Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SRNA4TopicsAnesthesia > EXAM #3 OPIOIDS REVIEW > Flashcards

EXAM #3 OPIOIDS REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

Pain is transmitted via a______That originates where?

A

three-neuron system that originates

at the periphery and ends at the cerebral cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

At periphery tissues, noxious stimuli are mainly received and transmitted by

A

A beta, A delta, and C fiber neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

These first-order neurons synapse with

A

second-order neurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Second-order neurons

travel up the spinal cord via the

A

dorsal column and spinothalamic tract and synapse with third-order neurons at the thalamus, which then transmit signals to the cerebral cortex, the site of pain perception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Opioids exert their effects at

A

receptors at all three levels of this system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The major receptors activated by opioids are

A

mu, delta, and kappa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Opioids receptors are

A

These are G-coupled receptors, which carry the

mediator-induced signal in conjunction with a second messenger such as cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Opioids receptors are

A

G-coupled receptors, which carry the mediator-induced signal in conjunction with a second messenger such as cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are opioids receptors located? They are located at the

A

periphery, the dorsal horn of the spinal

cord, and finally the brainstem, thalamus, and cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At the opioid receptor locations, the three major mechanisms of action are:

A
  1. Inhibition of presynaptic Ca2+ influx, which depolarizes the cell and inhibits the release of neurotransmitters at the synaptic cleft.
  2. Increasing postsynaptic K+ efflux, which depolarizes and inhibits cellular signal transmission.
  3. Activation of the descending inhibitory pain pathway
    via inhibition of GABAergic receptors found in the
    brainstem.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Opioid analgesia is primarily achieved at the brain, spinal

cord, and peripheral tissues via

A

mu1 and mu2 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the spinal cord, opioids target

A

mu2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Supraspinal sites are

A

periaqueductal gray matter
locus coeruleus
nucleus raphe mmagnus) effects are achieved at mu1 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Supraspinal effects are achieved at

A

Mu 1 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Morphine on respiratory system

A

Morphine and other mu1 agonists decrease CO2 responsivity in the medullary respiratory center.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Morphine on ventilatory response

A

There is a right shift and decrease in the slope of the ventilatory response to CO2 curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Remifentanil is most notably known for its short

A

context-sensitive half-life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Morphine : It is primarily metabolized by

A

hepatic phase II conjugation (3- glucuronidation) to form morphine-3-glucoronide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Methadone protein binding and metabolism

A

Methadone is 90% protein bound and

undergoes N-demethylation in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fentanyl metabolism and % excretion

A

in the liver by N-dealkylation to norfentanyl and only 6% is excreted unchanged by the kidneys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does meperidine reduces shivering?

A

Through kappa-opioid receptors,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Whereas all opioids and propofol in a dose-dependent manner,

A

suppress motor evoked potentials (MEPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Remifentanil and MEPs

A

suppresses MEPs to a lesser extent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The partial agonists and mixed agonist–antagonists are have clinical effects at mu and kappa receptors

A

nalbuphine, butorphanol, and buprenorphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The partial agonists and mixed agonist–antagonists are have clinical effects at what receptors?

A

mu and kappa receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What happens with an agonists and a partial antagonists?

A

When combined with low doses of a full agonist compound, the effects of the partial agonist are additive up to the maximum, or “ceiling” effect of the partial agonist. With increasing doses of a full agonist, the partial
agonist will behave as an antagonist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Can cause hypotension from histamine release, 2 opioids

A

morphine and meperidine,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Methadone can cause

A

Prolonged QT syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Urinary system and opioids

A

Inhibition of urethral sphincter relaxation causes urinary retention, and can be seen after systemic and neuraxial morphine
administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

High-dose morphine or fentanyl can

A

reduce abdominal muscle and thoracic wall compliance via supraspinal mu receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Hydromorphone vs morphine

A

High-dose morphine or fentanyl can reduce abdominal muscle and thoracic wall compliance via supraspinal mu receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hydromorphone active metabolites are

