of the
anesthesia gas machine that are exposed
to intermediate pressures {pipeline pressure,
SO psi).

A

The eight components of the anesthesia gas machine that are exposed to
intermediate pressures (pipeline pressure, SO psi) are: ( l) pipeline inlets,(2) check valves, (3) pressure gauges, (4) ventilator power inlet, (S) oxygen
pressure-failure device, (6) flowmeter valve, (7) oxygen second-stageregulator, and (8) flush valve.

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32
Q

Identify the four ( 4) components of the
anesthesia gas machine that are exposed
to low pressures (distal to flowmeter
needle valve).

A

The four components of the anesthesia gas machine that are exposed to low
pressures are all distal to the flowmeter needle valve. The components are: ( l)
flowmeter tubes, (2) vaporizers, {3) check valves, and (4) common gas outlet.

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33
Q

What do pressure reducing devices

(regulators) do?

A

Pressure reducing regulators reduce the high and variable pressure in a
cylinder to a lower pressure ( 40 to 48 psig). Gas flow is maintained constant
without changing the supply pressure.

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34
Q

What is the name of the cylinder
pressure gauge that is found on cylinder
tanks? Does it measure relative or absolute
pressure?

A

High cylinder pressures are measured by the Bourdon gauge. The Bourdon
gauge measures pressure relative to the atmosphere.

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35
Q

When the Bourdon gauge reads zero,

what is the pressure in the tank?

A

One atmosphere

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36
Q

What do second stage reducing devices

(regulators) do?

A

Second stage regulators receive gas from either the pipeline or the cylinder reducing device (regulator) and reduce the pressure further to 26 psig for nitrous oxide and 14 psig for oxygen. The purpose of this second stage regulator is to eliminate fluctuations in pressure, so flow remains constant.

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37
Q

Besides reducing line pressure, what
other function does a second-stage
regulator provide?

A

In addition to reducing line pressure, the second-stage regulator maintains constant flow with changing supply pressure. In other words, the second stage regulator eliminates fluctuations in pressure.

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38
Q

What is a variable orifice, variable area,

or Thorpe tube mechanical indicator?

A

The mechanical tube indicator is the tapered (variable orifice) tube with an indicator bobbin that is part of the constant-pressure variable-orifice flowmeter found in anesthesia machines.

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39
Q
The Thorpe tube of the variable-orifice
flowmeter is tapered, as you know.
Describe the tapering of the Thorpe tube
and the Thorpe tubes location in the
anesthesia machine.
A

The Thorpe tube (variable orifice tube) is located in the manifold area of the anesthesia machine and is tapered, with the smallest diameter at the bottom of the tube and the largest at the top

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40
Q

What type of flowmeter uses rotating

indicator?

A

Variable orifice flow meters use rotating indicators (rotamer).

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41
Q

Why do some modern gas machines
have 2 flowmeter tubes whereas other
machines have one flowmeter tube?

A

The flowmeter arrangement on modern gas machines must account for both low and high flow rates. A machine with 2 flowmeter tubes in series- one for low flow rates and one for high flow rates- allows a single flowmeter to indicate both high and low flow rates. A machine with a single flowmeter tube actually has dual tapers in the tube one to accurately reflect low flow rates and the other for high flow rates. (Recall that the Thorpe tube flowmeter is a tapered tube.) Memory phrase: single taper dual tubes or dual taper-+ single tube

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42
Q

At what point on the float (plumb-bob
or ball types) of the flowmeter is flow
rate read?

A

Flow rate is read from the top of plumb-bob or skirted floats and from the middle of the ball-type float. Principle: read flow rate at the highest and widest portion of the float

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43
Q

What is the function of an auxiliary
flowmeter on the gas machine? What is
the advantage of an auxiliary flowrneter?

A

Auxiliary flowmeters are useful for attaching supplemental oxygen delivery devices, such as a nasal cannula, to the gas machine. The auxiliary flowmeter is advantageous because the breathing circuit and gas delivery hose remain intact while supplemental oxygen is delivered to a spontaneously breathing patient. Another advantage is that an oxygen source is readily available for the Ambu bag if the patient needs to be ventilated manually for any reason during the case.

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44
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of an

auxiliary flowmeter

A

If pipeline supply has lost pressure or has been contaminated, the auxiliary flowmeter becomes unavailable. Another disadvantage is that the fraction
of inspired inspiration cannot be varied with the auxiliary

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45
Q

Calibration oftlowmeters is based upon
what physical property of gases: density
or viscosity?

A

Flowmeters are calibrated for specific gases based upon the gas viscosity ( ‘f) at low flows and the gas density (p) at high flows. Recall that with low flow rates, laminar flow is typically favored and the fluid viscosity is a key determinant of laminar flow. At high flow rates turbulent flow is more likely and the fluid density effects the flow.

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46
Q

How is the oxygen flowmeter knob
distinguished from other flowmeter
knobs? (Hint: there are 3 distinguishing
characteristics … )

A

Flowmeter controls are touch and color coded (knobs must look and feel different}. The oxygen flowmeter control knob is distinct from other flowmeter
control knobs in the following 3 ways: the oxygen flowmeter control knob (1) is distinctively fluted (all other knobs must be round). (2) projects beyond control knobs for other gases, and (3) is larger in diameter than
other control knobs.

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47
Q

Describe the placement of the oxygen
flowmeter tube in relation to the other
flow tubes in the side-by-side array

A

The oxygen flowmeter tube should be placed downstream or to the right of other flowmeter tubes. Another description is that the oxygen flowmeter tube must be nearest the manifold outlet

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48
Q

What five features are characteristic of

anesthesia workstation vaporizers?

A

Anesthesia workstation vaporizers ( 1) must be concentration calibrated, (2) must have an interlock, (3) must indicate the liquid level in order to prevent overfilling, (4) should use keyed-filler devices, and (5) must not discharge liquid anesthetic from the vaporizer, even at maximum fresh gas

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49
Q

What volatile agents are delivered from
variable-bypass vaporizers? What are
three characteristics of variable-bypass
vaporizers?

A

The volatile agents that are delivered from variable-bypass vaporizers are isoflurane, and sevoflurane. Variable-bypass vaporizers are: (1) agent specific, (2) temperature-compensated, and (3) flow over (carrier gas flows over anesthetic liquid in the vaporizing chamber). The gas delivered to the variable-bypass vaporizer is divided into carrier gas, which flows over liquid anesthetic in the vaporizing chamber, and non-carrier gas, which
leaves the vaporizer unchanged. Because the gas flowing into the modern day vaporizer is divided into two streams, it is also known as a variable-bypass vaporizer.

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50
Q

Where should variable-bypass vaporizers

be located? Why?

A

Variable bypass vaporizers should be located outside the circle system,between the flow meters and common gas outlet. This placement lessens the likelihood of concentration surges during use of the oxygen flush valve.

