Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

A2 > FM cases 3 > Flashcards

FM cases 3 Flashcards

1
Q

A primary relative with an MI under what age is an increased risk for an MI?

A

Myocardial infarction (MI) at a young age (male <55; female <65) in a first-degree relative does increase an individual’s risk for CAD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the role of low HbA1cs in the prevention of ACS?

A

Not significant past 7ish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the role of rapid weight loss in the prevention of ACS?

A

Rapid weight loss increases risk, while normal, slower weight loss improves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or false: adding a beta blocker to a pt who had an MI is advisable, even if their BP is normal

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is a daily ASA indicated?

A
  • in adults aged 50 to 59 years who have a 10% or greater 10-year CVD risk, are not at increased risk for bleeding,
  • Adults aged 60 to 69 years with a ≥10% 10-year CVD risk:
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is more likely to produce CHF, ischemic or nonischemic cardiomyopathy?

A

Ischemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a very large S wave in V3 is strongly suggestive of what?

A

LVH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or false: new onset CHF should always go to the ER

A

True, for the most part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most common cause of diastolic heart dysfunction?

A

Untreated HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are grades A-D of the ACCR/AHA stages of heart failure?

A 
A = at risk, but without changes
B = Structural heart disease, but no s/sx of HF
C = Structural heart disease with prior or current symptoms of HF
D = Refractory HF requiring specialized interventions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is digoxin indicated?

A

Grade C or NYHA classes II and further

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or false: there is no difference between the benefits of ACEIs vs ARBs in terms of HF outcomes

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the role of Beta blockers in the treatment of HF?

A

Improves outcomes in the long term, but should be titrated up very slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the role of CCBs in the treatment of chronic HF?

A

Calcium channel blockers do not have a major role in the management of heart failure. Amlodipine (B) has been demonstrated to increase peripheral edema and therefore may be avoided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which DM drugs worsen HF?

A

Thiazolidinediones such as rosiglitazone (Avandia) and pioglitazone (Actos) (G) have been demonstrated to worsen heart failure. They are contraindicated in this setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the role of eplerenone in the treatment of HF?

A

Eplerenone reduced both the risk of death and the risk of hospitalization among patients with systolic heart failure whose ejection fraction was no more than 35% and who had mild symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the stress tests to use in a pt with moderate pretest probability of heart disease?

A

Treadmill stress test
Nuclear
Stress echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two major risk factors for the development of primary dysmenorrhea?

A

Depression/anxiety

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or false: primary dysmenorrhea is associated with a lower socioeconomic class

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When do the symptoms of primary dysmenorrhea occur? How long do they typically last?

A

a day prior to the onset of menses, and last up to 72 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Unless a woman is pregnant, a normal uterus in not larger than (___) weeks in size

A

Eight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or false: Nabothian cysts are normal on pevlic exam

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the normal periodicity of menstruation?

A

21 to 35 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Anything longer than (___) days is most likely menorrhagia.

A

Seven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is metrorrhagia?

A

Irregular, frequent bleeding but it doesn’t have to be heavy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is menorrhagia?

A

Excessive bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is menometrorrhagia?

A

Irregular frequent and heavy bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the symptoms/clinical criteria to diagnose premenstrual dysphoric disorder?

A

5 of the following:

  • Mood lability
  • irritability/anger
  • Depressed mood
  • Anxiety and edginess
  • Food craving
  • Changes in sleep
  • Anhedonia
  • Fatigue
  • physical symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is adenomyosis? What are the usual s/sx?

A

a gynecologic medical condition characterized by the abnormal presence of endometrial tissue (the inner lining of the uterus) within the myometrium

Chronic pelvic pain, menorrhagia, menometrorrhagia, dyspareunia
Enlarged, symmetric uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When should von Willebrand testing be done in a pt with menorrhagia?

A

Only if under 15 years, and even then debateable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of contraception is recommended for the treatment of fibroids in a woman who wants to maintain fertility?

A

progesterone-releasing IUD
OCPs
DEPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the three drugs that can be used to treat premenstrual dysphoric disorder?

A
  • Danazol
  • OCPs
  • SSRIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the MOA and use of danazol?

A

androgenic medication with progesterone effects. It lowers estrogen and inhibits ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the best treatment for premenstrual syndrome?

A

Continuous SSRIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the “dizzy” symptoms associated with aminoglycoside toxicity?

A

Vertigo and hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is vestibular neuritis (labyrinthitis)?

A

Vertigo 2/2 inflammation of the middle ear, usually after a URI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the major differences in the characteristics of the nystagmus in central vs peripheral causes?

