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A2 > Uworld review 7 > Flashcards

Uworld review 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is given the PCV23 given alone, as opposed to in combination with the PCV13?

A

Less than 65, with other chronic medical conditions that increase the risk of invasive pneumococcal disease

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2
Q

What is the first line treatment myasthenia gravis? Second line?

A
  1. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor–pyridostigmine

2. Immunosuppressive therapy

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3
Q

What is the first line treatment for acute aortic dissection? Why?

A

Labetalol, since it decreases BP and HR. If HR is left unchecked, then the dissection may propagate.

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4
Q

What is the most significant risk factor for TB?

A

Emigration from an endemic area.

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5
Q

How sensitive/specific is anti transglutaminase for celiac? What is the main caveat to this?

A

Pretty sensitive, but if IgA deficiency is present, then will not show up

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6
Q

What is collagenous colitis, and what will bx show?

A

Idiopathic increase collagen deposition, causing a malabsorption with mucosal subepithelial collagen deposition.

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7
Q

Does lactose intolerance cause malabsorption of other stuff?

A

No

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8
Q

Recent h/l dysentery + hepatic abscess on CT = ?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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9
Q

What is the treatment for a hepatic cyst caused by entamoeba?

A

Metronidazole

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10
Q

How can you differentiate between a hepatic cyst caused by echinococcus vs entamoeba histolytica?

A

Echinococcus does not have fever, and is usually asymptomatic. Also requires exposure to dogs. None of these with ent.

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11
Q

How sensitive is stool microscopy for entamoeba histolytica infection that has formed an amebic abscess?

A

Not very

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12
Q

Why is drainage of a hepatic cyst caused by entamoeba histolytica not recommended?

A

Metronidazole alone will usually resolve it.

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13
Q

What are the s/sx of CMV colitis?

A
  • Intermittent dysentery
  • Abdominal pain
  • Frequent, small volume diarrhea
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14
Q

At what CD4 count do CMV infections occur?

A

Below 50

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15
Q

What is the diagnostic test for CMV colitis? What will this show?

A
  • Colonoscopy with bx

- eosinophilic intranuclear and basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions

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16
Q

What is usually in the h/o a pt with an infection of entamoeba histolytica?

A

Recent travel abroad to an endemic country

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17
Q

Who should get the PSV-13 + 23 vaccines? (5)

A
  • over 65
  • CSF leaks, cochlear implants
  • Sickle cell or asplenia
  • Immunocompromised
  • CKD
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18
Q

Who should get the PSV23 alone? (4)

A
  • Chronic heart, lung, or liver disease
  • DM
  • Smokers
  • Alcoholics
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19
Q

Under what CD4 count does MAC cause illness?

A

50

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20
Q

What are the s/sx of digoxin toxicity?

A
  • n/v/d
  • Scotoma / halos around lights
  • confusion and weakness
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21
Q

What causes the osteopenia/porosis with ankylosing spondylitis?

A

osteoclast activity in the setting of chronic inflammation

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22
Q

What are the alarm symptoms of a pt presenting with GERD?

A
  • B symptoms
  • Men over age 50 with symptoms for 5+ years
  • anemia
  • Obvious stuff
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23
Q

When are colloids indicated?

A

Hypovolemia s/p paracentesis

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24
Q

What is the effect of dopamine on the kidneys?

A

Increased renal perfusion from D1 receptor stimulation

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25
Q

What is brachytherapy, and what is its role in brain tumors?

A
  • Implanting radioactive/ablative material.

- In combination with surgery

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26
Q

When is surgery for brain cancer a particularly good option? (4)

A
  • Limited mets/masses
  • Accessible area
  • younger than 65
  • Stable extracranial disease
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27
Q

True or false: erythema marginatum is pathognomonic for lyme disease and, if present, preclude the need for serology

A

True

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28
Q

Most pts that become ill from vibrio vulnificus have what underlying pathology?

A

Liver disease

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29
Q

What is the cause of bernard soulier syndrome, and what are the labs results like?

A
  • AR loss of glycoprotein Ib, which is a receptor for wVF.

- Mild thrombocytopenia, “Giant” platelets, and bleeding

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30
Q

What is the prophylaxis for malaria in chloroquine resistant areas (drug, and duration of treatment)?

A

Mefloquine 2 weeks before travel and 4 weeks after

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31
Q

What occupations or exposures, besides obvious ones, are associated with Pb poisoning? (3)

A
  • distilling alcohol with Pb parts
  • Battery manufacturing
  • Plumbing
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32
Q

How do thiazides work to decrease Ca stone formation?

A

Increased water loss stimulates Na reabsorption, along with Ca. Thiazides do not inhibit Ca reabsorption like Loops do

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33
Q

What is the effect of aldosterone antagonists on urine Ca?

A

Increases urine Ca

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34
Q

What are the US characteristics of Echinococcus cysts?

A

Large, smooth cyst with daughter cysts inside

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35
Q

What is the treatment for small and large hepatic cysts d/t echinococcus?

A 
Small = albendazole
Large = drainage with prophylactic antihistamine
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36
Q

Clonus is suspicious for a lesion where?

A

Pyramidal tracts

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37
Q

What are pendular reflexes, and what do they suggest?

A

Slow, repeated (over 4 times) reflexes that are pendular in motion (not quick like clonus), and suggest cerebellar dysfunction

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38
Q

What are the classic s/sx of a morton’s neuroma?

A

Burning in the distal forefoot between the third and fourth metatarsals. Produces a clicking sensation and pain reproduction with squeeze over this area.

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39
Q

What is the treatment for a Morton’s neuroma?

A

Bar or padded shoe to reduce pressure over the metatarsals

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40
Q

What is the composition of most kidney stones?

A

Ca oxalate

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41
Q

What are Ca PO3 renal stones seen in?

A

Primary hyperPTH or RTA

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42
Q

What is the most common nephrotic syndrome seen in pts with Hodgkin’s lymphoma? What about other malignancies?

A

HL = Minimal change disease

Others (usually solid CAs) = membranous glomerulonephropathy

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43
Q

What almost always accompanies crescentic glomerulonephropathies?

A

AKI

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44
Q

What are the associated diseases with focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?

A

HIV
Heroin use
Obesity

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45
Q

Hep B is associated with which nephrotic syndrome?

A

Membranoproliferative

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46
Q

What causes a continuous murmur with coarctation of the aorta?

A

if collateral vessels form

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47
Q

Where is the murmur of coarctation of the aorta usually best heard?

A

Left infraclavicular area anteriorly, and left interscapular area posteriorly.

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48
Q

What might a CXR show with Ebstein’s abnormality?

A

Prominent right atrial contours

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49
Q

Brain mass in an HIV pt + ENV + serology =

A

Primary CNS lymphoma

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50
Q

What are the characteristics of a primary CNS lymphoma on head MRI?

A

Solitary, irregular, weakly ring enhancing mass in the periventricular area

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51
Q

What will head MRI reveal with toxoplasmosis?

A

Several ring-enhancing, spherical lesions in the basal ganglia.

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52
Q

Are the lesions with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy ring enhancing?

A

No

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53
Q

What is the treatment for euvolemic hypernatremia?

A

Free water supplementation

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54
Q

What is the treatment for hypovolemic hypernatremia? (2)

A 
Symptomatic = NS until euvolemic, then D5
Asymptomatic = D5
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55
Q

How fast should hypernatremia be corrected?

A

0.5 mEq/dL/hr without exceeding 12 mEq/dL/day

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56
Q

If a pt develops Li-induced DI, what is the long term treatment if they cannot stop Li?

A

Salt restriction and selected diuretics (e.g. amiloride)

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57
Q

What is the MOA of amiloride?

A

ENaC inhibitor

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58
Q

When is hemodialysis indicated for the treatment of Li toxicity?

A

Serum Li levels over 4, OR over 2.5 + s/sx of significant toxicity

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59
Q

What is the typical presentation of a stress fracture?

A

-Abrupt increase in activity without rest, causing sharp, localized pain over a bony surface (most commonly the 2nd, 3rd, or 4th, metatarsals) that worsens with palpation over the area.

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60
Q

What is the treatment for a stress fracture?

A

Rest

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61
Q

What is the typical presentation of a morton’s neuroma?