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51
Q

What volume of anesthetic vapor is
produced by 1 milliliter of volatile anesthetic
liquid

A

One milliliter ofliquid volatile anesthetic produces - 200 milliliters of anestheticvapor at 20 °C and 1 atmosphere. [

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52
Q

What is the transport (“T”) dial setting
on a Drager Vapor 2000 gas machine?
What is the equivalent of this on other
gas machines?

A

The Drager Vapor 2000 gas machine has a transport (“T”) dial setting the helps prevent tipping-related problems. This function is provided by the
vaporizer cassette systems of other modern gas machines

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53
Q

What system prevents filling a vaporizer

with the incorrect agent?

A

The keyed filling port system on modern vaporizers lessens the chance of filling with the incorrect agent.

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54
Q
Most contemporary anesthesia gas machines
have variable-bypass vaporizers.
Which modern gas machine does not
have a variable-bypass vaporizer? What
is the appropriate description of this
vaporizers operation?
A

Unlike most contemporary vaporizers, the Tee 6 desflurane vaporizer is not a variable-bypass vaporizer. The Tee 6 vaporizer is best called a dual-gas •
blender vaporizer

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55
Q

What is the temperature and pressure in
the desflurane vaporizer? Is the desflurane
vaporizer a flow-over vaporizer?

A

Desflurane is delivered from a heated (39 degrees C) and pressurized ( 1300
mm-Hg) vaporizer. The desflurane vaporizer is not a flow-over vaporizer

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56
Q

State two reasons why desflurane needs

a specially-designed vaporizer?

A

Desjlurane’s vapor pressure of 669 mm Hg is near atmospheric pressure. so it almost boils at sea level; (2) desflurane is only one-fifth as potent as the other volatile agents, so a relatively large volume of vapor must be delivered to the patient.

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57
Q

Which vaporizer is a “dual-circuit”
gas-vapor blender? To what feature does
the “dual-circuit” apply?

A

The Tee 6 vaporizer is an electrically heated, thermostatically controlled, constant-temperature. pressurized, electromechanically coupled dual circuit,
gas-vapor blender. The pressure in the vapor circuit is electronically regulated to equal the pressure in the fresh gas circuit. At a constant fresh gas flow rate, the operator regulates vapor flow using a conventional concentration
control dial. When the fresh gas flow rate increases, the working pressure increases proportionally. For a given concentration setting even when varying the fresh gas flow rate, the vaporizer output is constant because the amount of flow through each circuit remains proportional.

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58
Q

The Tee 6 desflurane vaporizer is a
dual-gas blender, as you know. What are
the implications of this type of vaporizer
when a change in altitude is encountered?

A

Because the Tee 6 vaporizer is a dual-gas blender, the Tee 6 will maintain a constant concentration of vapor output(% v/v), not a constant partial pressure. regardless of ambient pressure. This means that at high altitudes. the
partial pressure of desflurane (Pd.,) will be decreased in proportion to the atmospheric pressure. The Tee 6 vaporizer requires manual adjustment of the concentration control dial at altitudes other than sea level to maintain a constant Pd …

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59
Q

Desflurane is heated to 39°C in the TEC 6 vaporizer, as you well know. What is the source of heat and what is the saturated vapor pressure (SVP) of destlurane
at this temperature? Also describe the location of the heated desflurane reservoir in relation to the common outlet and shut-off valve.

A

In the TEC 6 vaporizer, desflurane is electrically heated in a sump that is upstream of both the common outlet and shut-off valve. Heating of desflurane to 39 °C creates a saturated vapor pressure of 2 atmospheres, which
drives the agent towards the fresh gas flow. In contrast to other vaporizers, no fresh gas flow goes through the desflurane sump. i.e., fresh gas flow never
comes in contact with liquid desflurane

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60
Q

Does the TEC 6 desflurane vaporizer
automatically compensate for changes in
elevation? What are the implications of
this for the anesthetist?

A

The Tee 6 desflurane vaporizer does not automatically compensate for changes in elevation. The concentration of desflurane is unaffected by elevation, but the partial pressure decreases. At high elevations, the anesthetist
must increase the concentration on the control dial to raise the partial pressure to the desired level. Since the partial pressure of agent delivered to the patient is what counts, you would need to increase the concentration
setting when you are in the mountains so as to deliver an equivalent partial pressure of desflurane to the patient.

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61
Q
Calculate the partial pressure of desflurane
delivered from the Tee 6 vaporizer
at sea level (atmospheric pressure=
760 mm Hg) and also in the mountains
where the atmospheric pressure is 600
mm Hg. Do your calculations explain
why delivering 5% in the mountains
results in lighter anesthesia?
A

If you set the dial on the Tee 6 at 5% and you are at sea level, the partial
pressure of desflurane going to the patient is 0.05 x 760 mm Hg :: 38 mm
Hg (Dalton’s law of partial pressures permits this calculation); but, if you
go up into the mountains where the total atmospheric pressure is, let’s
say, 600 mm Hg, the partial pressure of desflurane delivered to the patient
when you set the Tee 6 dial at 5% is O.OS x 600 mm Hg = 30 mm Hg. These
calculations explain why setting the dial at S% results in lighter anesthesia
in the mountains than it does at sea level. The partial pressure going to the
patient for a given dial setting is lower in the mountains

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62
Q
Tech 5 vaporizer designs were susceptible
to a "pumping effect." Describe this
pumping effect. What was the result
of this effect in terms of anesthetic
delivery?
A

Early vaporizer designs were susceptible to a pumping effect: intermittently fluctuating pressure in the breathing system, such as that generated by positive pressure ventilation or by intermittent pressing and releasing of
the 0 2 flush valve, caused fluctuating back pressure to be transmitted into the low-pressure system. The “pumping effect” is more pronounced at low flow rates. The result of this pumping effect was an increased concentration
of anesthetic delivered

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63
Q

How is the pumping effect (see previous
question) prevented in more modern
anesthetic vaporizers?

A

New anesthetic vaporizers incorporate mechanisms that decrease the size
of the vaporizing chamber relative to the bypass channel and increase the
volume of the inflow channel. Vapor-saturated gas cannot make its way
back into the bypass channel, and thus the pumping effect is prevented

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64
Q
State six ( 6) hazards of modern vaporizers
that persist, despite advancements in vaporizer design.
A

Six hazards of modern vaporizes that remain, despite advances in design, are: (1) incorrect agent administration, (2) tipping, (3) overfilling with agent, (4) leaks, (5) electronic failure, and (6) reliance on breath-by-breath gas analysis rather than preventative maintenance.

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65
Q

Describe three functions of the interlock

system on the anesthesia machine.

A

Contemporary vaporizers are secured to the anesthesia machine in mani· folds that hold 2-3 units. The interlock system, also known as the vaporizer exclusion system, prevents more than one vaporizer from being turned on
at a time. In other words, the operator is prevented from delivering more than any one agent simultaneously. The interlock system also ensures that all vaporizers are locked in such that leaks are decreased, and trace vapor
output is minimal when the vaporizer is off.

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66
Q

What is the main function of the check

valve(s) in a gas machine?

A

Check valves, also called unidirectional or one-way valves, prevent retrograde flow {back flow) during positive pressure ventilation, therefore minimizing the effects of downstream intermittent pressure fluctuations
on inhaled anesthetic concentration

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67
Q

List 3 functions of the anesthesia machine

check valve

A

The anesthesia machine check valve: ( l) prevents “back-flow” from
high-pressure to low-pressure sides (prevents “pumping action” of gases),
(2) allows for an empty cylinder to be exchanged for a full one with minimal
loss of gas, and (3) minimizes leakage from an open cylinder to the
atmosphere.

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68
Q

Describe the purpose of the fail.safe valve on the anesthesia machine.

A

The fail·safe valve prevents the delivery of hypoxic gas mixtures from the machine in the event of failure of the oxygen supply. The fail-safe valve goes by many other names- the oxygen failure safety valve, oxygen failure •
safety device, low·pressure guardian system, oxygen failure protection device, pressure sensor shutoff system or valve, pressure sensor system, and
nitrous oxide shutoff valve

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69
Q

Which anesthetic gas has no fail-safe valve?

A

Oxygen

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70
Q

During an anesthetic the fail· safe valve shuts down all non·oxygen gas flow.What happened?

A

The oxygen pressure fell below 2S-30 psi. When oxygen pressure falls below 20- 30 psi (roughly SO% of normal), a fail-safe valve automatically doses the nitrous oxide and other gas lines to prevent accidental delivery of
a hypoxic gas mixture to the patient. A gas whistle or electric alarm sounds to alert the anesthetist to this occurrence.

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71
Q

List eight (8) required monitors on the anesthesia workstation

A

The eight required monitors on the anesthesia workstation are: (1) exhaled volume
(2) inspired oxygen, with a high-priority alarm within 30 seconds of oxygen falling below 18% (or a user-defined adjustable limit);
(3) oxygensupply failure alarm;
(4) a hypoxic guard system that must protect against
less than 21 % inspired oxygen if nitrous oxide is in use; (S) anesthetic vapor
concentration;
(6) pulse oximetry
; (7) blood pressure monitoring; and,
(8) electrocardiogram

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72
Q

What is the maximum time a high·priority

alarm may be silenced?

A

High-priority alarms may not be silenced for more than 2 minutes

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73
Q

What are your actions when the oxygen low-pressure alarm sounds?

A

When the oxygen low·pressure alarm sounds-indicating profound loss of 01 pipeline pressure-fully open the E cylinder, disconnect the pipeline, and consider use of low fresh gas flows

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74
Q

How frequently does the scavenging system need to be checked?

A

The scavenging system needs to be checked daily as outlined by the FDA in 1993

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75
Q

Name five components of the scavenging system.

A

The gas· collecting system; (2) the transfer tubing; (3) the scavenging interface; (4) the gas disposal tubing; and (5) an active or passive gas disposal assembly.

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76
Q

Where is the valve of the scavenging system located?

A

Waste gas scavengers dispose of gases that have been vented from the breathing circuit by a pressure release valve located in the breathing circuit or the ventilator. Either of these valves is connected to hoses leading to the
scavenger system. [

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77
Q

To what is the outlet of the scavenging system

connected?

A

The outlet of the scavenging system can be a direct line to the outside or a connection to the hospital’s vacuum system

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78
Q

What are indications that the scavenging system is malfunctioning?

A

When a scavenging system malfunctions or is misused, positive or negative pressure can be transmitted to the breathing system. This is more likely to
occur with dosed interfaces

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79
Q

What is the purpose of each of the two
pressure relief valves of the scavenger
system?

A

One relief valve is for negative pressure and one is for positive pressure

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80
Q

When does the positive pressure relief

valve of the scavenger system open?

A

If flow of waste gases into the vacuum source is insufficient and the reservoir
bag distends, the positive pressure valve opens and vents some of the
exhaled gases into room.

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81
Q

When does the negative pressure relief

valve of the scavenger system open

A

If the flow of waste gases into the vacuum system is too high and the bag
collapses, the negative valve opens and lets in room air

82
Q

What is the proportioning system on the

anesthesia workstation?

A

A proportioning system on the anesthesia workstation is a hypoxia prevention
safety device. Manufacturers equip anesthesia workstations with
proportioning systems in an attempt to prevent creation and delivery of a hypoxic
mixture. Nitrous oxide and oxygen are mechanically and/or pneumatically
linked so that the minimum oxygen concentration at the common gas
outlet is between 23 to 2S% depending on manufacturer.

83
Q

How does the Link-25 proportioning

system work?

A

The Link-25 system is found on conventional Datex-Ohmeda machines. The heart of the system is the mechanical integration of the nitrous oxide and
oxygen flow control valves. It allows independent adjustment of either valve, yet automatically intercedes to maintain a minimum 2S% oxygen concentration
with a maximum nitrous oxide-oxygen flow ratio of 3: 1. The combination of the mechanical and pneumatic aspects of the system yields the final oxygen concentration. The Link-25 proportioning system can be thought of as a system that increases oxygen flow when necessary to prevent delivery of a fresh gas
mixture with oxygen concentration ofless than 25

84
Q
List five (5) conditions that can "fool"
the proportion-limiting systems
A

The following five situations can lead to delivery of hypoxic gas mixtures on workstations equipped with proportioning systems: (1) wrong supply gas, (2) defective pneumatics or mechanics, (3) leaks downstream, (4) inert
gas administration, and (5) dilution of inspired oxygen concentration by volatile inhaled anesthetics.

85
Q
What type of gas can lead to delivery
of a hypoxic mixture on a workstation
equipped with a proportioning system?
What is mandatory when such a gas is
present
A

An inert, third gas, such as He, N2 or C02, can cause delivery of a hypoxic mixture because contemporary proportioning systems link only nitrous oxide and oxygen. Use of an oxygen analyzer is mandatory (or preferentially a multigas analyzer, when available) if the operator uses a third gas

86
Q

What is a double-circuit ventilator?

A

Double-circuit ventilators (bellows in a box, bag in a bottle), in which one circuit contains patient gas and the other circuit contains drive gas, are used most commonly on modem anesthesia workstations. The bellows is housed in a pressure chamber, and the inside of the bellows is connected to the breathing system. The double-circuit separates breathing system gas from driving gas. Generally, these conventional ventilators are pneumati·
cally driven.

87
Q

Consider a ventilator in pressure control
mode: what parameter fluctuates with
each cycle? What patient parameters
determine this fluctuation?

A

In pressure control mode, the ventilator is set so that the inspiratory pressure is greater than the positive end·expiratory pressure. In this mode, tidal volume fluctuates (varies) with alterations in patient pulmonary
compliance, pulmonary resistance, and with patient-ventilator asynchrony

88
Q

The jet ventilator operates on what/

whose principle of physics?

A

Operation of the jet ventilator is based on the Venturi effect and Bernoulli principle.

89
Q

Cycling of a pressure-limited ventilator

is triggered by what?