A
  • Peripheral is unidirectional, and does not change directions
  • Peripheral can be inhibited with focused gaze
  • onset lag with peripheral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the difference between acute labyrinthitis and vestibular neuritis?

A
  • Acute labyrinthitis occurs when an infection affects both branches of the nerve resulting in tinnitus and/or hearing loss as well as vertigo.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the head thrust test that is used to differentiate between peripheral and central causes of vertigo?

A

Normally, when you face your patient and ask them to keep looking at your nose, his eyes will stay fixed on your nose if you move his head suddenly to the side. If there is a peripheral lesion in the vestibular system, the vestibular ocular reflex will be disrupted and his eyes will move with the head and then saccade back to center when his head is moved in the direction of the lesion. A normal head thrust test in the presence of vertigo means the peripheral vestibular system is intact and that the lesion is central.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which is able to be inhibited with visual fixation: central or peripheral causes of nystagmus

A

Peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which type of nystagmus changes direction: central or peripheral lesions?

A

Central can change directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the three major risks of a mother under the age of 20 having a child?

A
  • Increased risk for lower birth weight 2/2 HTN
  • Poorer developmental outcomes
  • Increased chances for infection of baby
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the distinctive effects of marijuana on fetuses?

A

No distinct features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When can small for gestational age be diagnosed, as opposed to intrauterine growth restriction?

A 
SGA = at birth
IUGR = in utero
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

True or false: delivery after 37 weeks’ gestation is a risk factor for transmitting HIV to the fetus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Gestations of less than how many weeks is an indication for GBS treatment?

A

Less than 37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Membranes that have been ruptured for longer than how many hours is an indication to prophylax against GBS?

A

18 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

True or false: a previous infant with GBS disease is an indication to prophylax against GBS

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

True or false: GBS bacteriuria during any trimester of the current pregnancy is an indication for treatment of GBS

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A temperature of over how much is considered an indication for GBS treatment?

A

Over 100.4 F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the difference between symmetric and asymmetric growth restriction?

A

Symmetric IUGR refers to a growth pattern in which head, length, and weight are decreased proportionately.

Asymmetric IUGR refers to a greater decrease in the size of the length and/or weight without affecting head circumference (“head-sparing phenomenon”).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are three major risks for SGA newborns?

A

Hypoglycemia
Hypothermia
Polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the etiology and symptoms of hypoglycemia in a SGA infant?

A

Decreased glycogen stores and gluconeogenesis

Commonly asymptomatic, though may exhibit poor feeding and listlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the etiology and symptoms of hypothermia in a SGA infant?

A

Hypoxia, increased surfaces area

Commonly asymptomatic, though may exhibit poor feeding and listlessness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the etiology and symptoms of polycythemia in a SGA infant?

A

Chronic hypoxia

“Ruddy” or red color to skin
Respiratory distress*
Poor feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

True or false: microcephaly is a possible consequence of maternal stimulant use

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How are rubella, toxo, and CMV diagnosed in a neonate?

A

IgM titers for rubella and toxo

Urine culture for CMV (or PCR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When can HBIG be given to neonates after diagnosis of maternal Hep B is confirmed?

A

Effective if given within 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Erythromycin eye drops are routinely given to newborns to prevent what infection?

A

Gonococcal conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the common neurological findings of congenital CMV infections?

A

Lissencephaly

Sensorineural hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the treatment for congenital CMV infection?

A

Ganciclovir x 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How often do neonates feed?

A

8-12 times /day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the recommended breastfeeding age?

A

Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended for the first 6 months of life, followed by breastfeeding plus complementary foods until the infant is at least 12 months of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

True or false: there is a wide spectrum of disease with congenital CMV infections

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the three common skin findings associated with CMV?

A

Petechiae
Purpura
Jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the hepatobiliary findings associated with congenital CMV?

A

Elevated LFTs
Hepatomegaly
Hyperbilirubinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What eye finding is common to congenital CMV?

A

Chorioretinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A 19-year-old female in her 38th week of pregnancy goes into active labor. Shortly after birth her baby is noted to have a high-pitched cry, tremulousness, hypertonicity, and feeding difficulties. The baby is otherwise developmentally normal and the remainder of the physical exam also is normal. What is the drug the baby’s mother likely used during her pregnancy?

A

Heroin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the five criteria that are used to diagnose metabolic syndrome (only need 3)?

A
  • Fasting plasma glucose > 100 mg/dL (or on medical therapy for hyperglycemia)
  • BP ≥ 130/85 mmHg (or on medical therapy for hypertension)
  • Triglycerides ≥ 150 mg/dL (or on medical therapy for hypertriglyceridemia)
  • High density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol < 40 mg/dL for men, < 50 mg/dL for women (or on medical therapy for low HDL cholesterol)
  • Abdominal obesity (waist circumference > 40” for men, > 35” for women)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the 5 A’s of behavioral counseling?

A
  • Assess the patient’s dietary practices and related risk factors.
  • Advise the patient to change dietary practices.
  • Agree with the patient on goals.
  • Assist the patient in changing dietary practices or addressing motivational barriers.
  • Arrange follow-up, support, and/or referral for the patient.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Patients with untreated LDL cholesterol greater than or equal to (___) should be evaluated for secondary causes of their dyslipidemia

A

190

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What causes Familial combined hyperlipidemia? Treatment?

A
  • Elevated apolipoprotein B causes elevated LDL, triglycerides,
  • Nicotinic acid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What causes Dysbetalipoproteinemia? Treatment?

A

Decreased ability to convert very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) and intermediate-density lipoprotein (IDL) to low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles in the blood

Statins or fibrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the pharmacotherapy for reducing triglycerides?

A

Fibrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the three types of pts that should receive high statin therapy?

A
  • patients > 75 years of age with clinical ASCVD
  • those with LDL cholesterol > 190 mg/dL
  • diabetics aged 40-75 with estimated 10-year ASCVD risk of > 7.5%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Moderate intensity therapy is recommended for, what three types of pts?

A
  • patients < 75 years of age with clinical ACSVD
  • diabetics aged 40-75 with estimated 10-year ASCVD risk of < 7.5%
  • patients for whom high-dose therapy would be recommended but who are not candidates for high-intensity statins.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

True or false: cutting out etoh reduces cholesterol levels

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How many calories are in a pound of fat?

A

3500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the four major appetite suppressant drugs used to control weight?

A

Phentermine
Diethylpropion
Phendimetrazine
Benzphetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the most common cause of syncope in pts with dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Ventricular arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What endocrine abnormality should be evaluated in the setting of extremely elevated cholesterol levels?

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Why should H2O2 be avoided in pts who have a TM occluded by cerumen?

A

If TM ruptured, will worsen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What happens to complement levels in PSGN and IgA nephropathy respectively?

A 
PSGN = decreased
IgA = normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the major adverse effect associated with gene therapy for SCID?

A

Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the drug that is used to prevent renal injury prior to contrast CT?

A

acetylcysteine

86
Q

What is gene therapy?

A

Transduction of a missing gene into a retrovirus to replace a missing gene in pts

87
Q

What is the pathophysiology of osteitis fibrosa cystica?

A

Increased phosphate (retention from renal failure or PTH adenoma) leads to increase in PTH, leaching of Ca, from bone and bone weakening

88
Q

What is the classic CXR finding associated with osteitis fibrosa cystica?

A

“Rugby jersey” spine

89
Q

What happens to end-diastolic volume of the heart with diastolic dysfunction?

A

normal or near normal

90
Q

How do carcinoid tumors lead to restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Deposition of plaque like tissue on the lining of the heart

91
Q

What is the treatment for a low energy, non-displaced pubic ramus fracture?

A

Pain management and activity as tolerated

92
Q

Most babies lose a little weight right after birth, then may regain their birth weight as early as 1 week of age, but are definitely expected to have regained their birth weight by what age?

93
Q

What is the daily caloric intake for term infants between 1-2 months of age? Preterm? VLBW?

A 
Term = 100 calories/kg
Preterm = 125 cal/kg
VLBW = 150 cal/kg
94
Q

What is the moro reflex, and how long will babies exhibit this? What is the use of this?

A
  • Dropping baby and it reaches out
  • Until 4 months
  • Used to detect peripheral MS or neurological problems
95
Q

How long do babies exhibit the palmar grasp reflex?

A

2-3 months

96
Q

How long do babies exhibit the plantar grasp reflex?

A

until 8 months

97
Q

When does the fencer’s reflex disappear?

98
Q

When does the babinski test become downgoing in an infant?

A

Between 1-2 years

99
Q

What are the four major domains that a physician assesses at a well child check?

A

Gross motor
Fine motor
Communicative/social
Cognitive/adaptive

100
Q

FOr what ages it he parent’s evaluation of developmental status (PEDS) screening tool used?

101
Q

When can solid foods begin to be introduced into an infant’s diet?

102
Q

What is the recommended vit D intake for infants?

A

400 units /day

103
Q

When do babies begin to sleep fully through the night?

A

Between 4-6 months

104
Q

How should a baby sleep to prevent SIDs?

A

Placed on back to sleep

105
Q

Until what age should children be rear facing in the car?

106
Q

Which seat in a car is the safest for a child?

A

Middle Back seat

107
Q

What is the appropriate restraining device for a 2-4 year old in a car?

A

Forward facing car safety seat

108
Q

What is the appropriate restraining device for a 4-8 year old in a car?

A

Belt positioning booster seat

109
Q

When can a kid no longer use a booster seat and sit in the front?

110
Q

When is the first DTaP given?

111
Q

By what ages should an infant double and triple his or her birth weight?

A

Double by 5 months, triple by 12 months

112
Q

When should a child be able to roll over?

113
Q

When should a child be able to sit unsupported?

114
Q

When should a child be able to reach for objects and look for dropped items?

115
Q

When should a child turn their head towards a voice

116
Q

When should a child be able to feed themselves?

117
Q

When does stranger recognition begin?>

118
Q

When should a child begin babbling?

119
Q

What is the role of walkers for infants?

A

The AAP has recommended against the use of walkers because of the risk of injury, especially when there are stairs in the home. In addition, walkers do not teach children to walk any earlier than they otherwise would.

120
Q

How many naps per day can be expected for a 6 month old?

121
Q

Why should acetaminophen be avoided in children with pain 2/2 immunizations?

A

Lowers immune response

122
Q

When can meats be started in a child?

123
Q

How often should new foods be introduced into an infant’s diet? Why?

A

Every 5-7 days to identify allergies

124
Q

When can an infant begin to stand?

A

9 months, but up to 12

125
Q

When should an infant have a well developed pincer grasp?

126
Q

When should an infant be able to say mama, dada, and 1-2 other words?

127
Q

When should an infant begin to wave bye bye?

128
Q

What is the most frequently diagnosed neoplasm in infants under 2 years?

A

Neuroblastoma

129
Q

Which side is constipation usually felt on abdominal exam?

130
Q

What are the urine findings of a neuroblastoma?

A

Elevated levels of Urine vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and urine homovanillic acid (HVA)

131
Q

What are the histological findings of a neuroblastoma?

A

Small round blue cells with scant cytoplasm

132
Q

What is a neuroblastoma?

A

neuroendocrine tumor of the adrenal gland

133
Q

What is the only major lab abnormality of a Wilms tumor?

134
Q

When do most infants begin to run?

135
Q

When should an infant be able to stack 2 cubes?

136
Q

When should an infant be able to remove garments be themselves?

137
Q

What tumor is associated with Beckwith-wiedemann syndrome?

A

Wilms tumor

138
Q

When should a child be able to walk backwards?

139
Q

When should a child be able to: balance on 1 foot

140
Q

When should a child be able to: name 4 pictures

141
Q

When should a child be able to: name 1 color

142
Q

When should a child be able to: name a friend

143
Q

When should a child be able to: brush their teeth with help

144
Q

When should a child be able to: build a tower of 6-8 cubes

145
Q

When should a child be able to: point to 6 body parts

146
Q

When should a child be able to: put on clothing

147
Q

When should a child be able to: wash and dry their hands

148
Q

True or false: in neuroblastoma, non-amplification of the n-myc gene is favorable for prognosis

149
Q

What are the three shots that are received at 9 months?

A

Flu
Hep B
IPV

150
Q

What are the histological characteristics of Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

Sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed macrophages “Starry sky”

151
Q

What is the screening tool used to screen for autism?

152
Q

When is vision screening with a chart started in kids? What is done to screen for vision before this?

A

3 years

Before this, just asking mother about any concerns

153
Q

Hearing evaluation through audiometry begins at what age?

154
Q

When should children start seeing a dentist?

A

At tooth eruption or by 1 age.

155
Q

When is a child expected to: speak in 2-3 word sentences?

A

3 years old

156
Q

When is a child expected to: know age and gender

157
Q

When is a child expected to: be friendly with other children

158
Q

When is a child expected to: engage in fantasy play

159
Q

When is a child expected to: listen and be attentive

160
Q

When is a child expected to: tell the difference between real and make-believe

161
Q

When is a child expected to: show sympathy for others

162
Q

When is a child expected to: state first and last name

163
Q

When is a child expected to: sing a song

164
Q

When is a child expected to: be clearly understandable nearly 100% of the time

165
Q

When is a child expected to: tell a simple story

166
Q

When is a child expected to: count to 10

167
Q

When is a child expected to: follow simple directions

168
Q

When is a child expected to: know names of simple objects?