A

dihydromorphine and dihydroisomorphine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The inactive metabolite of hydromorphone :

A

hydromorphone-3-glucuronide can accumulate in renal failure patients and cause neuroexcitation and cognitive impairment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Opioids site of action ; nociceptive pain

A

the dorsal horn (layer 4 and 5 of the substantia gelatinosa) of the spinal cord, which inhibits the transmission of nociceptive information;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Meperidine active metabolites is_______: What can it cause

A

Normeperidine; Accumulation such as seen with renal patients can lead to seizures./

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does opioids causes nausea and vomiting?

A

Opioids stimulate the chemoreceptor trigger zone located in the area postrema of the brain stem, which can result in nausea and vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Postoperative shivering can be attenuated with

A

meperidine, which may

act through a k-receptor mechanism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Dose of meperidine for shivering?

A

Only 12.5 to 25 mg of meperidine, administered intravenously as a slow push,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Dependence refers to the presence of

A

withdrawal symptoms if a drug is withheld and can be either physical or psychological.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Psychological dependence refers to

A

craving for a drug and is synonymous

with addiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Tolerance is the need to

A

increase the dose of an opioid over time to maintain the desired analgesic effect, reflecting the desensitization of the antinociceptive pathways to opiates and the upregulation of opioid binding receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The apnea threshold, defined as the highest Paco2 without ventilatory effort with opiods

A

increased with the use of opioids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Opioid- receptor activation inhibits the

A

presynaptic release and postsynaptic

response to excitatory neurotransmitters (glutamate, acetylcholine, and substance P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Opioid administration decreases minute ventilation by

A

decreasing the respiratory rate (as opposed to decreasing the tidal volume).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

OPIOIDS administration muscle rigidity can be prevented by

A

decreasing the rate of opioid administration or by concomitantly administering a neuromuscular blocking agent and controlling ventilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The fentanyl family is known to produce

A

chest wall rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which analgesic or labor is not associated with significant respiratory depression affecting the mother or fetus?
(A) Mor

A

Nalbuphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Your patient has a history of asthma. Which opioid

will you avoid?

A

(B) Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which narcotic will you avoid in patients taking MAO inhibitors?

A

Meperidine ( Demerol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Those medications lead to metabolites accumulate in patients with renal disease and increase the likelihood o respiratory depression and/or seizures.

A

Meperidine and Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which common anesthetic medications should be
avoided during the induction of a patient diagnosed
with acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Barbiturates and etomidate should be

avoided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which o the ollowing has mainly analgesic and anytipyretic properties?

A

A) Acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which opioid causes the greatest respiration depression in newborns?

A

Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Rank opioids from most to least lipid-soluble.

A 
Sufentanil
Fentanyl 
Alfentanil
Meperidine 
Remifentanil 
Morphine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Most of the clinically used opioids arerelatively selective for what receptor: mu, kappa or delta?

A

Mu receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Contrast spinal and supraspinal analgesia.

A

With spinal analgesia perception of pain is decreased. With supraspinal analgesia the patient’s response to pain is altered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

On what receptors do spinal opioids work to produce spinal analgesia?

A

mu-1, mu-2, kappa, and delta receptors of the spinal cord and brain to produce spinal anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Spinal anesthesia is mediated primarily by

A

mu-2 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

On what receptors do intravenous opioids work to produce supraspinal analgesia?

A

Opioids work on mu-1, kappa, and delta receptors to produce supraspinal analgesia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Stimulation of what opioid receptor does not produce supraspinal analgesia?

A

Supraspinal analgesia is mediated primarily by mu -1

receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In addition to spinal and supraspinal analgesia, stimulation of mu-1 receptors elicits what six responses? Does stimulation of mu-1 receptors have high or low
abuse potential?

A

Stimulation of mu-1 receptors produces:

(l) euphoria
(2) miosis
(3) bradycardia
(4) hypothermia
(5) urinary retention and
(6) pruritus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which receptors have low abuse potential?