A

Pressure ventilators terminate the inspiratory phase when a pre·selectedpressure is achieved in the ventilator circuit. When this pressure is reached,
the ventilator cycles

90
Q
During the case, the blood pressure of
the patient who is on 10 cm H20 PEEP
decreases. Each of the following changes
will NOT help reverse the hypotension
EXCEPT: (1} decrease PEEP to 5 cm
H20, (2) increase the l:E ratio, {3} switch
from PEEP to CPAP?
A

Decreasing PEEP could be helpful. Increasing the I:E ratio means that the positive airway pressure will be maintained for a longer period of time during each ventilatory cycle, which further decreases venous return, cardiac output and blood pressure. Likewise, changing to CPAP will cause
airway pressure to be positive throughout the ventilatory cycle, which could further decrease venous return, cardiac output and blood pressure.

91
Q

What are three beneficial effects of con·
tinuous positive airway pressure {CPAP)
administered to the critically ill patient?

A

CPAP: {I) increases lung compliance, which decreases the work of breathing; (2) diminishes ventilation:perfusion mismatching; and (3) increases tidal volume above dosing volume

92
Q

When is CPAP useful in anesthesia {give

three examples)? Why?

A

(l) CPAP of 5- 10 cm H20 is commonly applied when patients are intubated. It helps to maintain FRC and may prevent atelectasis since the normal mechanism for maintaining airway and alveolar patency (mild resistance
to airflow by the epiglottis and upper airway structures} is bypassed by the endotracheal tube. (2} CPAP is used to maintain FRC in the postoperative period. (3) CPAP to the non-dependent lung may be useful during one-lung
anesthesia; this reduces shunt.

93
Q

When is CPAP useful in anesthesia {give

three examples)? Why?

A

(l) CPAP ofS- 10 cm H20 is commonly applied when patients are intubated. It helps to maintain FRC and may prevent atelectasis since the normal mechanism for maintaining airway and alveolar patency (mild resistance
to airflow by the epiglottis and upper airway structures} is bypassed by the endotracheal tube. (2} CPAP is used to maintain FRC in the postoperative period. (3) CPAP to the non-dependent lung may be useful during one-lung
anesthesia; this reduces shunt.

94
Q

How is FRC altered by CPAP?

A

Ifloss oflung volume is significant, CPAP is very effective for restoring (increasing} or maintaining FRC

95
Q

What is the goal of positive end-expiratory
pressure ventilation (PEEP)? By
what mechanism{s) does PEEP achieve
this goal?

A

The goal of optimal positive end-expiratory pressure ventilation (PEEP) is to achieve optimal arterial oxygenation with an F102 $ 0.5 with the least
decrement in cardiac output and tissue perfusion. The 2 universal pulmonary effects of PEEP are redistribution of extravascular water and increased FRC, through maximal alveolar recruitment. As FRC increases, oxygenation
increases. Remember: FRC is an oxygen reservoir/reserve

96
Q

How does PEEP affect the stroke volume,
cardiac output, systemic arterial blood
pressure, and central venous blood
pressure?

A

PEEP, because it compresses alveolar capillaries, decreases return of blood to the left ventricle (decreases preload), and hence stroke volume, cardiac
output, and systemic arterial blood pressure all decrease. Arterial hypotension may occur. Central venous pressure may increase.

97
Q

Identify three potential disadvantages of

PEEP related to the pulmonary system.

A

(l) Pulmonary barotrauma; (2) increased extravascular lung water; (3) redistribution of pulmonary blood flow.

98
Q

What is the range of pressures associated
with prophylactic PEEP, and when is it
used?

A

With prophylactic PEEP. 1-5 cm of water is used to increase functional residual capacity in order to prevent atelectasis and to decrease shunting.

99
Q

What is conventional PEEP, and when is

it used?

A

With conventional PEEP. 5- 20 cm of water is applied if Pa02 is less than 60 mm Hg with Fi02 exceeding 50%. The best PEEP is defined as the level of PEEP with the highest oxygen transport, which is the product of cardiac
output and oxygen content. This PEEP correlates with the highest total respiratory compliance, the highest mixed venous oxygen tension, and the lowest VD/VT.

100
Q

What is “best” PEEP, and how is it

determined?

A

The level of PEEP that produces maximal arterial blood oxygenation without over-distention of alveoli, as reflected by static Jung compliance, is known as “best” PEEP. Initially, PEEP is added in 2.5-5 cm water increments
while breathing less than 50% 01. The goal is to deliver the amount of PEEP that maximally improves Pa02 without substantially decreasing cardiac output or increasing risk of pulmonary barotrauma

101
Q

What is high PEEP ?

A

High PEEP is defined as the level of PEEP with the lowest intrapulmonary
shunt and without compromising cardiac output. The PEEP used in this
report is so-called high or super PEEP, more than 25 cm H10

102
Q

Identify four (4) reasons why positive
pressure ventilation of 25 cm H20 would
not be sufficient to ventilate an individual.

A

Positive pressure ventilation at 25 cm H20 would not be enough pressure to
ventilate if: (1) the upper airway is obstructed, (2) the patient has sufficient
muscle tone to prevent chest expansion, (3) the individual has decreased
pulmonary compliance, or ( 4) the individual has increased pulmonary
resistance.

103
Q
Describe the effect of intermittent positive
pressure ventilation (IPPV) on the
pulmonary circulation.
A

Intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) causes compression of
pulmonary capillaries with a shift of blood from capillaries to pulmonary
arteries and veins. [

104
Q
Describe the effect of intermittent positive
pressure ventilation (IPPV) on the
pulmonary circulation.
A

Intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) causes compression of
pulmonary capillaries with a shift of blood from capillaries to pulmonary
arteries and veins.

105
Q
What is the effect of intermittent positive
pressure ventilation (IPPV) on cardiac
output, heart rate, blood pressure,
and venous return?
A

Intermittent positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) decreases venous return
to the left ventricle, decreases cardiac output and decreases arterial blood
pressure; it may increase heart rate (reflex).

106
Q

Describe intermittent mandatory ventilation

IMV

A

Intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV) allows a patient to breath
spontaneously around a baseline pressure (PEEP) in between mandatory
breaths. IMV circuits provide a continuous supply of fresh gas flow for the
spontaneous breaths between mechanical breaths. Note: with IMV the patient
is breathing above the set minute ventilation

107
Q

When is intermittent mandatory ventilation

(IMV) used?

A

Intermittent mandatory ventilation is often used to wean a patient from
mechanical ventilation. NB: Barash makes the point that “weaning from
mechanical ventilation” is better termed “liberation” or “separation” from
mechanical ventilation.

108
Q
The patient has been on mechanical
ventilatory support for two days; you
now desire to withdraw mechanical
ventilatory support from the patient.
List 7 objective criteria supporting the
feasibility of discontinuing mechanical
ventilation.
A

Seven objective criteria supporting the feasibility of withdrawing mechanical
ventilation are: ( l) vital capacity > l S ml/kg (Barash states > 10 ml/kg), •
(2) A-aD02 < 3SO mm-Hg while breathing 100% 0 2, (3} Pa02 > 60 mm-Hg
while breathing 50% 02. ( 4} maximal negative inspiratory pressures more
than 20 cm H20, (S) normal pH maintained, (6} spontaneous respiratory
rate <20 breaths per minute, and (7) VD/VT < 0.6. [

109
Q
Describe synchronized intermittent
mandatory ventilation (SIMV).
A

Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) is a refinement
of intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV} in which the intermittent
mandatory breaths are delivered in synchrony with, and triggered by, the
patient’s spontaneous efforts. SIMV can be used for full to partial support
of ventilation and helps to prevent “fighting the ventilator~ and “breath
stacking:’

110
Q
Is synchronized intermittent mandatory
ventilation (SIMV) used in pressure or
volume mode? What aspect of ventilation
is detected to trigger synchronization
with the patient's ventilatory effort?
A

Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV} may be used
in either pressure- or volume-cycled mode. A trigger window controls the
amount of time during each expiratory cycle that the ventilator is sensitive
to spontaneous breaths, by sensing negative (subatmospheric) pressure
generated by the patient’s diaphragm.

111
Q
What is the suggested protocol to wean a
patient from synchronized intermittent
mandatory ventilation (SIMV}?
A

To wean a patient from synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation
(SIMV}, progressively decrease the number of breaths (by 1-2 breaths/
minute} as long as the arterial C01 tension and respiratory rate remain acceptable
(generally< 45- 50 mm Hg and less than 30 breaths per minute}.

112
Q

Describe assist/control ventilation.
(Note: assist/control is often stated as
assist-control.)
26.

A

In assist/control (AC) ventilation, the patient is allowed to set the respiratory
rate by activating the inspiratory trigger function. In volume assist/
control mode, each patient effort of sufficient magnitude will trigger the set
tidal volume. In pressure assist/control, the patient again sets the frequency
and the upper limit of pressure- the tidal volume varies, and consistency is
sacrificed to prevent barotrauma by high pressures. As a safety measure, if
no spontaneous effort occurs, the ventilator will deliver controlled breaths
at a preselected backup rate. The variable used by the ventilator to cycle off
the breath is time.

113
Q
After weaning and removal from
mechanical ventilation, you are ready
to extubate the trachea. What 2 criteria
indicate awake tracheal extubation is
appropriate?
A

Tracheal extubation is reasonable if patients ( l} tolerate 2 hours of sponta·
neous breathing during T-tube weaning, OR {2) when an SIMV (synchronized
intermittent mandatory ventilation) rate of 1-2 breaths per minute
is tolerated without deterioration of arterial blood gases, mental status, or
cardiac functio

114
Q

What tidal volume, inspiratory flow rate,
and respiratory rate should be used on a
COPD patient?

A

A large tidal volume (10-15 ml/kg) combined with a slow inspiratory flow
rate minimizes the likelihood of turbulent flow through the airways and
optimizes ventilation-perfusion matching. A slow breathing rate (6-8
breaths/min} provides sufficient time for exhalation to occur

115
Q

What is the recommended mesh size for
soda granules? This recommended size
represents a compromise between what
two factor

A

Optimal size of 4-8 mesh represents a compromise between absorptive capacity
and resistance to air flow through the canister

116
Q

What is the advantage and what is
the disadvantage of small soda lime
granules?

A

The advantage is increased absorptive capacity due to increased surface
area. The disadvantage is that smaller granules also lead to increased resistance
to gas flow due to smaller interspaces

117
Q

What happens to the circle system if the
plastic packing wrapper is inadvertently
left on the C02 absorption canister?

A

A total obstruction of the circle system occurs if the clear plastic shipping
wrapper is not removed from the C02 canister before use

118
Q

The soda lime canister turns blue during
the case, and it is not possible to change
it. What should be done to compensate
for this?

A

Increase the fresh gas flow rate. [

119
Q

List six (6) early and two (2) late clinical
signs of an exhausted carbon dioxide
absorbent.

A

Six early clinical signs of carbon dioxide absorbent are: ( 1) increased
ETC02, (2) respiratory acidosis, (3) hyperventilation, (4) signs of sympathetic
nervous system activation, (5) increased bleeding at surgical site, and
(6) color of indicator. Two late clinical signs of an exhausted C02 absorbent
are: (1) increase (and later a decrease) in heart rate and blood pressure, and
(2) dysrhythmias.

120
Q

When filled, what % of the space in a

soda lime canister is air?

A

About 50%. The air space occupies 48- 55% of the volume of the canister.

121
Q

How many liters of C02 can be absorbed

for each 100 g of soda lime?

A

15 liters of C02 can be absorbed for each 100 g of soda lime

122
Q

What are the five final products when

C01 reacts with soda lime (Sodasorb)?

A
Calcium carbonate (a precipitate), sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide,
water, and heat.
123
Q

What are five final products when C02

reacts with Amsorb?

A

Ca(OH}i, CaC!i. Caso., polyvinylpyrrolidone, and water

124
Q

What is the most abundant constituent

in soda lime? In Amsorb?

A

Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2] is the most abundant component of both
soda lime and Amsorb. Soda lime has 62% Ca(OHh and Amsorb has 80%
Ca(OHh. [

125
Q

What is the general name for the type
of chemical reaction occurring in the
carbon dioxide absorber?

A

Neutralization.

126
Q

State the American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) standards for reservoir bags.

A

American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) standards for reservoir bags require that with a bag of l.S Lor smaller with a pressure not less than 30 cm H20 or greater than SO cm H20 when the bag is expanded
to four times its capacity. Latex.free bags may allow greater pressures to
develop

127
Q

Identify five advantages of a circle systems

A

l) Conservation of gases, (2) conservation of body heat, (3) conservation of moisture (H20 ), (4) minimal operating room pollution, and (5) relative constancy of inspired gas concentration.

128
Q

Identify nine (9) disadvantages of a circle system?

A

The major disadvantages of a closed circle system stem from the complex design. Since there are ten or more connections, the circle system is prone

to: (1) disconnects; (2) obstructions; (3) leaks; and, (4) malfunction of uni·directional valves. The larger size of a circle system (5) limits portability. Other shortcomings of a closed circle system are: (6) increased deadspace;
(7) complications due to use of an absorbent; {8) difficulty predicting inspired gas concentration during low fresh gas flow; and, (9) some components are difficult to clean.

129
Q

What is the most common site for breathing circuit disconnection?

A

Although disconnections can occur anywhere in the breathing system, the most common site is between the breathing system and tracheal tube connector
or heat moisture exchanger

130
Q

What is the purpose of the unidirectional valves in the circle system?

A

Unidirectional valves ensure gas flow to and away from the patient.

131
Q

Where does the fresh gas flow enter the breathing circuit in the circle system?

A

Fresh gas enters through the common gas outlet via the fresh gas delivery hose

132
Q

In a circle system, where is the dead space located?