A

Pain between the 3rd and 4th metatarsals on the plantar surface, and with a clicking sensation (Mulder sign) that occurs when simultaneously palpating this place and squeezing the metatarsal joints. Numbness/tingling into toes

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=SCXzm4tLDTs

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62
Q

What is the usual pain with metatarsalgia?

A

Pain on the plantar surface of the foot between the 2nd and 3rd metatarsals. “Stepping on a rock”. No numbness/tingling

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63
Q

What causes the lower extremity edema with CCBs?

A

Preferential dilation of the precapillary vessels, which leads to increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and fluid extravasation into the interstitium.

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64
Q

What medication can be added to reduce the swelling associated with CCBs? How does this work?

A

ACEIs/ARBs

These cause post capillary venodilation, and can normalize hydrostatic pressure

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65
Q

What is malignant HTN?

A

HTN that causes papilledema or retinal hemorrhages

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66
Q

What is the treatment for exertional heat stroke?

A

Immersion in ice water

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67
Q

Osteolytic lesions + infections + anemia in a old person = ?

A

Multiple myeloma

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68
Q

What is the “ugly duckling” sign of melanoma?

A

If skin lesion is substantially different from other skin lesions

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69
Q

What is the Breslow depth?

A

Depth of melanoma from the stratum granulosum

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70
Q

What is the general treatment of actinic keratoses?

A

Local cryotherapy of topical 5FU

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71
Q

What is the preventative treatment for Acyclovir nephrotoxicity?

A

Aggressive IFVs

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72
Q

What are the screening recommendations for annual low dose CT?

A

55-80 year old with a 30+ pack year, wh0 are currently smoking or quit within the last 15 years

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73
Q

What is the recommendations for Pap smears?

A
  • q3 years for 21-65 OR

- q5 years age 30-65 if combined with HPV testing

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74
Q

What is the usual presentation of mixed (type II) cryoglobulinemia? (4)

A
  • Palpable purpura
  • Renal disease
  • Arthralgias
  • Peripheral neuropathies
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75
Q

Mixed (type II) cryoglobulinemia is usually associated with which infection and autoimmune disease(s)?

A

HCV
SLE
HIV

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76
Q

Which antibodies are found with mixed (type II) cryoglobulinemia 2/2 HCV?

A

-anti-HCV IgG, and IgM anti-IgG abs (RF)

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77
Q

What happens to complement levels with mixed (type II)cryoglobulinemia? Type I?

A 
I = normal
II = Low
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78
Q

What is the treatment for mixed (type II) cryoglobulinemia?

A
  • Treat underlying condition
  • plasmapheresis
  • Immunosuppression
79
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of type I cryoglobulinemia? (3)

A
  • asymptomatic
  • Hyperviscosity
  • Livedo reticularis
80
Q

What diseases are associated with type I cryoglobulinemia?

A

Lymphoproliferative or hematologic disorders (e.g. multiple myeloma)

81
Q

What s/sx characterize amyloidosis?

A
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Renomegaly
  • Nephrotic syndrome
82
Q

What are the associated conditions and composition of the amyloid in AL amyloidosis?

A
  • Multiple myeloma / waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

- Light chains

83
Q

What are the associated conditions and composition of the amyloid in AA amyloidosis?

A
  • Chronic inflammatory conditions (e.g. RA, IBD etc) or chronic infections (e.g. Osteomyelitis, TB etc)
  • Beta-2- microglobulin
84
Q

What will renal bx electron microscopy demonstrate with amyloidosis?

A

thin fibrils

85
Q

Hyalinosis of afferent and efferent arterioles on renal bx = ?

A

DM nephropathy

86
Q

What are the severe side effects of carbamazepine, that require close monitoring of?

A

Leukopenia and aplastic anemia

87
Q

What sort of HA are TCAs used as prophylaxis for?

A

Tension

88
Q

What s/sx can CMV cause in immunosuppressed pts?

A
  • Pulmonary s/sx
  • GI s/sx (diarrhea, dysentery)
  • Hepatitis
  • Esophagitis
89
Q

Does PCP usually cause GI s/sx?

A

No

90
Q

Does Mycoplasma pneumonia usually cause GI s/sx?

A

No

91
Q

What are the renal findings associated with Goodpasture syndrome?

A
  • Nephritic range proteinuria (less than 1.5g/day)
  • Dysmorphic RBCs
  • AKI
92
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Goodpasture syndrome?