A

Mu-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Supraspinal analgesia is mediated primarily by

A

mu -1 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

In addition to spinal analgesia, stimulation

of mu-2 receptors elicits what three responses?

A

Stimulation of mu-2 receptors produces: (1) depression of ventilation, (2) marked constipation, and (3) physical dependence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Does stimulation of mu-2 receptors have high or low abuse potential?

A

Mu-2 receptors have high abuse potential because of the physical dependence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What opioid receptor promotes respiratory

depression?

A

Mu-2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

At what anatomic locations do opioids work to produce spinal analgesia?

A

Opioids work in the substantia gelatinosa of the spinal cord and at several supraspinal sites including the periaqueductal and periventricular gray matter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

In what two ways do epidural and intrathecal

opioids produce spinal analgesia?

A

Opioids administered epidurally or intrathecally diffuse into the substantia gelatinosa and: (I) combine with presynaptic opioid receptors and inhibit the release of substance P, and (2) combine with postsynaptic opioid receptors and decrease activity in neurons ascending in the lateral spinothalamic tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

An important target for opioids in the brainstem is the

A

periventricular and periaqueductal gray matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Does electrical stimulation of the periventricular/periaqueductal gray produce supraspinal or spinal analgesia?

A

Yes; “

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Stimulation of midbrain periaqueductal gray in humans produces _____why?

A

widespread analgesia:’ This analgesia occurs because the periventricular/ periaqueductal gray sends impulses via the dorsolateral tract down to the spinal cord to inhibit transmission of pain impulses through the
substantia gelatinosa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What spinal cord tract modulates pain? Explain.

A

The descending dorsolateral funiculus modulates pain. Action potentials in this tract activate the enkephalin-containing neurons of the substantia gelatinosa, which diminish the transmission of pain impulses through the
spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What brainstem areas send action potentials to the substantia gelatinosa via the dorsolateral funiculus?

A

The periaqueductal gray and the periventricular gray.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Spinal cord gray matter was divided by Rexed into how many laminae?

A

The gray matter of the spinal cord was divided by Rexed into IO lamina (I- X).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Opioids work in which of these lamina?What is

another name for this lamina?

A

. Lamina II is also known as the substantia gelatinosa. Note: Some sources indicate the substantia gelatinosa is formed by Rexed’s lamina II and III.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are seven responses to mu -1

receptor stimulation?

A

(I) Supraspinal analgesia

2) urinary retention
(3) miosis
(4) decreased heart rate
(5) hypothermia
(6) pruritus
(7) euphoria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which opioid can block voltage-dependent

sodium channels, in other words, which opioid has local anesthetic properties?

A

Meperidine is an agonist of both μ- and K-receptor and has been shown to block voltage-dependent sodium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Mediate opioid-induced bradycardia.

A

Mu receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which opioid receptor(s) mediate bradycardia?

A

mu receptors mediate opioid-induced bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Name the opioid that depresses myocardial contractility and increases heart rate.

A

Meperidine (Demerol) has a significant negative inotropic effect (it decreases myocardial contractility) and a positive chronotropic effect (it increases heart rate).

81
Q

Regarding tricyclic antidepressants specifically meperidine, they interact with

A

meperidine to accentuate

meperidine’s respiratory depressant actions.

82
Q

What seven adverse signs and symptoms might develop if a patient on an MAO inhibitor receives meperidine?

A 
Meperidine (Demerol), but not synthetic opioids (e.g., fentanyl}, interacts with MAO inhibitors such that the patient may exhibit the following: 
( l)hyperpyrexia
(2) hypertension
(3) hypotension
(4) ventilatory depression,
(5) skeletal muscle rigidity
(6) seizures
{7} coma
83
Q

How do the opioids (except meperidine) produce bradycardia?

A

With the exception of meperidine, opioids stimulate the vagal nucleus in the medulla, which increases vagal impulses to the heart.