A

Between the Y-piece and the patien

133
Q

Why is the adjustable pressure limiting {APL) valve important in the semi-closed system?

A

The adjustable pressure limiting (APL) valve automatically relieves pressure within the semi-closed system. The APL adjusts the limit of positive pressure attained within the patient circuit and alters the amount of gas
contained within the rebreathing bag. When the desired pressure in the
circuit is exceeded, gas flows out of the APL valve and is vented into the
scavenging system

134
Q

When does a closed system exist?

A

A closed system exists when there is complete rebreathing of expired gas

135
Q

What oxygen flow rate should be used when using a closed system?

A

The fresh gas inflow for a closed system of 150 to SOO ml 01/min satisfied the patient’s oxygen requirements (150- 25O ml 02/min) during anesthesia

136
Q

What are four advantages of closed breathing

system?

A

(1) Maximum humidification, (2) efficiency of gas usage, {3) less pollution of gases to atmosphere, and (4) economy

137
Q

What is the major disadvantage of the

closed breathing system?

A

Inability to rapidly change the delivered concentration of anesthetic gases
and 02.

138
Q

Rank the relative efficiency of Mapleson
systems with respect to prevention of
rebreathing during spontaneous ventilation.

A

With respect to prevention of rebreathing during spontaneous ventilation,
the relative efficiency ofMapleson systems is A> DFE > CB.

139
Q

Rank the relative efficiency of Mapleson
systems with respect to prevention of rebreathing
during controlled ventilation

A

With respect to prevention of rebreathing during controlled ventilation,
the relative efficiency ofMapleson systems is DFE > BC > A.

140
Q

What is the most commonly used system
for delivery of anesthetic gases and 0 2 to
children and adults?

A

The semi-closed breathing system

141
Q

Where should the oxygen sensor be

placed?

A

The oxygen sensor should be placed in the inspiratory limb of a circle system.

142
Q

What four actions should be performed

to check the low pressure system?

A

( l) Close APL (pop-off) valve and occlude system at patient end. (2) Fill system via 02 flush until bag is full while keeping pressure in system negligible.
Set 02 flow to 5 L/min. (3) Slowly decrease O2 flow until pressure no longer rises above 20 cm H20. This approximates total leak rate, whichshould be no greater than several hundred ml/min (less for dosed circuit
techniques). CAUTION: Check valves in some machines make it imperative to measure flow in step (3) when pressure just stops rising. (4) Squeeze
bag to pressure of about 50 cm H20 and verify that system is tight

143
Q

Which part of the anesthesia machine
is the most vulnerable because the components
in this area are most subject to
breakage and leaks?

A

The low-pressure circuit is the most vulnerable part of the anesthesia machine because the components located within this area are the ones most subject to breakage and leaks.

144
Q

Where is positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) applied in the anesthesia circuit?

A

A positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) valve must be placed in the expiratory side of the breathing system.

145
Q

What does the ASTM standard require

of disposable PEEP valves?

A

The ASTM standard requires that a PEEP valve be marked with an arrow
indicating proper direction of gas flow or the words inlet and outlet or both.

146
Q

Define “anesthesia workstation~ What governing body defines the anesthesia workstation?

A

The anesthesia workstation, as defined by the ASTM International (ASTM) originally known as the American Society for Testing and Materials), is a system for administering anesthetics to patients consisting of the anesthesia gas supply device (the anesthesia machine). the anesthesia ventilator, monitoring devices, and protection devices.

147
Q

The anesthesia machine proper contains what two components?

A

The two basic components of the anesthesia machine proper are (I) the pressure-regulating components, and (2) the gas-mixing components.

148
Q

In order to comply with ASTM FI850 an anesthesia workstation must have 13 required components: list 7 of these breath required components

A

In order to comply with ASTM Fl850 standards, the anesthesia workstation must have: ( l) battery backup for 30 minutes; (2) alarms, grouped into high, medium, and low priority; (3) various required monitors; (4) breathing circuit pressure limited to 125 cm water ( 12.S kPa); (S) a nondetachable electrical supply cord or a cord resistant to detachment; (6) cylinder supplies; and, (7) flowmeters

149
Q

In order to comply with ASTM Fl850 an

anesthesia workstation must have 13 required components: list the OTHER 6 of these required components

A

(I) An oxygen flush, capable of 35 to 75 L/min flow that does not proceed through any vaporizers; (2) vaporizers; (3) only one common gas outlet at 22-mm outer diameter, 15-mm inner diameter, which is designed to prevent accidental disconnection; (4) pipeline gas supply; (5) a
checklist must be provided (it may be electronic or performed manually by the user); and (6) a digital interface. (

150
Q

Pipeline gas supply to the anesthesia workstation must meet what five criteria?

A

Pipeline gas supply to the anesthesia workstation must have (or be): (I) a pipeline pressure gauge; (2) inlets for at least oxygen and nitrous oxide; (3)protected by a diameter index safety system (DISS); (4) an inline filter; and,
(5) a check valve. [

151
Q
List seven (7) criteria for anesthesia maworkstation
cylinder supplies.
A

Seven criteria for anesthesia workstation cylinder supplies are: ( l} the machine must have at least one oxygen cylinder attached; (2) the hanger yoke must be pin indexed; (3) the hanger yoke must have a damping device that resists leaks; (4) the hanger yoke must contain a filter; (5) the hanger yoke must have a check valve to prevent transfilling; (6} the hanger yoke must have a cylinder pressure gauge; and, (7) there must be cylinder pressure
regulators.

152
Q

List seven features of anesthesia workstation flowmeters

A

Seven required features of anesthesia workstation flowmeters are: (I) there must be a single control for each gas; (2) each flow control must be next to a flow indicator; (3) the oxygen flow control knob must be uniquely
shaped; (4) valve stops are required such that excessive rotation will not damage the flow meter; (5) the oxygen flowmeter is to the right side of the flowmeter bank; (6) oxygen enters the common manifold downstream
of other gases; and, (7) an auxiliary oxygen flowmeter is strongly recommended.

153
Q

Oxygen has 5 tasks in the anesthesia gas machine: what are these 5 tasks?

A

The five tasks of oxygen in the anesthesia gas machine are: ( 1) it proceeds to the fresh gas flowmeter; (2) powers the oxygen flush, (3) activates fail-safe mechanisms; (4) activates oxygen low-pressure alarms; and, (5} compresses the bellows of mechanical ventilators

154
Q

What are the components of the low

pressure system of the anesthesia machine?

A

Components found in the low pressure system include: ( l) flowmeter tubes, (2)vaporizers, (3) check valves, and (4) the common gas outlet.

155
Q

Where and how is the negative-pressure
leak test performed on the anesthesia
machine during check-out?

A

To perform a negative-pressure leak test, a suction bulb is attached to the common fresh gas outlet and squeezed repeatedly until the bulb is fully collapsed. The anesthesia machine is leak-free is the bulb remains collapsed
for at least 10 seconds.

