Peds Uworld review Flashcards
1
Q
If a child has incidental proteinuria on dipstick analysis, what is the appropriate next step?
A
Repeat dipstick testing on two subsequent occasions
2
Q
What are the common causes of transient proteinuria in children? (5)
A
Fever Exercise Seizures Stress Volume depletion
3
Q
What is the treatment for bartonella henselae infex?
A
Z-pack
4
Q
What is the defect in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
A
XLR loss of WAS gene that regulates the cytoskeleton remodeling in response to cell signalling
5
Q
What is the treatment for Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
A
Bone marrow transplant
6
Q
What are the physical exam findings of Friedreich’s ataxia?
A
Ataxia
Loss or proprioception
Absent ankle reflexes
7
Q
What are the EKG findings with Friedreich’s ataxia?
A
T wave inversions
8
Q
What are the nerve conduction velocities with Friedreich’s ataxia?
A
Normal
9
Q
How long is having an imaginary friend normal?
A
3-6 years, maybe a bit longer.
10
Q
What is the active drug in plan B?
A
Levonorgestrel
11
Q
Which bacteria is the most common cause of rhinosinusitis? Second and third?
A
- Strep pneumoniae
- H flu
- Moraxella
12
Q
Why are patients with cyanotic congenital heart disease at risk for NEC?
A
Reduced mesenteric perfusion and/or hypotension
13
Q
What is the classic AXR findings of NEC?
A
Pneumatosis intestinalis
14
Q
What are the AXR findings of malrotation of the intestines with volvulus?
A
Gasless abdomen due to obstruction involving the duodenum
15
Q
What is the classic AXR/US description of intussusception?
A
Target sign
16
Q
What are the typical s/sx of aplastic crisis?
A
Severe anemia with low reticulocytes and NO splenomegaly
17
Q
How do you differentiate aplastic anemia vs aplastic crisis?
A
Crisis = only RBCs are low Anemia = pancytopenia
18
Q
What animal is the biggest rabies reservoir in the US?
A
Bats
19
Q
What is anemia of prematurity?
A
- Normally, decreased levels of EPO from a sudden increase in oxygen tension in the blood at birth causes an expected nadir at 2-3 months of age in term infants
- Preterm infants there is low EPO and short RBC lifespan, causing much worse anemia and usually frequent phlebotomy in the NICU
20
Q
What sort of anemia (micro, normo, macro) is anemia of prematurity? Symptoms?
A
Normocytic with low reticulocyte counts
asymptomatic usually
21
Q
Why does sickle cell anemia take several months after birth to manifest?
A
Change from HgF to HgA
22
Q
How much HgA is there is sickle cell disease? Sickle cell trait?
A
Disease = 0% (all HbS) Trait = ~50%
23
Q
What is the next best step after assessing the ABCs in a child who has swallowed a caustic substance?
A
Remove clothing and decontaminate
24
Q
Why should nasogastric lavage or administration of neutralizing substances be avoided in children who ingest a caustic substance?
A
- May cause vomiting, which will worsen injury
- Also, if neutralize the acid/base, then exothermic rxn can burn
25
What is the effect of adrenal infarction in meningitis infx caused by N. Meningitidis?
Sudden vasomotor collapse
26
What is trachoma? S/sx? Treatment?
- Chlamydia serotypes A, B, C inflammation of the eyelid, causing a roughing of the inner surface of the eyelid. THis leads to pain, breakdown of the cornea, neovascularization, and eventual blindness.
- Watery discharge
- Oral azithromycin
27
True or false: a small amount of vaginal bleeding and/or gynecomastia is a normal variant in newborns
True--maternal estrogen exposure. Routine f/u.
28
How does recurrent constipation lead to UTIs?
Pressure from stool causes compression of the urethra, leading to urinary stasis
29
Do UTIs usually result from sexual activity/abuse in women?
In older women, yes
| In children, no
30
How does persistent coughing lead to a pneumothorax?
SQ emphysema from increased alveolar pressure
31
WIth a SCFE, how is the leg held, and what motions are restricted?
Held in passive external rotation
| Decreased internal rotation, abduction, and flexion
32
What is the treatment for a SCFE?
Surgical screw placement
33
What is metatarsus adductus? Treatment?
- Medial deviation of the forefoot with a normal, neutral position of the hindfoot
- "Correctable" with passive movement
- Reassurance
34
Does hypocalcemia cause focal neurologic deficits?