84
Q

What affect do opioids have on the blood C02 dissociation curve?

A

If respiratory depression occurs, Pa02 decreases, and the C02 curve shifts.

85
Q

List four ventilatory effects of opioids.

A

decrease breathing rate
decrease minute ventilation
decrease ventilatory response to carbon dioxide due to
brainstem depression, and
increase arterial carbon dioxide tension.

86
Q

What is the major clinical implication of the opioid-induced decrease in gastrointestinal tone and motility?

A

The decreased gastrointestinal tone and motility delays gastric emptying and increases the risk of aspiration

87
Q

What are the endocrine effects of opioids?

A

High dose opioids reduce or block the metabolic stress response to surgery.

88
Q

Opioids also stimulate the release of what hormones?

A

prolactin and growth hormone and depress the release of antidiuretic hormone.

89
Q

Does opioid-induced spasm of the sphincter of Oddi cause pain?

A

Yes, and it resembles the pain of angina pectoris.

90
Q

What seven agents may relieve suspected spasms of the sphincter of Oddi?

A

Treatment of suspected spasm of the sphincter of Oddi (choledochoduodenalsphincter) is with glucagon ( 12 mg IV,

91
Q

Do all opioids have the potential of producing rigidity of skeletal muscles, especially of the chest and abdomen?

A

yes

92
Q

Under what conditions do opioids cause

truncal rigidity?

A

Opioids induce rigidity by large dose, rapid infusion, or concomitant use of nitrous oxide.

93
Q

Stimulation of what opioid receptors causes skeletal muscle rigidity: mu, or kappa, or delta?

A

Stimulation of mu receptors causes skeletal muscle rigidity.

94
Q

The incidence and severity of opioid-induced skeletal muscle rigidity may be increased by addition of what inhalational agent to the anesthetic?

A

Nitrous oxide.

95
Q

What are seven possible side-effects of opioid premedication?

A

(l) Respiratory depression
(2) nausea and vomiting
(3) orthostatic hypotension,
(4) delayed gastric emptying
(5) pruritus,
(6) sphincter ofOddi spasm, and
(7) histamine release by morphine and meperidine

96
Q

List four common side-effects associated with intrathecal (spinal) opioid administration, and state which of these is most common.

A

(a) pruritus (60%), (b) urinary retention (50%), (c)

nausea and vomiting {20-30%), and (4) respiratory depression (

97
Q

Is the most common side effect of intrathecal opioids.

A

Pruritus

98
Q

Which opioid should not be given with a neuraxial technique? Why?

A

Remifentanil should not be administered intrathecally or epidurally, as the safety of the buffering vehicle has not been determined. The buffering vehicle is glycine, which is an inhibitory neurotransmitter.

99
Q

How do opioids produce vomiting?

A

Opioids stimulate the chemoreceptor trigger zone (located on the floor of the third ventricle). When stimulated, the chemoreceptor trigger zone
activates the vomiting center, which is located nearby in the brain stem.

100
Q

Which opioid agonist has the smallest volume of distribution? What is the significance of this?

A

Alfentanil. Alfentanil is eliminated faster (has a shorter half-time of elimination) than all other opioids except remifentanil because of its small volume of distribution.

101
Q

Rank the following opioids relative to elimination half-life (from shortest to longest)

A

.Remifentanil (shortest) &laquo_space;alfentanil < morphine

S sufentanil < meperidine S fentanyl (longest). [

102
Q

Single dose of fentanyl does have a shorter duration of action than

A

dose a single dose or morphine. However, with continuous infusion fentanyl has a longer duration of action than does morphine, owing to fentanyl’s
longer elimination half-life.

103
Q

Except for remifentanil, how are opioids eliminated? What are the implications for a patient with liver disease receiving an opioid?

A

Except for remifentanil, opioids are eliminated by hepatic metabolism. In a patient with liver disease, the clearance of all opioids except remifentanil
will be delayed (slowed) and significant accumulation can occur

104
Q

What is the main concern with administration

of morphine sulfate in post-partum patients?

A

Respiratory depression

105
Q

Do opioids inhibit hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)?

A

NO

106
Q

Tramadol is an atypical opioid, specifically tramadol is a

A

synthetic 4-phenyl-piperidine analog of codeine with a dual mechanism of action.

107
Q

Tramadol weakly stimulates the

A

μ-opioid receptor and, to a lesser extent, the delta- and K-opioid receptors.

108
Q

Tramadol, like tricyclic antidepressants, produces analgesia by

A

activating spinal inhibition of pain by decreasing the

reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin.

109
Q

The opioid effects of tramadol are mediated by a

A

metabolite formed by 0-demethylation by CYP450 2D6,

in other words tramadol is a prod rug.

110
Q

What is the maximum daily dose of tramadol?

A

The maximum dose of tramadol is 400 mg/day to 500 mg/day.

111
Q

Tramadol may produce life-threatening serotonin-syndrome if given to patients taking what other agents?

A

Tramadol may cause life-threatening serotonin syndrome in patients taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO-I), serotonin/norepinephrine uptake inhibitors, selective serotonin uptake inhibitors (SSRI) and tricydic
antidepressants.

112
Q

List four advantages tramadol provides over other opioids. State three common side effects of tramadol.

A

Tramadol is advantageous to other opioids owing to its lack of respiratory depression, organ toxicity, and depression of GI motility as well as its low potential for abuse.

113
Q

The most common side effects of tramadol are

A

nausea, dizziness, and constipation

114
Q

Identify five opioid agonist/antagonists.

A

Pentazocine (Talwin), butorphanol (Stadol), buprenorphine (Buprenex), • nalbuphine (Nubain), and dezocine (Dalgan).

115
Q

Agonist-antagonist opioids work primarily Agonist-Antagonist opioids promote analgesia (the desired therapeutic

A

kappa receptors and also on delta receptors

116
Q

Name the 3 antagonists

A

Naloxone, the longer-acting naltrexone (Trexate), and nalmefene (Incysnists

117
Q

Context sensitive half time of opioids from more to least

FASR

A

Fentanyl
Alfentanil
Sufentanil
Remifentanil

118
Q

Clinical effects of fentanyl are terminated mainly by

A

Redistribution

119
Q

After 3 hour IV infusion , which opioid has the longest context sensitive half time?

A

Fentanyl

120
Q

Which opioids has the longest duration of action after epidural injection?

A

Morphine

121
Q

Which opioid is the most hydrophillic?

A

Morphine

122
Q

Activation of opioid receptors leads to activation of which intracellular transduction mechanism?

A

G proteins

123
Q

Which opioid must be converted from a prodrug to an active form?

A

Codeine

124
Q

A patient with significant hepatic and renal impairment, to avoid dosage adjustments due to this impairment, which opioid should used?

A

Remifentanil

125
Q

Opioid likely to produce the most hypotension?

A

Morphine

126
Q

Factors increasing the risk of opioid related respiratory depression?

A 
Medications
GA
Barbiturates
OSA
very young, very old
127
Q

Opioid causes biliary spasm

A

Morphine

128
Q

Behavior drug seeking that occurs despite negative social or physical outcomes

A

Addiction

129
Q

Combination of MAOI, and opiate receptor agonist can lead to

A

Serotonin syndrome

130
Q

OPIOID Best choice for patients taking a MAOI is

A

Morphine

131
Q

Opioid causing prolonged QT is

A

Methadone

132
Q

Which agent is administered to patients undergoing treatment for substance abuse to prevent the euphoric effect of opioids?

A

Naltrexone

133
Q

Which opioid agent is used mainly for the treatment of opioid abstinence syndromes, heroin addiction, and chronic pain relief?