156
Q

When the 02 flush button is pushed,

what is the liter flow rate?

A

35-75 liters/min.

157
Q

How often should a complete test of all

anesthesia apparatus be performed?

A

At least each day before the first case or if anesthesia providers change during the day.

158
Q

What risk is associated with a dysfunctional

flush valve?

A

A damaged or defective flush valve can stick in the fully open position causing barotrauma

159
Q
You are scheduled to provide anesthesia
to a patient with a known susceptibility
to malignant hyperthermia. How will
you prepare the gas machine in anticipation
of this case?
A

The concern in this situation is the presence of trace amounts of volatile agents in the rubber and plastic components of the gas machine and in the ventilator
and CO2 absorber. The following 3 actions should be taken to prepare the gas machine for the patient with a known susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia.
( l) The gas machine should be thoroughly flushed with 100% oxygen for at least 10 minutes to remove residual traces of volatile agents from rubber and plastic components in the machine. (2) The breathing circuits and C02 canister should be replaced. (3) Vaporizers should be drained, inactivated, or removed

160
Q

Does the descending bellows descend during the inspiratory or expiratory phase?

A

The descending bellows (hanging bellows) descends during the expiratory phase.

161
Q

Why is the descending bellows a potential

disadvantage if a disconnect occurs?

A

If a disconnect happens, the descending bellows will continue its upward and downward movement. The drive gas pushes the bellows upward during the inspiratory phase. During the expiratory phase, room air is entrained
into the breathing system at the site of disconnect because gravity acts on the weighted bellows

162
Q

Which bellows is safer when there is a
disconnect, the ascending or descending?
Explain.

A

The ascending bellows is safer. The ascending bellows will not rise if disconnection occurs. The ascending bellows also permits easier detection of circuit leaks or disconnects and less chance of high airway pressures
from gas entering the breathing circuit through bellow lea

163
Q

Why does looking at the volume
returned on an ascending bellows not
reflect true tidal volume?

A

The respirometer measures exhaled gases. Tidal volume settings of the ascending bellows, as indicated on the outside of the plastic canister, differ from respirometer readings. This is due to compression of gases, expansion
of the breathing circuitry hoses during the mechanically ventilated inspiration, and the addition of humidifiers. Decreased lung compliance will also force gases that were not used by the patient through the respirometer

164
Q

The gas that enters the bellows during

expiration has what composition?

A

During the expiration phase of the ventilatory cycle, exhaled gases from the
patient and f resh anesthetic gases flow into the bellows. (

165
Q

What gas is present outside of the bellows? What gases are present within the bellows?

A

Pressurized oxygen from the ventilator power outlet is found between the inside wall of the enclosure and the outside wall of the bellows. The inside of the bellows, which is an extension of the anesthesia breathing circuit, is
filled with all anesthetic gases. This arrangement holds for both the ascending and descending bellows

166
Q

What is the goal of humidifying the

inspired gases?

A

The goal is to improve mobilization of secretions by increasing water content (reducing airway drying} and decreasing viscosity.

167
Q

When is a nasopharyngeal airway preferable

to an oropharyngeal airway?

A

A nasopharyngeal airway (nasal airway, nasal trumpet) is better tolerated than an oral airway if the patient has intact airway reflexes. A nasal airway is preferable if the patient’s teeth are loose or in poor condition, if there is trauma or pathology of the oral cavity and can be used when the mouth cannot be opened

168
Q

List four { 4) contraindications to using a

nasopharyngeal airway.

A

Contraindications to a nasopharyngeal airway include (1) anticoagulation,
(2) basilar skull fracture, (3) pathology, sepsis, or deformity of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx, and (4) a history of nosebleeds requiring medical treatment.

169
Q

How do you estimate the correct length

for a nasopharyngeal airway?

A

The length of a nasal airway can be estimated as the distance from the naresto the meatus (opening) of the ear. The length should be 2-4 cm longer than a corresponding oral airway.

170
Q
What is the purpose of an oral airway?
List five (5) uses for an oral airway.
A

Any airway creates an artificial, patent passage to the hypopharynx. Oral airways are used to (l) prevent the patient from biting an oral tracheal tube, (2) protect the patient from biting the tongue, (3) facilitate oropharyngeal
suctioning, (4) obtain a better mask lit, and (5) provide a pathway for inserting devices into the esophagus or pharynx

171
Q

When is an oral airway indicated? Contraindicated?

A

An oral airway is indicated for an obstructed upper airway in an unconscious patient and when there is need for a bite block in an unconscious patient. An oral airway is contraindicated in the awake or lightly anesthetized
patient-the patient may cough or develop laryngospasm during airway insertion iflaryngeal reflexes are intact

172
Q

What is the purpose of the laryngoscope

flange?

A

The flange projects off the left side of the laryngoscope and serves to sweep the tongue out of the way and to guide instrumentations along the laryngoscope
blade

173
Q

What is a lighted intubation stylet and

when is it useful?

A

A lighted intubation stylet (lightwand, {flexible} lighted stylet, Trachlight-, illuminating or lighted intubating or intubation stylet) uses transillumination of the soft tissues in the anterior neck to guide the tip of the tracheal tube into the trachea or to determine the position of the tracheal tube or other airway device. During direct laryngoscopy, the lighted stylet can be used to improve
the view in the hypopharynx. The lighted stylet is especially useful in situations where a liberscope is unavailable or endoscopy is difficult to perform (e.g.. •
when an airway is obscured by blood or secretions or when a patient’s head cannot be flexed or extended).

174
Q

Into what shape should a lighted intubation stylet (“lightwand”) be molded?What approximate angle is the bend of this shape

A

For oral intubation, an anterior T or “hockey stick” bend of approximately 75- to 90-degrees just proximal to the cuff is recommended. Sandberg recommends bending a Trachlight to an “I.:’ shape. Care should be taken not to bend the stylet at the point at which the bulb meets the shaft. NB; the range of the bend for adult oral intubation is 75- to 120-degrees in the texts.

175
Q

What is the optimal shape of the lighted stylet for nasal intubation?

A

For nasal intubation, the shape of the lighted intubation stylet should be
prepared against the patient profile.

176
Q

To what angle should a Trachlight (lightwand, lighted intubation stylet) be bent for oro-tracheal or nasotracheal
intubation in the pediatric patient?

A

To better suit and match pediatric anatomy, the Trachlight (lightwand} should be bent to 60 to 80 degrees instead of the more typical 90 degrees (“hockey stick”). Note: the range of the bend for adult oral intubation is 75 to 120 degrees in the texts.

177
Q

List potential uses for an airway exchange

catheter.

A

An airway exchange catheter (guiding catheter, director, stylet catheter, catheter guide, elastic stylet, tracheal tube replacement obturator, tube changer or exchanger, ventilation or exchange bougie, jet-style catheter, jet stylet, intu· bation catheter, intubating introducer) can be used for a number of purposes including: tracheal tube or supraglottic device exchange, replacing and existing
tube, changing a tracheal tube from oral to nasal, intubation, extubation, to provide ventilation during microlaryngeal surgery, to provide a useful guide
to the trachea during flexible endoscopy. and facilitating passage of a tracheal tube over a fiberscope.

178
Q

What features are advantageous for an
airway exchange catheter? What do
these features afford during extubation?

A

Airway exchange catheters have a central lumen, and rounded, atraumatic ends. The catheters are graduated from the distal end. The proximal end is fitted with either a 15-mm or a Luer-lock Rapi-Fit adapter, which can be
quickly removed and replaced for ETT removal or exchange. With these adapters an oxygen source can be used to provide insufflated or jet-ventilated oxygen if the patient fails extubation and/or if reintubation over the catheter fails

179
Q

How do you confirm correct placement

and positioning of an esophageal Combitube?

A

Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds and a normal end-tidal C02 waveform ( capnography) indicate successful placement of the Combitube.

180
Q
List nine (9) complications of an airway
exchange catheter {AEC, tube exchanger).
A

Nine complications of an airway exchange catheter are: (l) airway perforation, risk of is related to depth of insertion, (2) jet ventilation through an AEC may lead to barotrauma, (3) the tracheal tube may fail to pass over the AEC, (4) part of the AEC may break off and be aspirated, (5) the exchange catheter may be inadvertently removed, ( 6) the replacement tracheal tube may not end up in the trachea, (7) the channel in the AEC may become occluded by secretions, incorrectly implying placement in the esophagus,
(8) the AEC may exit through the side hole in the tracheal tube, and (9) thecatheter may shear off

181
Q

The Esophageal-Tracheal Combitube
(ETC) is not intended for long-term
airway management; why?

A

The Esophageal· Tracheal Combitube (ETC) is not intended for long-term airway management and should be removed within a few hours to decrease the risk of ischemia of the tongue and subsequent edema formation.

182
Q

What is an Eschmann introducer?

A

The Eschmann introducer is a 60-cm, sty/et-like device that has a 5-mm external diameter and a 35-degree bend 2.5 cm from the end that is inserted into the trachea. Its structure is designed to provide a combination •
of stiffness and flexibility.

183
Q

Inspiratory pressure should be limited to what value when providing positive-pressure ventilation by a manual resuscitator (bag-valve mask, for example?

A

When providing positive-pressure ventilation with a manual resuscitator, such as a bag-valve mask, it is imperative to limit the positive pressure to 25 cm H20 to avoid inflating the stomach, which increases the risk of regurgitation

184
Q

Define transtracheal jet ventilation.

A

Transtracheal jet ventilation is a technique used to provide oxygenation
from a high-pressure delivery system. More specifically, transtracheal jet
ventilation is the injection of high-velocity gas into the airway through a
narrow cannula, without a seal

185
Q

What oxygen sources and delivery pressures are acceptable for transtracheal jet ventilation?

A

If a high-pressure system is available forexample, a metered and adjustable oxygen source with a hand-controlled valve and a Luer-lock connector 15 to 30 psi of oxygen (central hospital supply or regulated cylinder) can be delivered directly through the catheter, with insutllations of l to l.5 seconds at a rate of 12 insufflations per minute. If a 16-gauge catheter has been placed, this system will deliver a tidal volume of 400 to 700 mL. At a delivered pressure of 5O psi, a 16-guage delivers 5OO mL of oxygen per second. In most instances, 25 psi is a
sufficient inspiratory pressure (Nagelhout).

186
Q

In most instances, What is a sufficient inspiratory pressure

A

25 psi

187
Q

What oxygen sources and pressures are not adequate for transtracheal jet ventilation?>

A

Low-pressure systems cannot provide enough flow to expand the chest adequately for oxygenation and ventilation

188
Q

What sign is the hallmark oflaryngotracheal damage?

A

Stridor .

189
Q

During transtracheal jet ventilation, catheter size directly influences the volume of gas delivered. Given a delivery pressure of 50 psi, state the delivery rate (in ml/second) for 20-, 16·, and 14-gauge catheters.

A

During transtracheal jet ventilation at a delivered pressure of SO psi, a 20-gauge catheter delivers approximately 400 mL of oxygen per second, a 16-gauge catheter delivers SOO mL of oxygen per second, and a 14-gauge catheter delivers 1600 mL of oxygen per second.

190
Q

List 3 complications of transtracheal jet

ventilation.

A

Three complications associated with transtracheal jet ventilation are: (1) barotrauma; (2) tissue emphysema; and, (3) exhalation difficulties

191
Q

How is sterilization differentiated from

disinfection?

A

Disinfection is a process capable of destroying most microorganisms but, as ordinarily used, not bacterial spores. Sterilization is a process capable of removing or destroying all viable forms of microbial life, including bacterial spores, to an acceptable sterility assurance level.

192
Q

The Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention (CDC) has classified three (3)
levels of disinfection: name and describe
the three levels of disinfection as categorized
by the CDC.

A

The three levels of disinfection, as adopted by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) are as follows. (I) High-level Disinfection, Intermeidate level disinfection and Low level disinfection.

193
Q

What is high level of disinfection?

A

A procedure that kills all organisms with the exception of bacterial spores and certain species, such as the Creutzfeldt-Jakob prion. Most high-level disinfectants can produce sterilization with sufficient contact time.

194
Q

What is Intermediate level of disinfection?

A

procedure that kills vegetative bacteria, including acid-fast Mycobacterium tuberculosis, most fungi, and viruses but not bacterial spores.

195
Q

What is a Low-level Disinfection?

A

A procedure that kills most vegetative bacteria (but not M. tuberculosis), some fungi, and viruses but no spores.

196
Q

Describe Pasteurization.

A

Pasteurization is a high-level disinfection process in which the equipment is immersed in water at an elevated temperature (but below 100 degrees C) for a
specified time. A typical sequence is 30 minutes at a temperature of 70 °C.

197
Q

What is the minimum criteria for STEAM sterilization

A

The minimum time for sterilization by steam at 121 °C is 15 minutes.

198
Q

Describe chemical disinfection/sterilization
and then list seven (7) chemical
disinfectants.

A

Chemical (cold) disinfection / sterilization involves immersing an item in a solution that contains a disinfectant. This method is especially useful for
heat-sensitive equipment. It can be accomplished by automated equipment, which typically provides a cycle of cleaning, rinsing, disinfection, rinsing, and sometimes drying.

199
Q

Seven common chemical disinfectants are:

A

(1) quaternary ammonium compounds
(2) alcohols, (3) glutaraldehydes (Cidex•, Cetykide•,
(4) hydrogen peroxide·based solutions, (
5) formaldehyde andother aldehydes
(6) phenolic compounds, and
(7) chlorine (hypochlorite,
bleach) .

200
Q

Of the 7 chemical disinfectants listed

above, which ones will destroy spores

A

Only glutaraldehyde (Cidex) and hydrogen peroxide-based solutions will destroy spores.