A

Antibodies against type IV collagen

93
Q

For how long does central HPA suppression occur following discontinuation of long term corticosteroids?

A

6-12 months

94
Q

Rapid onset hirsutism with a normal bmi = ?

A

Androgen secreting tumor

95
Q

What is the effect of testosterone on erythropoiesis?

A

Decreases hepcidin levels, causing an increase in Hb

96
Q

What are the components Beck’s triad?

A
  • Hypotension
  • JVD
  • Decreased heart sounds
97
Q

What happens to the filling pressure in the RA, RV, PCWP with cardiac tamponade vs PE??

A 
Tamp = all increase
PE = PCWP decreases
98
Q

What are the antibodies that are found with primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

99
Q

What are the antibodies associated with autoimmune hepatitis??

A

Ant-smooth muscle

100
Q

What are the classic s/sx of Zinc deficiency?

A
  • Alopecia
  • Lack of taste
  • Perioral dermatitis
101
Q

What are the classic s/sx of Cu deficiency?

A
  • Fragile hair
  • Skin depigmentation
  • Neurologic dysfunction
102
Q

What are the s/sx Selenium deficiency?

A
  • Cardiomyopathy

- Thyroid dysfunction

103
Q

Why is RV and FRC increased with pulmonary manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Decrease rib excursion and ribs stuck in inhalation

104
Q

What happens to FRC, TLC, and RV with pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Decreased

105
Q

What is the only time that PEP for tetanus is needed?

A

If the wound is dirty, and the patient did not receive immunization or less than 3 toxoid doses

106
Q

Occlusion of what artery can cause a AV block?

A

RCA

107
Q

What are bath salts?

A

synthetic cathinones (amphetamine analogs)

108
Q

What are the classic findings with bath salt use?

A
  • HTN
  • Tachycardia
  • Agitation
  • No nystagmus
  • Prolonged duration of effect
109
Q

What causes shock with pancreatitis?

A

Distributive shock from release of activated pancreatic enzymes in the serum, increasing vascular permeability

110
Q

Which arrhythmia is most specific with digoxin toxicity? Why?

A
  • Atrial tachycardia with AV block.

- increases atrial activation and vagal input to the AV node, causing block. Both occurring otherwise is rare

111
Q

What is the MOA of chlorthalidone? What is the common side effect?

A

Thiazide diuretic

Hyperglycemia

112
Q

How do thiazide diuretics cause hyperglycemia?

A

Impair insulin release from pancreas and glucose utilization in peripheral tissues.

113
Q

What is the classic triad of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
  • Confusion
  • Ataxia
  • Oculomotor dysfunction
114
Q

What are the relative EPO levels in polycythemia vera?

A

Low

115
Q

What is the treatment for polycythemia vera?

A

Serial phlebotomy

116
Q

What is mucormycosis?

A

Infection of the rhino-orbital area with Rhizopus species, commonly seen in DM pts.

117
Q

How do you diagnose mucormycosis?

A

Sinus endoscopy

118
Q

What are the classic s/sx of interstitial cystitis?

A
  • Painful bladder that is relieved with urination
  • Dyspareunia
  • Urgency, frequency, chronic pelvic pain
119
Q

What is the treatment for interstitial cystitis?

A

Low dose amitriptyline

120
Q

Is alk phos usually elevated with autoimmune hepatitis?

A

No

121
Q

What is hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Kidneys not getting enough blood d/t vasodilatory chemicals that are not broken down 2/2 cirrhosis, leading to preferential splanchnic dilation

122
Q

What sort of labs are seen with hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Like prerenal azotemia (which is pretty much is). Bland urine findings, and Urine Na excretion low.

123
Q

What is the tick that carries Ehrlichiosis? Where in the US is this usually found?

A

Lone star tick

Southeastern and southcentral US

124
Q

What are the usual s/sx of Ehrlichiosis?

A

Acute febrile illness with malaise, AMS, with NO rash.

125
Q

What are the labs like with Ehrlichiosis? (3)

A

Thrombocytopenia
Leukopenia
Elevated LFTs

126
Q

What DM meds cause weight loss?

A
  • GLP-1 peptides (e.g. exenatide)

- SGLT-2 inhibitors

127
Q

What type of medications are the -gliptins?

A

-DPP-IV inhibitors

128
Q

What are the effects of sulfonylureas on weight?

A

Can cause weight gain

129
Q

What are the major adverse effects of Glitazones? (3)

A

CHF
Bone fractures
Bladder CA

130
Q

What type of medications are the -glutides or atides?

A

GLP-1 agonists

131
Q

Greasy-looking scaly skin rash = ? Treatment?

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

Ketoconazole

132
Q

When does free wall rupture of a ventricle occur with an MI?

A

5 days - 2 weeks

133
Q

What is the treatment for post MI pericarditis (not dressler syndrome)?

A

Supportive (self limiting)

134
Q

What are the 5 prophylaxis criteria for lyme disease? (type of tick, time attached, when PEP is started, Local rate of infx, drug issue)

A
  • Attached tick is an adult ixodes tick
  • Tick attached for more than 36 hours
  • PEP started within 72 hours of tick removal
  • Local borrelia burgdorferi infx rate over 20%
  • No contraindications to doxycycline
135
Q

What sort of kidney disease is seen with granulomatosis with polyangiitis? What antibodies are seen?

A
  • glomerulonephritis

- Proteinase 3-ANCA (aka cANCA)

136
Q

What are the two classic visual symptoms of retinal detachment? Signs?

A
  • Photopsia and “curtain/veil coming down over my eyes”

- Sluggish pupil and a grayish appearing retina

137
Q

What is “salvage” therapy?

A

failure of initial treatment, and new treatment to kill residual cells

138
Q

What is “adjuvant” therapy?

A

Treatment given in addition to the standard therapy

139
Q

What is “consolidation” therapy?

A

Multidrug therapy after induction

140
Q

What is “induction” therapy?

A

Initial dose of treatment to rapidly kill tumors cells and send the patient into remission

141
Q

What is “maintenance” therapy?

A

Therapy given after induction and consolidation therapies to kill any residual tumor cells , and keep the pt in remission.

142
Q

What are the three common causes of pseudogout (3 H’s)

A
  • HyperPTH
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hemochromatosis
143
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for aortic aneurysm expansion?

A

Smoking

144
Q

Why is there an increase in the risk for atherosclerosis with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Loss of protein causes liver to secrete more cholesterol to maintain oncotic pressure

145
Q

What kidney disease can infective endocarditis cause?

A

Immune complex mediated (RF+) glomerulonephritis

146
Q

What is Still’s disease? What is the classic triad of symptoms?

A

Rare systemic autoinflammatory disease

  • High fevers
  • Arthralgias
  • Salmon colored papular rash
147
Q

What is the most common benign middle mediastinal mass? Anterior?

A 
Middle = Bronchogenic cyst
Anterior = thymoma
148
Q

What is the effect of oral estrogen on thyroid binding globulin? Transdermal?

A 
oral = Decreases clearance
Transdermal = no effect
149
Q

What is the other name for strep bovis?

A

Strep gallolyticus

150
Q

Which part of the spine is most commonly affected with RA?

A

Cervical spine

151
Q

What route of drug administration should be used to give abx for infective endocarditis?

A

IV

152
Q

What is the alternative to PCN for endocarditis if the pt has an allergy?

A

Ceftriaxone

153
Q

What is the confirmatory test for leukemia?

A

Bone marrow bx

154
Q

What sort of anemia can phenytoin cause? How?

A

Causes a macrocytic anemia 2/2 folate absorption impairment

155
Q

How does bactrim cause anemia?

A

Inhibits folate metabolism, causing a megaloblastic anemia

156
Q

How does methotrexate cause anemia?

A

Inhibits folate metabolism, causing a megaloblastic anemia

157
Q

What happens to the following labs with Kawasaki’s disease:

  • CRP/ESR
  • WBCs
  • Platelets
  • UA
A
  • Elevated ESR and CRP
  • Neutrophilia
  • Thrombocytosis
  • Sterile pyuria
158
Q

What is the diagnostic test for hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Eosin-5-maleimide test positivity

159
Q

What causes the mild gynecomastia in male puberty?

A

Transient increase in estrogen as testicle mature. Reassurance and observation,

160
Q

What is the triad of milk-alkali syndrome?

A
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Alkalosis
  • AKI
161
Q

What happens to the Mean Corpuscular hb concentration with hereditary spherocytosis? Why?

A

Increase d/t a relative loss of membrane compared to Hgb

162
Q

What is the diagnostic procedure of choice for suspected intussusception?

A

US guided air contrast enema (will relieve intussusception as well)

163
Q

What is the major CD marker for B and T cells respectively?

A 
B = CD19
T = CD3
164
Q

What is the short and long term therapy for SCID?

A

Short = IVIG and abx

Long term = stem cell transplant

165
Q

Should premature infants be given immunizations according to their chronologic or gestation age?

A

Chronologic, but must be over 2 kg before firs Hep B

166
Q

What skin fold findings are concerning for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

If thigh skin folds go more posterior than the anus.

167
Q

What is the classic heart murmur with a small VSD?

A

holosystolic murmur over the apex with a late diastolic rumble from mitral stenosis as flow is increased across this valve.

168
Q

Which antibiotics should be given for aspiration pneumonia to cover for anaerobic pathogens? (5)

A
  • Clindamycin
  • Metronidazole
  • Amoxicillin
  • Augmentin
  • Carbapenem
169
Q

What is the acute management for a tet spell?

A

Flex the hips and oxygenate

170
Q

Why is there a single S2 with tetralogy of fallot?

A

Normal aortic closure, but minimal pulmonic from reduce flow

171
Q

Chronic otitis media in a child can lead to what inner ear pathology? How does this present?

A
  • Cholesteatoma

- Continued ear drainage for several weeks, despite abx therapy

172
Q

What are cholesteatomas? Complications?

A
  • Destructive and expanding growth consisting of keratinizing squamous epithelium in the middle ear and/or mastoid process.
  • Hearing loss, CN palsy, vertigo, brain abscess/meningitis
173
Q

What are the five classic s/sx of riboflavin deficiency?

A
  • Angular cheilosis
  • Stomatitis
  • Glossitis
  • Seborrheic dermatitis
  • Normocytic anemia
174
Q

What are the two key symptoms of Beri Beri?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

Heart failure

175
Q

What is the treatment for HUS?

A

Dialysis, transfusions

176
Q

What are the s/sx of MAC infection in HIV pts?

A

Nonspecific systemic s/sx, diarrhea, abdominal pain

  • splenomegaly
  • Elevated alk phos
177
Q

What is the prophylaxis for MAC?

A

Azithromycin

178
Q

Under what CD4 count are HIV pts at risk of MAC attack?

A

50

179
Q

What is the confirmatory test for chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Dihydrorhodamine test or nitroblue tetrazolium test

180
Q

What is the lifelong treatment of chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Prophylactic abx and IFN for severe infxs

181
Q

What is the CH50 test used for?

A

Determine complement levels in pts suspected of having complement deficiencies

182
Q

What is the most serious complication (besides splenic rupture) from EBV infection?

A

Acute airway obstruction 2/2 tonsillar enlargement

183
Q

Nephrotic syndrome in HIV pts is most likely what?

A

Focal, segmental glomerulosclerosis

184
Q

Hep B infx predisposes to what nephrotic syndrome?

A

membranous

185
Q

What is the treatment for enterobius vermicularis?

A

Albendazole or pyrantel pamoate if prego

186
Q

What is the first line treatment for chagas disease?

A

Benznidazole

187
Q

What is the first line treatment for strongyloides?

A

Ivermectin

188
Q

What is the preferred medication for treating HTN 2/2 ADPKD?

A

ACEIs

189
Q

What is postpericardiotomy syndrome?

A

Pleuropericardial disease that occurs days or months after cardiac surgery or injury. Inflammation for surgical intervention can lead to reactive pericarditis, pericardial effusion, or tamponade

190
Q

What complement levels will be depressed with hereditary angioedema, vs acquired?

A

Hereditary angioedema = low C4 levels

Acquired = low C4 and C1q

191
Q

Posterior urethral valves only affects what gender?

A

Males

192
Q

What causes the congenital, bilateral absence of the vas deferens in male CF patients?

A

Accumulation of inspussated mucous in the fetal tract obstructs development

193
Q

True or false: there testicles produce no sperm in male pts with infertility 2/2 CF

A

False

A2 (26 decks)

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