No
35
What is the classic triad of s/sx of a brain abscess?
- Fever
- Morning HAs
- Focal neurologic changes
36
What are the histologic characteristics of the liver with Reye's syndrome?
Microvesicular fatty infiltration
37
What are the s/sx of diamond blackfan anemia?
- Congenital anomalies
- Macrocytic anemia
- Low reticulocyte count
38
What cell line(s) are affected with diamond blackfan anemia?
Only RBCs--pure red cell aplasia
39
What cell line(s) are affected with Fanconi anemia?
Pancytopenia
40
What are the congenital deformities of Fanconi anemia? (5)
- Cafe-au-lait spots
- microcephaly
- Microphthalmia
- Short statues
- Absent thumbs
41
What is the classic tetrad of s/sx for HSP?
- Palpable purpura
- Arthralgias
- Abdominal pain
- Renal disease
42
true or false: HSP is characterized by thrombocytopenia
False--normal platelet levels. Thrombocytopenia is suggestive of ITP
43
What is the most common nutritional deficiency in infants?
Fe
44
What are the three major risk factors for Fe deficiency in infants?
- Preterm (lower stores)
- Cow's milk before 12 months of age
- Maternal Fe deficiency
45
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in CF pts below 20 years of age? Over?
Under 20 = Staph Aureus
| Over = pseudomonas
46
What are bitot spots, and what do they indicate?
Dry, silver-gray plaques on the bulbar conjunctiva that indicate Vit A deficiency
47
What is the most common predisposing factor for bacterial sinusitis in kids?
Preceding viral URI d/t impaired ciliary clearance
48
What organ is responsible for premature adrenarche in children? Thelarche?
```
Adrenarche = Adrenal androgen secretion
Thelarche = pituitary or ovaries
```
49
Which cancers can breastfeeding help prevent in the mother?
Breast and ovarian--NOT endometrial
50
True or false: breastfeeding is associated with a reduced incidence of AOM in children
True
51
For a cyanotic congenital heart defect, do you want to maintain a PDA, or close it?
Maintain it with PGE2
52
What may be seen with the carotid upstroke with HOCM?
Seemingly dual upstroke
53
What findings in the iris is characteristic of Down syndrome?
Brushfield spots (white-gray spots on the periphery)
54
Retinal hemangioblastomas are associated with what neurocutaneous disorder?
VHL
55
Onion skinning and Moth eaten appearance of bone on x-ray = ?
Ewing's sarcoma
56
What is the classic presentation of midgut volvulus?
Bilious vomiting and abdominal distention
57
What is the best first diagnostic step in evaluating a suspected midgut volvulus?
AXR to r/o pneumoperitoneum, followed by Upper GI series
58
What will an upper GI series reveal with a midgut malrotation? Volvulus?
Ligament of Treitz on the right side of the abdomen = malrotation
Volvulus = corkscrew pattern with contrast
59
What are the contraindications to the rotavirus vaccination?
- h/o intussusception
- immunodeficiency (it's a live attenuated vaccine
- Uncorrected congenital malformation of the GI tract
60
What are the three major cardiovascular malformation associated with Turner's syndrome?
- Bicuspid aortic valve
- Coarctation of the aorta
- Aortic root dilation
61
47 XXY genotype = ?
Klinefelter
62
What is hemihyperplasia, and what disease is it associated with?
Overgrowth of one side of the body
| Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
63
What are the s/sx and associations with cyclic vomiting syndrome in children?
- Recurrent episodes of emesis that resolve spontaneously in an otherwise normal child
- Associated with a family h/o migraines, since it is thought that this is an "abdominal migraine"
64
What is the treatment for cyclic vomiting syndrome?
Antiemetics
65
What is the causative agent of herpangina? S/sx? Age range affected? Treatment?
- Coxsackie virus A
- 3-10 years old
- Fever, pharyngitis, gray vesicles/ulcers on *posterior* oropharynx
- Supportive treatment
66
What is the causative agent of Herpetic gingivostomatitis? Age ranged affected? S/sx? Treatment?
- HSV-1
- 6 mo -5 years
- Fever, pharyngitis, clusters of small vesicles on *anterior* oropharynx
- Acyclovir
67
What disease are pts with absence seizures predisposed to developing?
ADHD
68
What is cataplexy, and what disease is it classically seen in?
- Sudden, intermittent muscle weakness triggered by strong emotions
- Narcolepsy
69
Are SGA infants at risk for hyper or hypocalcemia?
Hypocalcemia
70
What hemodynamic problem are SGA infant at risk of developing? Why?
Polycythemia
| Increased EPO secretion in response to hypoxia
71
What is the prophylaxis for pertussis exposure?
Macrolide abx + immunization if not already immunized
72
Erythromycin use in neonates is associated with what disease?
Pyloric stenosis
73
What is the first and second line treatment for scarlet fever?
- PCN V
| - Erythromycin or clindamycin if PCN allergy
74
What are the memorable symptoms of opiate withdrawl in the neonate?
- Sneezing
- Tachypnea
- Sweating
75
What are the memorable symptoms of cocaine withdrawl in the neonate?
- Jitteriness
- Excessive sucking
- Hyperactive moro reflex
76
What are the s/sx of a pineal gland tumor?
- Limited upward gaze
- Upper eyelid retraction
- Pupils are non-reactive to light, but reactive to accommodation
77
What is the tick that harbors Lyme disease?
Ixodes scapularis
78
Who should receive a screening test for GC/chlamydia?
All sexually active women less than 25 years old
79
What causes a UTI with sex?
AScending bacteria that are introduced from sex
80
What is the most common pathogen with acute unilateral lymphadenitis?
Strep or staph
81
Which immunodeficiencies have absent lymphoid tissue?
- Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
| - SCID
82
Which viruses commonly cause aseptic meningitis?
Echovirus
| Coxsackie
83
True or false: focal neurologic signs are not found with meningitis
True
84
After a diagnosis of Guillain-barre is made, what is the next most important step? Why?
Spirometry to determine impending respiratory failure
85
What causes the sloughing off of skin with staph scalded skin syndrome?
Exfoliative toxin from staph destroys the desmoglein 1 protein, which is responsible for keratinocyte adhesion in the superficial epidermis
*This is a toxin mediated process*
86
Fair hair and skin
MR
CVA or other clotting events = ?
Homocystinuria
87
How does torticollis present?
Head tilting + palpable, non-transilluminating mass just posterior to the SCM
88
What is a major consequence of untreated torticollis?
Positional plagiocephaly
89
Fluctuant mass in the posterior neck of an infant that transilluminates = ?
Cystic hygromas (congenital malformation of the lymphatic system)
90
What is the usual cause of croup?
Parainfluenza virus
91
What is the henderson-Hasselbalch equation for the bicarb buffer in blood?
pH = 6.1 + log(HCO3/0.03*PaCO2)
92
What is the appropriate imaging type to *screen* for suspected spinal malignancy without nerve s/sx or concern for epidural abscess? What labs should be obtained (2)?
x-ray
| ESR and CRP
93
What are the red flags for back pain 2/2 CA? (6)
- Over 50 years
- H/o CA
- Constitutional s/sx
- Nocturnal pain
- No response to treatment
- Significant or progressive neuro deficits
94
What are the typical fundoscopic findings of CRAO?
White retina with a cherry red spot
95
What is the role of thrombolytics in CRAO?
Useful if initiated within 4-6 hours of visual loss. Given intraarterially.
96
What are the differences on nasal inspection of allergic vs nonallergic rhinitis?
- Allergic = Pale mucosa
| - Nonallergic = erythematous mucosa
97
What is the role of NSAIDs in IBDs?
May worsen s/sx
98
What is the most common congenital cyanotic heart condition in the neonatal period, and what are the heart sounds and CXR findings associated with this?
- Transposition
- Single, loud S2
- "egg on a string"
99
What happens to mitral valve motion with HOCM?
Systolic anterior motion
100
What is thought to be the pathogenesis of necrotizing enterocolitis?
Lack of proper gut motility, along with lack of gut flora causes an overgrowth
101
What sort of LAD is nearly pathognomonic for secondary syphilis?
Epitrochlear ("sailor's handshake")
102
What is the treatment for stroke 2/2 septic emboli from endocarditis?
Abx (no need for anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy)
103
What is the screening test for bladder CA?
There is none. Low benefits.
104
What is the most common cause for the s/sx of spinal stenosis?
Spinal osteoarthritis
105
What movement is limited in pts with Avascular necrosis of the femoral head?
Cannot internally rotate, or abduct.
106
What is the age range for pts with AVN of the femoral head vs SCFE?
```
AVN = 4-10 years
SCFE = 12+ years
```
107
What are the classic head CT findings of alzheimer's disease?
-Diffuse cortical and subcortical atrophy which is disproportionately greater in the temporal and parietal lobes
108
What are the two major adverse effects of PTU?
- Agranulocytosis
| - Hepatic injury
109
What is the first and second line therapy for restless leg syndrome? MOA?
- Ropinirole (Dopamine agonist)
| - Gabapentin (alpha-2-delta Ca channel blocker
110
What happens to platelets levels with a sickle cell crises? Why?
Decreased d/t splenic trapping
111
Which abx used in the treatment of acne classically causes photosensitivity? How?
Doxycycline (or other tetracyclines) causes ROS generation
112
What is the role of corticosteroids in the treatment of spinal cord compression?
Reduces inflammation of the epidural venous plexus, which contributes to cord compression
113
What serum albumin-to-ascites gradient is indicative of portal HTN?
More than 1.1
114
How many PMNs in ascitic fluid is diagnostic of peritonitis?
More than 250
115
What do the following colors of ascitic fluid usually indicate as an etiology:
- Bloody
- Milky
- Turbid
- Straw color
- Bloody = malignancy, trauma, or TB
- Milky = chylous, pancreatic
- Turbid = infx
- Straw = benign causes
116
What level of ascitic protein is high vs low? What does each indicate?
High = over 2.5. This indicated CHF, pericarditis
Low = less than 25. This indicates cirrhosis, or nephrotic syndrome
117
What is the 2nd line treatment for PCP prophylaxis if pts cannot tolerate Bactrim?
Pentamidine
118
What is the treatment for traveler's diarrhea?
Cipro
119
What is the diagnostic test of choice for giardia?
Stool antigen assay
120
What is the biggest risk factor for cerebral palsy?
Prematurity
121
Besides anaphylaxis, what are the two major contraindications to the pertussis vaccine?
- Progressive neurologic disorder
| - Encephalopathy within a week pf previous vaccine dose
122
Which two abx classically cause serum sickness?
PCNs and Bactrim
123
What are the s/sx of serum sickness?
Fever
Urticaria
arthralgias
124
What is the gene that is affected with NF1 and NF2? What chromosome?
```
NF1 = neurofibromin = 17
NF2 = merlin = 22
```
125
What is the classic exposure to Arsenic? S/sx (4)?
- Working with old wood
| - Polyneuropathy, pancytopenia, mild increase in LFTs, variety of skin lesions
126
What are the major differentiating factors between Arsenic poisoning and Pb?
```
Ar = skin manifestations
Pb = GI manifestations
```
127
What is the genetic defect in hyper IgM syndrome?
Lack of or defect in CD40 ligand
128
What is the long term treatment for hyper IgM syndrome?
Prophylactic abx and IVIG
129
What is the long term therapy for children with acute rheumatic fever?
IM PCN G until adulthood
130
Which two antiepileptic drugs are used as migraine prophylaxis?
Topiramate
| Divalproate
131
What are the indications for pharmacologic migraine prophylaxis?
- More than 4/month or more than 12 hours
- Disabling
- Refractory to other meds
132
Children under what age with a first febrile UTI should receive imaging? What is the imaging of choice?
Under 2 years, renal and bladder US
133
When are children ok to drink cow's milk? How much are they allowed to drink?
Not until 1 year old
No more than 24 oz.
If not, then Fe deficiency can develop
134
In a woman with complete androgen insensitivity, when should the testicles be removed, and why?
After puberty, to allow for hormone production (estrogen) to continue normal development
135
What causes the increased incidence of intussusception after a recent GI illness?
Hypertrophy of Peyer's patches serve as a latching point
136
What causes the increased risk of intussusception with HSP?
Bowel wall edema and localized hemorrhage, which can act as lead points
137
What is an odd but very rare presentation of HSP?
Scrotal pain and swelling
138
Where are medulloblastomas usually found in the brain? What s/sx can this cause (2)
- Cerebellum
- Cerebellar signs
- Proximity to 4th ventricle means hydrocephalus
139
Eyelid retraction is caused by a brain tumor where?
In the pretectal region--usually the Pineal gland
140
Why might total T3 and T4 levels be low in a cirrhosis pt, but with normal TSH
Total down because bindings proteins down. Effective T3/T4 fine however
141
What is respondent bias?
When outcome is obtained by the patient's response, and not by objective diagnostic methods
142
What is recall bias?
Inaccurate recall of past exposures by pts
143
What is selection bias?
Nonrandom selection of test subjects
144
Immunofluorescent staining of skin bullae showing Linear IgG and C3 depositions at the dermal-epidermal junction = ?
Bullous pemphigoid
145
What is the pharmacologic treatment of stress incontinence? Neurogenic bladder?
- Oxybutynin for stress incontinence (anticholinergic)
| - Bethanechol for neurogenic (cholinergic)
146
What drug can cause methemoglobinemia? (3)
Topicals (e.g. benzocaine), dapsone, and nitrates
147
What is methemoglobinemia?
Fe2+ to Fe3+ causes an increased binding affinity for Oxygen, causing hypoxia
148
Which oxygen sat is usually artificially elevated with methemoglobinemia: the ABGs or pulse oxy? Why?
ABGs since sat is calculated, whereas pulse ox is wavelength of light dependent, which is different with methemoglobin
149
With decreasing renal function, and thus decreasing ability to secrete H+, how do the remaining tubules adapt to maintain a physiologic pH?
Increase NH3 production to secrete H+
150
What are the appropriate precautions for measles outbreak?
Airborne
151
What three major infections need airborne precautions?
- TB
- Measles
- Varicella
152
What happens to RDW with Fe deficiency anemia? Why?
Over 20%--this is the first lab abnormality with Fe deficiency*
Since nutrient availability varies throughout the day, the marrow will produce RBCs of varying sizes.
153
What will prenatal US show with gastroschisis?
Intestines free floating in amniotic fluid, and all edematous and stuff
154
How often is gastroschisis an isolated defect?
90% of the time
155
What are the LFTs and alk phos levels with Rotor's syndrome?
Normal
156
How can you differentiate Rotors/dubin johnson syndrome from Gilbert's?
the former two will have elevated conjugated bili, whereas Gilbert's has unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
157
Over what age should pts with nephrotic range proteinuria suspected of having MCD get a bx?
Over 10
158
What is the classic presentation of spondylolisthesis?
- Back pain
- Enuresis
- Palpable step off
- Decreased perineal sensation
159
What is the classic RBC morphology with EPO deficiency?
Burr bodies (cytoplasmic projections on RBCs)
160
What are the foods that should be avoided in gout?
- Alcohol
- Meats
- Seafood
- Fructose containing foods
161
What lung volume curve is characteristic of an upper airway obstruction?
Flow limited with expiration and inspiration
162
What are the surgical indications for removal of a swallowed battery?
Hematochezia
Melena
Severe abdominal pain
163
What sort of mattress can be used to prevent SIDs?
firm mattress
164
What is the role of pacifiers with SIDS?
Help prevent
165
Homes built before what year are risk factors for Pb poisoning?
1978
166
What is the screening test for Pb poisoning? confirmatory?
Capillary finger prick testing is screening, but need venous levels to confirm, since high false positive rate
167
What is the treatment for Pb poisoning, given various Pb levels?
(0,45) = Recheck in 1 month
[45, 70) = DMSA
70+ = DMSA + EDTA
168
Beckwith-wiedemann syndrome looks like what condition? What are the signs that can differentiate it?
Looks like congenital hypothyroidism, but has *hemihypertrophy* hypoglycemia, and macrosomia
169
What tests should be ordered for kids with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome?
Abdominal US and AFP to assess for Wilms tumors and hepatoblastomas
170
What is the role of formula feeding with pyloric stenosis?
Increases risk
171
What maneuvers can be used to differentiate between vascular rings vs laryngomalacia?
Laryngomalacia = Stridor is worse when supine, improves when prone
Vascular rings = Biphasic stridor that improves with neck extension
172
What type of stridor is present with laryngomalacia vs vascular rings?
Laryngomalacia = inspiratory
vascular rings = biphasic stridor
173
Why does the stridor with vascular rings improve with neck extension?
decreases tracheal compression
174
True or false: in children whose parents are divorced but have joint custody, both must agree with the child's treatment
False-only one
175
What is the pharmacotherapy for neuropathic pain 2/2 DM neuropathy?
- either TCAs (if young)
| - or antiepileptics drugs (pregabalin)
176
Large volume rectal bleeding without abdominal TTP = ?
Most likely diverticulitis
177
What sort of GI bleeding is characteristic of angiodysplasia?
Slow, painless bleed
178
What is the treatment for cryptococcal meningitis?
Amp B + flucytosine
179
What are the classic CSF findings of cryptococcal meningitis?
- elevated opening pressure
- Pleocytosis
- Elevated protein
- Low glucose
180
What medications classically precipitate acute angle closure glaucoma?
Sympathomimetics
181
What is the appropriate care for frostbite?
Dunk in warm water, only if there is no chance of secondary refreezing
182
What is the pathophysiology of TTP?
Deficiency of plasma protease ADAMS13 (due to the formation of an autoantibody), causing long chains of vWF to accumulate on endothelial walls, trapping platelets and generating thrombi
183
What is the classic pentad of TTP?
- Thrombocytopenia
- Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
- Renal insufficiency
- Neurologic changes
- Fever
184
What is the treatment for an acute episode of TTP?
Plasma exchange
185
What are the PBS findings of TTP? What about D-dimer levels?
Schistocytes and RBC fragments
D-dimer levels are normal
186
True or false: the ANS is unaffected with GBS
False-- it is affected, and can cause autonomic s/sx
187
What sort of WBCs characterize a leukemoid reaction compared to CML?
Predominance of *late* PMN precursors:
- Metamyelocytes
- bands
NOT promyelocytes and myelocytes
188
What sort of WBCs characterize CML?
-Basophilia
-predominance of:
promyelocytes and myelocytes
189
What is De Quervain's tenosynovitis (which two tendons are affected), and in whom is it classically seen?
- Inflammation of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons as the pass through a fibrous sheath at the radial styloid process
- New mother who hold child with outstretched thumb
190
What is the classic presentation of acute papillary muscle rupture?
inferior wall MI leading to new holosystolic murmur over the apex
191
New onset edema in the hands and feet of an african child = ?
Dactylitis 2/2 vasoocclusive crisis from sickle cell disease
192
What is the PEP for varicella in a child under 13 years?
Vaccination if not completely vaccinated. IVIG if they cannot have Live attenuated vaccines
193
When should a battery be removed endoscopically if ingested?
If still in the esophagus, since it may erode here. If past the esophagus, 90% of the time it will pass without incident.
194
What is ichthyosis vulgaris?
- Inherited skin disorder caused by a mutation in the filaggrin gene.
- Causes scaly, dry skin that is worse in the winter. Initially mild but with aging looks like severe dryness.
195
What is the pathophysiology, presentation, treatment, and prognosis for milk-protein-induced enterocolitis?
- non-IgE mediated immune rxn to proteins in milk that causes rectal inflammation
- Presents as painless bloody stools with eczema and vomiting
- Treatment is elimination of milk and soy from mother's diet if breastfeeding.
- Excellent prognosis, and most children do not develop allergies to milk/soy
196
What are the two types of breath-holding spells?
Cyanotic = crying followed by breath holding
Pallid = minor trauma followed by breath holding and LOC
197
What age range typically manifests breath-holding spells?
6 months to 2 years
198
What is the treatment for pertussis?
Macrolides
199
What are strawberry angiomas?
Angiomas seen in infants that initially grow in size, but then resolve by age 5-8.
200
What are biliary cysts, how do they present, and how are they treated?
- Congenital dilatations of the biliary duct/tree
- Present with mild abdominal pain with mass, jaundice, and elevated bilirubin (direct and indirect)
- Surgical resection d/t risk of cholangiocarcinoma development
201
What is the difference in the rash between Varicella vs HSV-1 (eczema herpeticum)?
HSV-1 have a "Punched out" erythematous base with hemorrhagic crusting, and are localized
Varicella has vesicular, pruritic vesicles/pustules in crops in varying stages.
202
What is the most common predisposing factor for orbital cellulitis?
Sinusitis
203
What is the classic tetrad of symptoms of orbital cellulitis?
- Painful eye movements
- Proptosis
- Ophthalmoplegia
- diplopia
204
What are the indications for abx treatment of sinusitis? (3)
- Over 10 days
- Severe features
- Worsening s/sx for more than 5 days after initial improvement