169
Q

When is a child expected to: name colors

170
Q

When is a child expected to: play board games

171
Q

When is a child expected to: copy a cross

172
Q

When is a child expected to: copy a circle

173
Q

When is a child expected to: build a tower of 6-8 cubes?

174
Q

When is a child expected to: throw a ball overhand

175
Q

When is a child expected to: brush teeth

176
Q

When is a child expected to: balance for 2 seconds?

177
Q

When is a child expected to: hop on one foot

178
Q

When is a child expected to: balance on one foot

179
Q

When is a child expected to: tie a knot

180
Q

When is a child expected to: have a mature pencil grasp

181
Q

When is a child expected to: undress/dress with minimal assistance

182
Q

What is the “itch that rashes”, and usually is located in the antecubital fossa?

183
Q

True or falseL psoriasis is rare in children

184
Q

What usually precedes psoriasis in children?

A

Strep infection

185
Q

What is the treatment for eczema? (3)

A

Lubricating lotions
Anti-inflammatories (rx steroids) in short bursts
Treating associated skin infections aggressively

186
Q

What is the first and second line pharmacotherapy for eczema?

A
  • Topical steroids

- Calcineurin inhibitors

187
Q

What is the best way to toilet train?

A

No punishment, just rewards for doing well.

Modeling

188
Q

When should bottle feeding be stopped?

A

12-15 months

189
Q

What is intoeing, and what is the natural history of it?

A

When patella is facing forward, but toes point inward.

Self resolves by 4 years

190
Q

What is femoral anteversion, and what is the natural history of it?

A

In femoral anteversion both the feet and knees turn inward. Femoral anteversion usually resolves spontaneously by 8-12 years of age.

191
Q

When is fingerstick Hb levels obtained during a well child exam?

A

If risk for anemia or at 12 months

192
Q

True or false: a person has an increased risk for the development of breast cancer only if it is in a first degree relative

193
Q

True or false: The USPSTF does not recommend self breast exams

194
Q

How often should women have clinical breast exams?

A

q3 years between 20-40

Yearly for 40+

195
Q

True or false: smoking increases the risk for cervical cancer

196
Q

When does cervical cancer screening begin? How often (changes for ages)?

A

At 21 years old q3 years until 30

30-65, q5 years if with HPV testing, o/w q3 years

197
Q

True or false:Women who have undergone a total hysterectomy for any reason do not require cervical cancer screening.

A

false–Women who have undergone a total hysterectomy for benign reasons do not require cervical cancer screening.

198
Q

When are low dose CTs recommended for lung cancer screening (ages, pack years)?

A

55-80 years old who have smoked for 30 pack years.

199
Q

What is the USPSTF recommendation for mammographies?

A

Biennial screening mammography for women aged 50-74 years

200
Q

A breast mass over how many centimeters is concerning for CA?

201
Q

Prolonged exposure to estrogen, including menarche before age (__) or menopause after age (__) is a risk for breast cancer.

202
Q

True or false: both Etoh and smoking increase the risk for breast cancer

A

False- etoh does, smoking has not been shown

203
Q

Only after a woman has not menstruated for (__) straight months can menopause be confirmed.

204
Q

For bone health, it is recommended that pre menopausal women need approximately (___) mg
of calcium daily while post menopausal women need (___) mg of calcium daily.

A

For bone health, it is recommended that pre menopausal women need approximately 1000 mg
of calcium daily while post menopausal women need 1200 mg of calcium daily.

205
Q

What is the effect of obesity on osteoporosis?

A

Decreases risk d/t higher weight bearing and increased estrogen

206
Q

What is the effect of cigarette smoking on the risk of osteoporosis?

A

Increases chances

207
Q

What are the recommendations for exercise amounts ?

A

150 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise, 75

minutes of vigorous intensity exercise, or a combination of both per week

208
Q

What does it mean when a pap smear returns with: Atypical squamous cells (ASC)

A

Some abnormal cells are seen. These cells may be caused

by an infection or irritation or may be precancerous.

209
Q

What does it mean when a pap smear returns with: Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL)

A

LSIL may progress to a high-grade lesion

but most regress.

210
Q

What does it mean when a pap smear returns with: High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)

A

This is considered a significant

precancerous lesion

211
Q

What are the strains of HPV that cause cervical cancer?

212
Q

What are the strains of HPV that cause warts

A2 (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions