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SRNA4TopicsAnesthesia > MONITORING: RESP Side notes > Flashcards

MONITORING: RESP Side notes Flashcards

1
Q

Capnographs that may cause radiant heat

A

Mainstream

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2
Q

Oxygenated absorb light at

A

660nm

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3
Q

Deoxygenated absorb light at

A

960 nm

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4
Q

Mandatory respiratory monitors during GA

A 
Pulse oximeter
Capnography
Inspired O2 analyzer
Disconnect alarm 
(also direct visualization)
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5
Q

Beta angle is between phases III and

A

0 is usually about 90 degrees , may used to assess rebreathing.

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6
Q

Inspiratory valve failure indication of Co2

A

Widening of the B angle with an elevation of both phases 0/ I and III

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7
Q

An early sign of MH

A

Rapidly rising end-tidal CO2, carbon dioxide, if unresponsive to hyperventilation .

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8
Q

Oxygenation is most easily measured by

A

pulse oximetry.

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9
Q

Things that my results in falsely low saturation reading

A

Methylene blue
Indocyanine green
Indigo carmine
Isolsulfan blue.

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10
Q

Best location for esophageal probe is

A

Lower third of the esophagus

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11
Q

Correlates well with core temperature

A

Tympanic membrane.

Esophageal probe.

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12
Q

Which phase of the capnography correlates with alveolar equillibrium (or alveolar gas plateau)?

A

End of phase III.

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13
Q

During GA, ETCO2/PACO2 gradient is

A

5-10 mmHg

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14
Q

Exhausted CO2/ incompetent expiratory valve will show on the monitor as

A

Tracing not going back to baseline

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15
Q

Slow rate of rise in CO2 waveform indicates

A

COPD

Obstructed ETT

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16
Q

If inspired CO2 does not return to zero, 2 possible caues.

A

Incompetent expiratory valve in ventilator

Exhausted Co2 absorbent.

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17
Q

What determines the extent of intrapleural pressure 2nd to PEEP?

A

Pulmonary compliance

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18
Q

PPV settings (CPAP and PEEP)

A

increase intrathoracic pressure . Pulmonary compliance determines the extent of this pressure. Small changes in pressure cause large change in lung volume

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19
Q

The maximum setting of CPAP expiratory pressure without the use of artificial airway is

A

15 cm H2O

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20
Q

Expiratory pressure > 15cm H2) require

A

artificial airway du to the risk of gastric regurgitation and aspiration.

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21
Q

The major effect of PEEP on the lungs is to

A

Increased FRC

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22
Q

The goal of PEEP is to

A

Improve the patient’s arterial oxygenation

23
Q

Employing PEEP elevated the

A

FRC and TV to a value greater than the closing capacity to result in improved compliance and a degree of resolution of ventilation /perfusion mismatch and the degree of pulmonary shunting.

24
Q

The constant pressure from PEEP or CPAP act to

A

Stabilize and maintain expansion of the alveoli

25
Q

When excess PEEP is added (greater than 20cm H2O) Which negative effects occur

A

Pneumomediastinum
Subcutaenous emphysema
Pneumoretroperitoneum
Pneumopericardium

26
Q

Excessive PEEP and WOB

A

Increased by reducing lung compliance and increasing dead-space ventilation

27
Q

Ventilatory component that increase the risk of barotrauma

A

Young age
Vent setting with high RR , there is stacking of breaths
Increase TV 10-15ml/kg

28
Q

Which of the following is the highest circuit pressure generated during an INSPIRATORY cycle?

A

PEAK INSPIRATORY PRESSURE (PIP)

29
Q

PIP is an indication of

A

Dynamic compliance of the lungs

30
Q

Is there any contraindications to analyzing anesthetic gases during any procedure requiring inhalational anesthesia?

A

NO

31
Q

Gases measured by standard OR gas analyzers include

A

Oxygen
Nitrogen
Anesthetic agent

32
Q

Which oxygen analyzer is self -calibrating?

A

Paramagnetic

33
Q

Which statement is true regarding pulse oximetry?

(A) Pulse oximetry artifact is due to excessive

A

ambient light, motion, and methylene ,blue dye.

34
Q

In the normal capnograph, what does Phase III indicate?

A

Alveolar gas plateau

35
Q

What causes an increased end-tidal carbon dioxide?

A

CNS depression

36
Q

Where is the best location to monitor blood pressure
or patients undergoing right shoulder arthroscopy in
the beach chair position?

A

LUE

37
Q

Which oxygen analyzer works by using the oxygen

molecules’ unique attraction into magnetic fields?

A

Paramagnetic oxygen sensor

38
Q

Which o the following minimizes Phase I temperature

loss?

A

Forced air warming

39
Q

What is the maximum allowable current leakage in

the operating room?

A

10 MicroAm

40
Q

What monitor alarms when a high current ow to the

ground exists?

A

Line isolation monitor

41
Q

What humidity levels are appropriate or the operating

room?

A

50-55%

42
Q

During in usion o multiple units o packed red
blood cells, what temperature is needed to avoid
hypothermia?

A

(A) 37°C

43
Q

Which principle included in radiation safety?

A

(A) Time
(B) Distance
(C) Shielding

44
Q

What nerve injury may result rom prolonged pressure

involving bag mask ventilation?

A

(A)Trigeminal and Facial nerves

45
Q

What does an “a” wave represent in a CVP tracing?

A

Atrial contraction

46
Q

When comparing sites or placement o a central
venous catheter, which site carries the greatest risk or
pneumothorax?

A

Subclavian vein

47
Q

What results when stimulating the ulnar nerve?

A

Contraction of the adductor pollicis

48
Q

Rationale: Recovery rom neuromuscular blockade

is observed in the

A

orbicularis oculi prior to the adductor

pollicis when using peripheral nerve stimulation.

49
Q

Range: Mean right atrial pressure

A

(1-10);

50
Q

Mean pulmonary artery pressure

A

(10-20);

51
Q

Pulmonary artery occlusive pressure range

A

5-15

52
Q

When monitoring central venous pressure (CVP), what

causes the loss o “a” waves?

A

Atrial fibrillation

53
Q

Following intubation you are unable to palpate the
tracheal tube cu in the sternal notch. T e breathing
bag compliance is decreased. Breath sounds are unilateral. Where is the endotracheal tube most likely
positioned?

A

Bronchus

54
Q

What is your greatest concern when in ating the pulmonary artery balloon?

A

Pulmonary artery rupture

SRNA4TopicsAnesthesia (47 decks)

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