A

Methadone

134
Q

Upon what receptors does nalbuphine act? (select two)

A

Mu

Kappa

135
Q

Nalbuphine is an opioid derivative that acts as a partial agonist at

A

mu, kappa, and delta receptors.

136
Q

Nalbuphine acts to antagonize

A

mu receptor activity, agonize delta receptors, and act as a partial agonist on kappa receptors.

137
Q

What is the most common side effect of neuraxial opioids?

A

Pruritus

138
Q

Neuraxial opioid pruritus is typically is concentrated on the

A

face, neck, and upper chest but can be distributed throughout the entire body.

139
Q

Pruritus in OB, It is most common in obstetric patients, presumably from the

A

combined pruritic effect of estrogen.

140
Q

Which opioid is most likely to cause histamine release?

A

Morphine

141
Q

Morphine-6 glucuronide is a more

A

powerful CNS depressant than morphine

142
Q

Morphine inactive metabolite

A

Morphine-3-glucuronide

143
Q

Which of the following statements regarding fentanyl are true? (select two)

A

Intravenous fentanyl has an onset of 2-5 minutes

It undergoes significant first-pass metabolism when administered orally

144
Q

Fentanyl IV onset

A

2-5 minutes

145
Q

Fentanyl peak effect of and

A

3-5 minutes

146
Q

Fentany: its effects are terminated principally by

A

redistribution away from the central nervous system.

147
Q

Which agent should not be used in a neuraxial block? why?

A

Remifentanil. Glycine

148
Q

Which opioid receptor produces diuresis when stimulated?

A

Kappa

149
Q

Which agent has the ability to reverse opioid induced respiratory depression, yet maintain analgesia?

A

Nalbuphine

150
Q

Effectively reverse opioid induced respiratory depression while maintaining analgesia.

A

Nalbuphine

151
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning the effect of opioids on the CO2 response curve?

A

They shift the curve to the right, which represents a decrease in responsiveness to CO2

152
Q

Compared to nalbuphine, butorphanol exhibits (select two)

A

greater analgesic qualities

greater sedative effects

153
Q

Butorphanol is similar to nalbuphine in that it is a kappa receptor agonist and a weak mu receptor antagonist, but it has greater

A

analgesic qualities than nalbuphine and produces more sedation when used clinically.

154
Q

A patient is experiencing pruritus from the administration of an opioid for surgical pain. What is the most appropriate treatment for the itching?

A

nalbuphine

155
Q

Select two opioids that cause the release of histamine from mast cells when administered in high doses.

A

Administration of high-doses of morphine, codeine, and meperidine can produce histamine release from mast cells.

156
Q

Which opioid agonist agent is the least potent?

A

Sufentanil>fentanyl=remifentanil>alfentanil

157
Q

Which organs are primarily responsible for excreting opioids and their metabolites?

A

Kidneys

158
Q

Lipophilic opioids penetrate faster and achieve higher concentrations in the spinal cord than hydrophilic opioids.

A

Fentanyl and sufentanil are more lipophilic.

159
Q

Select the two most lipophilic opioids.

A

Morphine and meperidine are more hydrophilic.

160
Q

The use of meperidine requires caution in patients with renal failure because of the potential for

A

prolonged respiratory depression

161
Q

What is the most common serious complication associated with opioid intrathecal and epidural administration?

A

Respiratory depression

162
Q

Which intravenous opioid has the fastest onset?

A

Alfentanil

163
Q

Alfentanil has a

A

small volume of distribution, and 90 percent of the drug is in the nonionized form at physiologic pH, leading to an increased amount of drug being available for binding.

164
Q

Following administration of morphine for pain, a patient complains of pruritus. Which agent would be the most appropriate to alleviate the itching?

A

Nalbuphine

165
Q

Which agent is a pure opioid antagonist that reverses opioid induced respiratory depression and analgesia?

A

Naloxone

166
Q

Which narcotic is rapidly metabolized by blood and tissue esterases?

A

Remifentanil

167
Q

In opioids with a high volume of distribution, the decrease in plasma concentration and termination of the analgesic effect is due primarily to .

A

redistribution of the drug away from the site of action

168
Q

In opioids with a small volume of distribution, the termination of the analgesic effect is primarily due to

A

clearance of the drug.

169
Q

Which opioid has the shortest half-life?

A

Remifentanil

170
Q

Which piperidine opioid contains a methyl ester side chain and is metabolized by nonspecific blood and tissue esterases?

A

Remifentanil

171
Q

The major metabolite of fentanyl is

A

the inactive compound norfentanyl

172
Q

Fentanyl is _______ times more potent than morphine

A

100

173
Q

It has a highly lipophilic structure which allows it to quickly cross the blood-brain barrier.

A

Fentanyl

174
Q

Which area is responsible for producing opioid-induced, postoperative nausea and vomiting?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone

175
Q

Which calcium channel blockers inhibit CYP450? (select two)

A

diltiazem and verapamil.

176
Q

Remifentanil exhibits a _____ volume of distribution than fentanyl due to a(n) _____ clearance.

A

smaller, increased

177
Q

Drugs such as fentanyl that are highly lipophilic and exhibit low protein-binding exhibit a

A

high volume of distribution

178
Q

What is the context-sensitive half-life of remifentanil?

A

2-4 minutes

179
Q

After intravenous administration of fentanyl, there is an initial rapid increase in plasma concentration of the drug followed by a rapid decline in plasma administration and a second, slower decrease in the plasma concentration. The second, slower decline is due primarily to

A

redistribution to adipose tissue

180
Q

Nausea and vomiting from opioid administration occurs due to direct stimulation of

A

the chemoreceptor trigger zone

181
Q

What is the drug of choice for use in cases of life-threatening, opioid-induced respiratory depression?

A

Narcan

182
Q

Remifentanil is metabolized by

A

nonspecific esterases

183
Q

After intravenous administration of fentanyl, there is an initial rapid increase in plasma concentration of the drug followed by a rapid decline in plasma administration. This initial, rapid decline is due primarily to

A

Redistribuation to highly perfused organs

184
Q

After intravenous administration of fentanyl, there is an initial rapid increase in plasma concentration of the drug followed by a rapid decline in plasma administration. This initial, rapid decline is due primarily to

A

Redistribution to highly perfused organs

185
Q

Endogenous opioids include the

A

enkephalins, dynorphins, and β-endorphins,

186
Q

β-endorphins and enkephalins have the greatest affinity for

A

μ and δ receptors,

187
Q

Dynorphins preferentially bind to the

A

κ receptors.

188
Q

Mechanism of Opioid Analgesia

A

In the spinal cord, opioids inhibit the release of substance P from primary sensory neurons in the dorsal horn, attenuating the transmission of painful stimuli from peripheral nerves to the cerebral cortex.

189
Q

In the brainstem, opioids act at

A

descending inhibitory pathways to attenuate painful stimuli.

190
Q

Is the most potent opioid commercially available for human use;

A

Sufentanil

191
Q

5 μg of intravenous sufentanil is the analgesic equivalent to

A

50 μg of fentanyl.

192
Q

1 mg of morphine equivalent to : Methadone

A

1mg of Methadone

193
Q

1 mg of morphine equivalent to Meperidine

A

10mg

194
Q

1 mg of morphine equivalent to : Fentanyl

A

50 mcg

195
Q

1 mg of morphine equivalent to : Hydromorphone

A

0.2 mg

196
Q

1 mg of morphine equivalent to : Alfentanil

A

150 mcg

197
Q

1 mg of morphine equivalent to : Sufentanil

A

5 mcg

198
Q

1 mg of morphine equivalent to : Remifentanil

A

50 mcg

199
Q

Factors that increase the risk of opioid-induced ventilatory depression include

A

high dose, natural sleep, old age, other CNS depressants, and decreased clearance due to hepatic or renal insufficiency.

SRNA4TopicsAnesthesia (47 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions