Dr. P's notes Flashcards
1
Q
Which is taken care of first, the airway, or a cervical spine issue?
A
Airway
2
Q
If there is SQ emphysema in the neck, then what type of device is used to place an airway? Why?
A
Endoscope
Is a sign of major trauma to the tracheobronchial tree
3
Q
What happens to CVP with tension pneumothorax and pericardial tamponade respectively?
A
Both elevated
4
Q
What is the type of fluid used in the trauma patient
A
2 L of LR, followed by packed RBCs
5
Q
Is it appropriate to wait to obtain a CXR for a tension pneumothorax?
A
No
6
Q
What is the treatment for cardiogenic shock?
A
Do not administer fluids or blood–circulatory support
7
Q
What happens to CVP with cardiogenic shock?
A
Increased
8
Q
What is the general indication for surgical treatment of a skull fracture?
A
Left alone if they are closed–open, comminuted, or depressed fractures require surgical intervention
9
Q
What other part of the body must be assessed/imaged if there is a basilar skull fracture?
A
C-spine
10
Q
What type of intubation must be avoided in patients with a basilar skull fracture?
A
Nasotracheal
11
Q
What are the three components that can cause neurological damage in the head trauma patient?
A
- Initial blow
- Hematoma that develops afterward
- Increased ICP
12
Q
What is the classic sequence of events for an epidural hematoma?
A
Trauma, unconsciousness, lucid interval, coma
13
Q
Lens-shaped hematoma = ?
A
Epidural
14
Q
Semilunar, crescent shaped infarct = ?
A
Subdural hematoma
15
Q
True or false: mannitol is contraindicated in an acute subdural hematoma
A
False–indicated.
16
Q
What is the treatment for diffuse axonal injury?
A
Decrease ICP
17
Q
What is the cause of a subdural hematoma?
A
Rupture of bridging veins
18
Q
True or false: hypovolemic shock cannot happen from intracrainial bleeding
A
True–not enough space for the bleed
19
Q
What is the general workup for penetrating neck trauma to the upper zone?
A
Arteriographic study
20
Q
What is the general workup for penetrating neck trauma to the base of the neck?
A
arteriography
Esophagogram
Esophagoscopy
21
Q
True or false: Stab wounds to the upper and middle zones in asymptomatic patients can be safely observed.
A
True
22
Q
What are the s/sx of Brown-Sequard syndrome?
A
Loss of pain contralateral
Loss of proprioception ipsilateral
23
Q
What are the s/sx of anterior cord syndrome?
A
Loss of motor function and loss of pain/ temp sensation on both side distal to the injury
-Preserved proprioception and vibratory sense
24
Q
What is the cause, and s/sx of central cord syndrome?
A
Forced hyperextension of the neck
-Paralysis and burning pain in the UE, but normal LE
25
What is the treatment for a rib fracture?
Local nerve block and an epidural catheter
26
What is a common complication of a rib fracture in an elderly patient?
Atelectasis 2/2 pain, leading to pneumonia
27
What is the treatment for a sucking chest wound?
Three sided flap to let air out, but not in
28
What happens to the chest with flail chest?
Goes out during expiration, and in during inspiration (paradoxical breathing pattern)
29
What is the problem with a flail chest? What is the appropriate management?
Consution of the lung
| Fluid restriction and the use of diuretics
30
What is the treatment for a pulmonary contusion?
Deteriorating ABGs, white out on CXR
31
What type of injury usually produces a traumatic rupture of the aorta? S/sx?
- Sudden deceleration
| - Asymptomatic until adventitia that is holding in the blood ruptures and kills the patient
32
What are the s/sx of a traumatic rupture of the trachea?
Emphysema in the upper chest or lower neck
33
Emphysema in the upper chest is suspicious for what disorders?
Esophageal rupture
Tracheal rupture
Tension penumo
34
What is the treatment for an air embolism?
Left side down
| cardiac massage
35
What is the treatment for a fat embolism?
Respiratory support
36
What are the two major indications for avoiding laparoscopic exploration of a stab wound?
- No bulging viscera or peritoneal signs
| - VSS
37
When does blunt trauma to the abdomen require laparoscopic exploration?
If there are signs of peritoneal irritation or shock
38
What are the three locations in the body that can hide blood in trauma?
Thighs
Abdomen
Pelvis
39
What is the old alternative to a FAST exam?
Peritoneal lavage
40
What is the treatment for intraoperative development of coagulopathy?
Ffp
41
What are the exams that should be done on a patient with a pelvic fracture?
Retrograde urethrogram pelvic exam, and DRE
42
What is the Hallmark symptom of Urologic injury?
Hematuria
43
What prostate finding is associated with urethral injuries in men?
High riding
44
What should be done in a suspected case of a urethral injury?
Retrograde urethrogram
45
When are scrotal hematomas concerning?
If the testicle is ruptured
46
What is the order of repair in terms of the following: nerves vasculature bone?
Bone
Vasculature
Nerves
47
Why give copious amounts of IVFs with electrical burns?
Myoglobinemia may lead to renal failure
48
What is the best diagnostic criteria to determine if someone with smoke inhalation injury needs oxygen?
ABGs
49
What is the concern with circumferential burns of the extremities?
Cut off blood supply as edema accumulated underneath the eschar
50
What are escharotomies, and what are their indications?
Breakdown of an eschar
| Done in the case of circumferential burns
51
What causes the hypovolemic shock in burn patients?
Movement of fluids into burn areas
52
What is the goal urine output and CVP in burn patients?
- 2 mL/kg/hr
| - Avoid CVP over 15 mmHg
53
What is the protocol for burn patients with over 20% burn surface area?
1 L / h of LR
54
What is the standard topical agent for burn patients?
Silver sulfadiazine
55
When is a skin graft indicated for a burn patient?
If not healed after 2-3 weeks of supportive measures
56
what are the signs of envenomation of a snake bite?
severe local pain, swelling, and discoloration developing within 30 minutes of the bite.
57
True or false: Antivenin dosage relates to size of the envenomation, not size of the patient
True
58
What is the only valid first aid technique for a snake bite?
Splint the extremity (no icing, tourniquet, or cutting)
59
What are the coral snakes colors, and why are these concerning?
Red on yellow, kill a fellow
| Deadly neurotoxin
60
What is the characteristic feature of black widow spiders, and what is the antidote to their venom?
Red hourglass on stomach
| IV calcium gluconate
61
What is the treatment for brown recluse spider bites?
Surgical excision PRN
62
What is the treatment for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
Treatment is abduction splinting with Pavlik harness for about 6 months.
63
What is Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease? S/sx?
Avascular necrosis of the femoral epiphysis
| insidious development of limping, decreased hip motion, and hip (or knee) pain.
64
What is slipped capital femoral epiphysis? S/sx?
When they sit with the legs dangling, the sole of the foot on the affected side points toward the other foot. On physical exam there is limited hip motion, and as the hip is flexed the thigh goes into external rotation and cannot be rotated internally.
65
What is the general position that patients place their hip in with a septic hip?
Flexed, slight abduction, and external rotation
66
Genu varum is normal up to what age?
3 years
67
Genu valgum is normal between what ages?
4-8
68
What is osgood-Schlatter disease? S/sx?
(osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercle) is seen in teenagers with persistent pain right over the tibial tubercle, which is aggravated by contraction of the quadriceps.
69
What is clubfoot (talipes equinovarus)?
Both feet are turned inward, and there is plantar flexion of the ankle, inversion of the foot, adduction of the forefoot, and internal rotation of the tibia.
70
What is the treatment for club foot?
Serial plaster casts
71
How do supracondylar fractures of the humerus usually happen? What is the major complication that can arise from this?
FOOSH
| Vascular or nerve injuries can easily occur, and they could lead to Volkmann contracture.
72
When is open reduction and fixation required when a growth plate is involved?
If the plate itself it broken, not just displaced
73
What is the age range that bone tumors usually affect?
10-25
74
What part of the bone does Ewing's sarcoma usually affect?
Diaphysis of long bones
75
What are some of the common presenting symptoms of bone cancers?
Fractures or bone pain
76
Where do most metastatic bone cancers come from in women and men?
```
Women = breast
Men = prostate
```
77
What is the drug that can be used it multiple myeloma if chemotherapy is ineffective?
Thalidomide
78
What is the usual position of the arm when the shoulder is anteriorly dislocated? Posteriorly?
Anterior = Close to body, but like about to shake your hand
Posterior = close in and internally rotated
79
What is a colles fracture? treatment?
fracture and posterior displacement of the distal radius
Treat with close reduction and long arm cast
80
What is a monteggia fracture?
Night stick fracture
81
What is a galeazzi fracture?
one: the distal third of the radius gets the direct blow and has the fracture, and there is dorsal dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint.
82
What is the treatment for a scaphoid fracture?
thumb spica
83
What is the treatment for a metacarpal neck fracture(s)?
Closed reduction and ulnar gutter splint
84
What is the classic presentation of a hip dislocation?
Affected leg is shortened and externally rotated
85
How are intertrochanteric fractures treated?
Open reduction and internal fixation
86
How are femoral shaft fractures treated?
intramedullary rod placement, but orthopedic emergency if open
87
What is the best and fastest way to determine if a knee injury is serious or not?
if there is swelling
88
What is the classic symptom of meniscal tears?
Clicking or locking
89
What is the treatment for tibial stress fracture?
Cast /crutches and repeat x-ray in two weeks
90
What are the most common areas of the body to develop compartment syndrome?
distal leg
| Forearm
91
What is the treatment for an achilles tendon rupture?
Casting in equinus position
92
When are fractures of the ankle fixed with open reduction?
If fragments are displaced.
93
What is the treatment for gas gangrene?
IV PCN, emergency surgical debridement, and hyperbaric oxygen
94
How does the leg appear with a posterior hip dislocation?
leg shortened, adducted, and internally rotated.
95
What is the classic motor deficit associated with radial nerve injury?
Inability to extend the wrist
96
True or false: even if the patient regains function in the distribution of the radial nerve after splinting, they need surgical exploration
False
97
How is the popliteal artery usually injured?
Posterior dislocation of the knee
98
What does it mean to follow the direction of force with injuries?
follow lines of force to assess other bones that may be impacted
99
Facial fractures always necessitate the need to evaluate what other part of the body?
Neck
100
What is the treatment for radial nerve compression?
Splints and antiinflammatories
Electromyography + surgery if that doesn't work
101
What is the first line therapy for trigger finger?
Steroids, then refer to surgery
102
Where is the pain with De Quervain tenosynovitis?
radial side of the wrist and the first dorsal compartment
103
What is a felon? Treatment?
An abscess in the pulp of a fingertip, caused by a neglected penetrating injury
Drain it
104
What is jersey finger, and what is the treatment?
injury to the flexor tendon when the flexed finger is forcefully extended
splint
105
What is mallet finger? Treatment?
Extended finger is forcefully flexed, and the extensor tendon is ruptured
106
What is the progression of symptoms with a disc herniation?
vague, discogenic pain from anterior ligament compression, then neurogenic pain
107
What is the treatment for a ruptured disc?
Spinal block, and rest
| Surgery if neurological symptoms are progressing
108
What are the s/sx of cauda equina syndrome?
Distended bladder
Flaccid rectal sphincter
Perineal saddle anesthesia
109
What is the general appearance of arterial insufficiency ulcers?
White base withOUT granulation tissue
110
What two systemic diseases should be evaluated for with chronic foot ulcers?
Diabetes
| Atherosclerotic disease
111
How do venous stasis ulcers usually appear?
Painless, with a granulating bed
112
What are Marjolin ulcers?
a squamous cell carcinoma of the skin developing in a chronic leg ulcer.
113
What is the treatment of plantar fasciitis?
Supportive, and removal of bone spur if bad
114
What is morton's neuroma? Treatment?
Inflammation of the common digital nerve at the third interspace between the third and fourth toes
Analgesic and shoes
115
What are the two drugs that are used for an acute attack of gout?
Indomethacin
| Colchicine
116
What are the two drugs that are used for chronic control for gout?
Allopurinol
| Probenecid
117
What is a normal ejection fraction? under what amount poses a prohibitive cardiac risk for noncardiac operations?
55% is normal
| Below 35% is risky
118
What are the components of Goldman's index of cardiac risk?
1. JVD
2. Recent MI
3. PVCs or any arrhythmia
4. age over 70
5. Emergency surgery
6. aortic valvular stenosis
7. poor medical condition
8. Surgery within the chest or abdomen
119
What is the issue with smoking and surgery? What is not?
Compromised ventilation (high pCO2, low FEV1)
NOT compromised oxygenation
120
Two clinical findings and three laboratory values are used to predict operative mortality in patients with liver disease. Name them
- Encephalopathy
- Ascites
- serum albumin
- prothrombin time (INR)
- Bilirubin
121
What are the indicators of severe malnutrition that is a contraindication to surgery?
- Loss of 20% body fat over a few month period
- Serum albumin below 3
- Serum transferrin below 200
122
What are the two drugs that classically precipitate malignant hyperthermia?
Halothane
| Succinylcholine
123
Severe wound pain and very high fever within hours of surgery = ?
gas gangrene
124
What is the sequence of things that cause post op feveR?
```
atelectasis
pneumonia
UTIs
DVTs
wound infection
Deep abscesses
```
125
What is the ultimate therapy for atelectasis?
bronchoscopy
126
Fever 2/2 a wound infection usually occurs after how many days post surgery?
7 days
127
What is the most common cause of MI in the perioperative setting?
Hypotension
128
What cannot be used to treat MIs in the post op setting? What should be?
Cannot use thrombolytics
Emergency angioplasty
Coronary stent placement
129
When do PEs usually occur in post op patients?
day 7
130
What will an ABG analysis show with a PE?
hypoxemia and hypocapnia
131
What is the treatment for PEs?
Heparin
132
What are the indications for an IVC filter?
Recurrent PEs in a patient that cannot take anticoagulants, or for whom they are ineffective
133
What are the signs of a developing tension pneumothorax?
Increased effort to bag
Decreased stats
BP declines
CVP rises
134
What is the first etiology that should be suspected in a post op patient that is disoriented and confused?
Hypoxia
135
What is the electrolyte abnormality associated with SIADH?
hyponatremia
136
What is the treatment for hypernatremia?
D5, 0.5NS
137
When is a straight and foley cath indicated for post op patients with urinary retention?
- Straight after 6 hours of no voiding.
| - Foley needed if need additional catheterizations
138
What happens to the fraction of excrete sodium in renal failure?
Decreases
139
Paralytic ileus is prolonged if there is what electrolyte abnormality?
Hypokalemia
140
paralytic ileus that does not resolve by 7 ish days should be suspicious for what etiology?
Mechanical bowel obstruction
141
What is ogilvie syndrome?
Common idiopathic ileus of the colon, usually found in alzheimer's patients.
Presents with abdominal distention, but no TTP
142
What is the drug that classically stimulates bowel motility? MOA?
Why should this not be used?
Neostigmine
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
Should not be used since if bowel obstruction, then lethal
143
what is the treatment for ogilvie's syndrome?
Colonoscopy
144
salmon colored fluid from an abdominal incision is suspicious for what?
Peritoneal fluid from wound dehiscence
145
What is the treatment for a wound dehiscence?
The wound has to be taped securely, the abdomen bound, and mobilization and coughing done with great care, while arrangements are made for prompt reoperation to prevent evisceration now or ventral hernia later on.
146
What is evisceration?
Where the skin itself opens up, and the abdominal contents rush out
147
what are the complications of fistulas in the GI tract?
Electrolyte disturbances
148
Every (__) mEq of Na above 140, correlates with 1 L of fluid loss.
3 mEq
149
What is the treatment for hypernatremia? Why this?
- D5 0.5 NS
| - prevent too rapid a correction, which can lead to pontine demyelination
150
What is the treatment for rapid onset hyponatremia?
hypertonic saline
151
Which is used for alkalotic patients, and which for acidotic patients: LR or NS?
NS if there is alkalosis
| LR if acidotic
152
What is the "speed limit" of potassium replacement?
10 mEq/ h
153
What is the ultimate therapy for hyperkalemia?
dialysis and 50% dextrose + insulin
154
What is a normal anion gap?
10 or 15
155
When is bicarb therapy indicated for acidosis? Why not all the time?
If the acidosis is 2/2 bicarb loss
Otherwise risks a rebound alkalosis when the underlying problem is corrected
156
One must be prepared to replace K as part of the therapy of acidosis. Why?
therapy. In long-standing acidosis, renal loss of K leads to a deficit that does not become obvious until the acidosis is corrected.
157
What is the treatment for metabolic alkalosis?
KCl
158
What is a Nissen fundoplication?
In a fundoplication, the gastric fundus (upper part) of the stomach is wrapped, or plicated, around the lower end of the esophagus and stitched in place, reinforcing the closing function of the lower esophageal sphincter. The esophageal hiatus is also narrowed down by sutures to prevent or treat concurrent hiatal hernia, in which the fundus slides up through the enlarged esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm.
159
What are the two diagnostic techniques for motility problems of the GI tract?
Manometry
| Ba swallow
160
Dysphagia that is worse for liquids = ?
Achalasia
161
What is the classic sign of esophageal perforation in the EGD setting?
Emphysematous neck
162
What is the initial treatment for a SBO?
NPO
NG suction
IVFs
Surgery if does not resolve within 24 hours
163
What is the difference in presentation of a bowel obstruction vs a strangulated obstruction?
Strangled will have peritoneal signs, as well as leukocytosis
164
What is the treatment for a strangulated obstruction?
Surgery
165
What is the treatment for a mechanical obstruction 2/2 an incarcerated hernia?
Manually reduce. If not able, then surgery
166
What is the usual presentation of cancer of the right colon?
Asymptomatic anemia
167
What is the usual presentation of cancer of the left colon?
BRBPR
| Constipation and/or stool of narrow caliber
168
Are colonic polyps 2/2 peutz jeghers syndrome premalignant?
No
169
When is surgery indicated for crohn's disease?
Only if there are complications such as bleeding, stricture, or fistulaization.
170
UC can be treated surgically, but usually is not. Why not?
because it always requires removal of the rectal mucosa, raising the need for a stoma or an ileoanal anastomosis.
171
What is the best method of diagnosing c.diff?
Toxin screens
172
Should antidiarrheals be used to treat c.diff?
No
173
What is the DOC for c.diff?
Metronidazole
174
What are the indications for emergency colectomy from c.diff?
Severe leukocytosis (50,000+)
Serum lactate above 5
No response to treatment
175
What is the treatment for internal and external hemorrhoids?
```
Internal = band ligation
External = excision
```
176
What are the s/sx of anal fissures?
Exquisite pain with defecation, as well as bloody stools
177
What is the cause of anal fissures? Treatment?
Tight anal sphincter
Local botox,
topical NTG,
CCBs
178
Failure of an anal fistula is suspicious for what disease?
Crohn's disease
179
What is a possible complication of a perianal abscess, particularly in diabetic patients?
Necrotizing fasciitis
180
What is the usual presentation of SCC of the anus?
Fungating mass growing outside the anus, and inguinal lymph node involvement
181
What is the treatment for SCC of the anus? Prognosis?
Resection, Chemo, and radiation
| 90% success rate
182
Which is more common: upper or lower GI bleeds?
upper, by far
183
What is the first step in diagnosing GI bleeding?
Pass and NG tube for suction and look for blood. If there is, then it is an upper source
- If not, and no bile, then f/u with EGD (since duodenum not sampled)
- If not, but with bile, then do lower
184
If there is active bleeding from the lower GI tract, what should be done?
- If more than 2 ml/min, then go angiogram
| - If less than 0.5 m;L/min, then wait until stops, then colonoscopy
185
BRBPR in a child is almost always 2/2 what?
Meckel's diverticulum
186
What is the best therapeutic option for stress ulcers?
Angiographic embolization
187
What is the treatment for a perforated colon?
Emergent surgery
188
What is the presentation and treatment for primary peritonitis?
Mild generalized abdominal pain
| Abx
189
The treatment for a generalized acute abdomen is what?
Exploratory laparotomy
190
What are the x-ray findings of a volvulus?
air-fluid levels in the small bowel, very distended colon, and a huge air-filled loop in the right upper quadrant that tapers down toward the left lower quadrant with the shape of a “parrot’s beak.”
191
What is the treatment for a volvulus?
Proctosigmoidoscopic exam with the old rigid instrument resolves the acute problem. Rectal tube is left in. Recurrent cases need elective sigmoid resection.
192
ACute pain and GI bleeding (that is not hemorrhoids) = ?
ischemic colitis
193
What are the s/sx of a primary hepatoma?
vague RUQ pain, weight loss
194
What is the blood marker for a primary hepatoma?
alpha fetoprotein
195
What is the treatment for a pyogenic liver abscess?
Percutaneous drainage
196
What is the treatment for amebic abscesses of the liver?
Metronidazole
197
What is the relative level of bili in a patient with jaundice 2/2 hemolytic anemia?
5-8, (not 35-40)
198
What happens to direct and indirect bili with hepatocellular jaundice?
Both increase
199
True or false: obstructing gallstones are commonly seen on imaging
False
200
What is an ERCP?
An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP) is an invasive procedure that allows visualization and instrumentation of the biliary and pancreatic ducts. An endoscope descends into the duodenum, the ampulla is cannulated, and x-ray dye is injected.
