Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A2 > Dr. P's notes > Flashcards

Dr. P's notes Flashcards

1
Q

Which is taken care of first, the airway, or a cervical spine issue?

A

Airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If there is SQ emphysema in the neck, then what type of device is used to place an airway? Why?

A

Endoscope

Is a sign of major trauma to the tracheobronchial tree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What happens to CVP with tension pneumothorax and pericardial tamponade respectively?

A

Both elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the type of fluid used in the trauma patient

A

2 L of LR, followed by packed RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is it appropriate to wait to obtain a CXR for a tension pneumothorax?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the treatment for cardiogenic shock?

A

Do not administer fluids or blood–circulatory support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens to CVP with cardiogenic shock?

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the general indication for surgical treatment of a skull fracture?

A

Left alone if they are closed–open, comminuted, or depressed fractures require surgical intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What other part of the body must be assessed/imaged if there is a basilar skull fracture?

A

C-spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of intubation must be avoided in patients with a basilar skull fracture?

A

Nasotracheal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three components that can cause neurological damage in the head trauma patient?

A
  • Initial blow
  • Hematoma that develops afterward
  • Increased ICP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the classic sequence of events for an epidural hematoma?

A

Trauma, unconsciousness, lucid interval, coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lens-shaped hematoma = ?

A

Epidural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Semilunar, crescent shaped infarct = ?

A

Subdural hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or false: mannitol is contraindicated in an acute subdural hematoma

A

False–indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the treatment for diffuse axonal injury?

A

Decrease ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the cause of a subdural hematoma?

A

Rupture of bridging veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or false: hypovolemic shock cannot happen from intracrainial bleeding

A

True–not enough space for the bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the general workup for penetrating neck trauma to the upper zone?

A

Arteriographic study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the general workup for penetrating neck trauma to the base of the neck?

A

arteriography
Esophagogram
Esophagoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or false: Stab wounds to the upper and middle zones in asymptomatic patients can be safely observed.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the s/sx of Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

Loss of pain contralateral

Loss of proprioception ipsilateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the s/sx of anterior cord syndrome?

A

Loss of motor function and loss of pain/ temp sensation on both side distal to the injury
-Preserved proprioception and vibratory sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the cause, and s/sx of central cord syndrome?

A

Forced hyperextension of the neck

-Paralysis and burning pain in the UE, but normal LE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the treatment for a rib fracture?

A

Local nerve block and an epidural catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a common complication of a rib fracture in an elderly patient?

A

Atelectasis 2/2 pain, leading to pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the treatment for a sucking chest wound?

A

Three sided flap to let air out, but not in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What happens to the chest with flail chest?

A

Goes out during expiration, and in during inspiration (paradoxical breathing pattern)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the problem with a flail chest? What is the appropriate management?

A

Consution of the lung

Fluid restriction and the use of diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the treatment for a pulmonary contusion?

A

Deteriorating ABGs, white out on CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of injury usually produces a traumatic rupture of the aorta? S/sx?

A
  • Sudden deceleration

- Asymptomatic until adventitia that is holding in the blood ruptures and kills the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the s/sx of a traumatic rupture of the trachea?

A

Emphysema in the upper chest or lower neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Emphysema in the upper chest is suspicious for what disorders?

A

Esophageal rupture
Tracheal rupture
Tension penumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the treatment for an air embolism?

A

Left side down

cardiac massage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the treatment for a fat embolism?

A

Respiratory support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the two major indications for avoiding laparoscopic exploration of a stab wound?

A
  • No bulging viscera or peritoneal signs

- VSS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When does blunt trauma to the abdomen require laparoscopic exploration?

A

If there are signs of peritoneal irritation or shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the three locations in the body that can hide blood in trauma?

A

Thighs
Abdomen
Pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the old alternative to a FAST exam?

A

Peritoneal lavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the treatment for intraoperative development of coagulopathy?

A

Ffp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the exams that should be done on a patient with a pelvic fracture?

A

Retrograde urethrogram pelvic exam, and DRE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the Hallmark symptom of Urologic injury?

A

Hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What prostate finding is associated with urethral injuries in men?

A

High riding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What should be done in a suspected case of a urethral injury?

A

Retrograde urethrogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When are scrotal hematomas concerning?

A

If the testicle is ruptured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the order of repair in terms of the following: nerves vasculature bone?

A

Bone
Vasculature
Nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why give copious amounts of IVFs with electrical burns?

A

Myoglobinemia may lead to renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the best diagnostic criteria to determine if someone with smoke inhalation injury needs oxygen?

A

ABGs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the concern with circumferential burns of the extremities?

A

Cut off blood supply as edema accumulated underneath the eschar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are escharotomies, and what are their indications?

A

Breakdown of an eschar

Done in the case of circumferential burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What causes the hypovolemic shock in burn patients?

A

Movement of fluids into burn areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the goal urine output and CVP in burn patients?

A
  • 2 mL/kg/hr

- Avoid CVP over 15 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the protocol for burn patients with over 20% burn surface area?

A

1 L / h of LR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the standard topical agent for burn patients?

A

Silver sulfadiazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When is a skin graft indicated for a burn patient?

A

If not healed after 2-3 weeks of supportive measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are the signs of envenomation of a snake bite?

A

severe local pain, swelling, and discoloration developing within 30 minutes of the bite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

True or false: Antivenin dosage relates to size of the envenomation, not size of the patient

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the only valid first aid technique for a snake bite?

A

Splint the extremity (no icing, tourniquet, or cutting)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the coral snakes colors, and why are these concerning?

A

Red on yellow, kill a fellow

Deadly neurotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the characteristic feature of black widow spiders, and what is the antidote to their venom?

A

Red hourglass on stomach

IV calcium gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the treatment for brown recluse spider bites?

A

Surgical excision PRN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the treatment for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Treatment is abduction splinting with Pavlik harness for about 6 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease? S/sx?

A

Avascular necrosis of the femoral epiphysis

insidious development of limping, decreased hip motion, and hip (or knee) pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is slipped capital femoral epiphysis? S/sx?

A

When they sit with the legs dangling, the sole of the foot on the affected side points toward the other foot. On physical exam there is limited hip motion, and as the hip is flexed the thigh goes into external rotation and cannot be rotated internally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the general position that patients place their hip in with a septic hip?

A

Flexed, slight abduction, and external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Genu varum is normal up to what age?

A

3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Genu valgum is normal between what ages?

A

4-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is osgood-Schlatter disease? S/sx?

A

(osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercle) is seen in teenagers with persistent pain right over the tibial tubercle, which is aggravated by contraction of the quadriceps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is clubfoot (talipes equinovarus)?

A

Both feet are turned inward, and there is plantar flexion of the ankle, inversion of the foot, adduction of the forefoot, and internal rotation of the tibia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the treatment for club foot?

A

Serial plaster casts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How do supracondylar fractures of the humerus usually happen? What is the major complication that can arise from this?

A

FOOSH

Vascular or nerve injuries can easily occur, and they could lead to Volkmann contracture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When is open reduction and fixation required when a growth plate is involved?

A

If the plate itself it broken, not just displaced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the age range that bone tumors usually affect?

A

10-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What part of the bone does Ewing’s sarcoma usually affect?

A

Diaphysis of long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are some of the common presenting symptoms of bone cancers?

A

Fractures or bone pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Where do most metastatic bone cancers come from in women and men?

A 
Women = breast
Men = prostate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the drug that can be used it multiple myeloma if chemotherapy is ineffective?

A

Thalidomide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the usual position of the arm when the shoulder is anteriorly dislocated? Posteriorly?

A

Anterior = Close to body, but like about to shake your hand

Posterior = close in and internally rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is a colles fracture? treatment?

A

fracture and posterior displacement of the distal radius

Treat with close reduction and long arm cast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is a monteggia fracture?

A

Night stick fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is a galeazzi fracture?

A

one: the distal third of the radius gets the direct blow and has the fracture, and there is dorsal dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint.

82
Q

What is the treatment for a scaphoid fracture?

A

thumb spica

83
Q

What is the treatment for a metacarpal neck fracture(s)?

A

Closed reduction and ulnar gutter splint

84
Q

What is the classic presentation of a hip dislocation?

A

Affected leg is shortened and externally rotated

85
Q

How are intertrochanteric fractures treated?

A

Open reduction and internal fixation

86
Q

How are femoral shaft fractures treated?

A

intramedullary rod placement, but orthopedic emergency if open

87
Q

What is the best and fastest way to determine if a knee injury is serious or not?

A

if there is swelling

88
Q

What is the classic symptom of meniscal tears?

A

Clicking or locking

89
Q

What is the treatment for tibial stress fracture?

A

Cast /crutches and repeat x-ray in two weeks

90
Q

What are the most common areas of the body to develop compartment syndrome?

A

distal leg

Forearm

91
Q

What is the treatment for an achilles tendon rupture?

A

Casting in equinus position

92
Q

When are fractures of the ankle fixed with open reduction?

A

If fragments are displaced.

93
Q

What is the treatment for gas gangrene?

A

IV PCN, emergency surgical debridement, and hyperbaric oxygen

94
Q

How does the leg appear with a posterior hip dislocation?

A

leg shortened, adducted, and internally rotated.

95
Q

What is the classic motor deficit associated with radial nerve injury?

A

Inability to extend the wrist

96
Q

True or false: even if the patient regains function in the distribution of the radial nerve after splinting, they need surgical exploration

A

False

97
Q

How is the popliteal artery usually injured?

A

Posterior dislocation of the knee

98
Q

What does it mean to follow the direction of force with injuries?

A

follow lines of force to assess other bones that may be impacted

99
Q

Facial fractures always necessitate the need to evaluate what other part of the body?

A

Neck

100
Q

What is the treatment for radial nerve compression?

A

Splints and antiinflammatories

Electromyography + surgery if that doesn’t work

101
Q

What is the first line therapy for trigger finger?

A

Steroids, then refer to surgery

102
Q

Where is the pain with De Quervain tenosynovitis?

A

radial side of the wrist and the first dorsal compartment

103
Q

What is a felon? Treatment?

A

An abscess in the pulp of a fingertip, caused by a neglected penetrating injury

Drain it

104
Q

What is jersey finger, and what is the treatment?

A

injury to the flexor tendon when the flexed finger is forcefully extended

splint

105
Q

What is mallet finger? Treatment?

A

Extended finger is forcefully flexed, and the extensor tendon is ruptured

106
Q

What is the progression of symptoms with a disc herniation?

A

vague, discogenic pain from anterior ligament compression, then neurogenic pain

107
Q

What is the treatment for a ruptured disc?

A

Spinal block, and rest

Surgery if neurological symptoms are progressing

108
Q

What are the s/sx of cauda equina syndrome?

A

Distended bladder
Flaccid rectal sphincter
Perineal saddle anesthesia

109
Q

What is the general appearance of arterial insufficiency ulcers?

A

White base withOUT granulation tissue

110
Q

What two systemic diseases should be evaluated for with chronic foot ulcers?

A

Diabetes

Atherosclerotic disease

111
Q

How do venous stasis ulcers usually appear?

A

Painless, with a granulating bed

112
Q

What are Marjolin ulcers?

A

a squamous cell carcinoma of the skin developing in a chronic leg ulcer.

113
Q

What is the treatment of plantar fasciitis?

A

Supportive, and removal of bone spur if bad

114
Q

What is morton’s neuroma? Treatment?

A

Inflammation of the common digital nerve at the third interspace between the third and fourth toes

Analgesic and shoes

115
Q

What are the two drugs that are used for an acute attack of gout?

A

Indomethacin

Colchicine

116
Q

What are the two drugs that are used for chronic control for gout?

A

Allopurinol

Probenecid

117
Q

What is a normal ejection fraction? under what amount poses a prohibitive cardiac risk for noncardiac operations?

A

55% is normal

Below 35% is risky

118
Q

What are the components of Goldman’s index of cardiac risk?

A
  1. JVD
  2. Recent MI
  3. PVCs or any arrhythmia
  4. age over 70
  5. Emergency surgery
  6. aortic valvular stenosis
  7. poor medical condition
  8. Surgery within the chest or abdomen
119
Q

What is the issue with smoking and surgery? What is not?

A

Compromised ventilation (high pCO2, low FEV1)

NOT compromised oxygenation

120
Q

Two clinical findings and three laboratory values are used to predict operative mortality in patients with liver disease. Name them

A
  • Encephalopathy
  • Ascites
  • serum albumin
  • prothrombin time (INR)
  • Bilirubin
121
Q

What are the indicators of severe malnutrition that is a contraindication to surgery?

A
  • Loss of 20% body fat over a few month period
  • Serum albumin below 3
  • Serum transferrin below 200
122
Q

What are the two drugs that classically precipitate malignant hyperthermia?

A

Halothane

Succinylcholine

123
Q

Severe wound pain and very high fever within hours of surgery = ?

A

gas gangrene

124
Q

What is the sequence of things that cause post op feveR?

A 
atelectasis
pneumonia
UTIs
DVTs
wound infection
Deep abscesses
125
Q

What is the ultimate therapy for atelectasis?

A

bronchoscopy

126
Q

Fever 2/2 a wound infection usually occurs after how many days post surgery?

A

7 days

127
Q

What is the most common cause of MI in the perioperative setting?

A

Hypotension

128
Q

What cannot be used to treat MIs in the post op setting? What should be?

A

Cannot use thrombolytics

Emergency angioplasty
Coronary stent placement

129
Q

When do PEs usually occur in post op patients?

A

day 7

130
Q

What will an ABG analysis show with a PE?

A

hypoxemia and hypocapnia

131
Q

What is the treatment for PEs?

A

Heparin

132
Q

What are the indications for an IVC filter?

A

Recurrent PEs in a patient that cannot take anticoagulants, or for whom they are ineffective

133
Q

What are the signs of a developing tension pneumothorax?

A

Increased effort to bag
Decreased stats
BP declines
CVP rises

134
Q

What is the first etiology that should be suspected in a post op patient that is disoriented and confused?

A

Hypoxia

135
Q

What is the electrolyte abnormality associated with SIADH?

A

hyponatremia

136
Q

What is the treatment for hypernatremia?

A

D5, 0.5NS

137
Q

When is a straight and foley cath indicated for post op patients with urinary retention?

A
  • Straight after 6 hours of no voiding.

- Foley needed if need additional catheterizations

138
Q

What happens to the fraction of excrete sodium in renal failure?

A

Decreases

139
Q

Paralytic ileus is prolonged if there is what electrolyte abnormality?

A

Hypokalemia

140
Q

paralytic ileus that does not resolve by 7 ish days should be suspicious for what etiology?

A

Mechanical bowel obstruction

141
Q

What is ogilvie syndrome?

A

Common idiopathic ileus of the colon, usually found in alzheimer’s patients.

Presents with abdominal distention, but no TTP

142
Q

What is the drug that classically stimulates bowel motility? MOA?

Why should this not be used?

A

Neostigmine

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

Should not be used since if bowel obstruction, then lethal

143
Q

what is the treatment for ogilvie’s syndrome?

A

Colonoscopy

144
Q

salmon colored fluid from an abdominal incision is suspicious for what?

A

Peritoneal fluid from wound dehiscence

145
Q

What is the treatment for a wound dehiscence?

A

The wound has to be taped securely, the abdomen bound, and mobilization and coughing done with great care, while arrangements are made for prompt reoperation to prevent evisceration now or ventral hernia later on.

146
Q

What is evisceration?

A

Where the skin itself opens up, and the abdominal contents rush out

147
Q

what are the complications of fistulas in the GI tract?

A

Electrolyte disturbances

148
Q

Every (__) mEq of Na above 140, correlates with 1 L of fluid loss.

A

3 mEq

149
Q

What is the treatment for hypernatremia? Why this?

A
  • D5 0.5 NS

- prevent too rapid a correction, which can lead to pontine demyelination

150
Q

What is the treatment for rapid onset hyponatremia?

A

hypertonic saline

151
Q

Which is used for alkalotic patients, and which for acidotic patients: LR or NS?

A

NS if there is alkalosis

LR if acidotic

152
Q

What is the “speed limit” of potassium replacement?

A

10 mEq/ h

153
Q

What is the ultimate therapy for hyperkalemia?

A

dialysis and 50% dextrose + insulin

154
Q

What is a normal anion gap?

A

10 or 15

155
Q

When is bicarb therapy indicated for acidosis? Why not all the time?

A

If the acidosis is 2/2 bicarb loss

Otherwise risks a rebound alkalosis when the underlying problem is corrected

156
Q

One must be prepared to replace K as part of the therapy of acidosis. Why?

A

therapy. In long-standing acidosis, renal loss of K leads to a deficit that does not become obvious until the acidosis is corrected.

157
Q

What is the treatment for metabolic alkalosis?

A

KCl

158
Q

What is a Nissen fundoplication?

A

In a fundoplication, the gastric fundus (upper part) of the stomach is wrapped, or plicated, around the lower end of the esophagus and stitched in place, reinforcing the closing function of the lower esophageal sphincter. The esophageal hiatus is also narrowed down by sutures to prevent or treat concurrent hiatal hernia, in which the fundus slides up through the enlarged esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm.

159
Q

What are the two diagnostic techniques for motility problems of the GI tract?

A

Manometry

Ba swallow

160
Q

Dysphagia that is worse for liquids = ?

A

Achalasia

161
Q

What is the classic sign of esophageal perforation in the EGD setting?

A

Emphysematous neck

162
Q

What is the initial treatment for a SBO?

A

NPO
NG suction
IVFs
Surgery if does not resolve within 24 hours

163
Q

What is the difference in presentation of a bowel obstruction vs a strangulated obstruction?

A

Strangled will have peritoneal signs, as well as leukocytosis

164
Q

What is the treatment for a strangulated obstruction?

A

Surgery

165
Q

What is the treatment for a mechanical obstruction 2/2 an incarcerated hernia?

A

Manually reduce. If not able, then surgery

166
Q

What is the usual presentation of cancer of the right colon?

A

Asymptomatic anemia

167
Q

What is the usual presentation of cancer of the left colon?

A

BRBPR

Constipation and/or stool of narrow caliber

168
Q

Are colonic polyps 2/2 peutz jeghers syndrome premalignant?

A

No

169
Q

When is surgery indicated for crohn’s disease?

A

Only if there are complications such as bleeding, stricture, or fistulaization.

170
Q

UC can be treated surgically, but usually is not. Why not?

A

because it always requires removal of the rectal mucosa, raising the need for a stoma or an ileoanal anastomosis.

171
Q

What is the best method of diagnosing c.diff?

A

Toxin screens

172
Q

Should antidiarrheals be used to treat c.diff?

A

No

173
Q

What is the DOC for c.diff?

A

Metronidazole

174
Q

What are the indications for emergency colectomy from c.diff?

A

Severe leukocytosis (50,000+)
Serum lactate above 5
No response to treatment

175
Q

What is the treatment for internal and external hemorrhoids?

A 
Internal = band ligation
External = excision
176
Q

What are the s/sx of anal fissures?

A

Exquisite pain with defecation, as well as bloody stools

177
Q

What is the cause of anal fissures? Treatment?

A

Tight anal sphincter

Local botox,
topical NTG,
CCBs

178
Q

Failure of an anal fistula is suspicious for what disease?

A

Crohn’s disease

179
Q

What is a possible complication of a perianal abscess, particularly in diabetic patients?

A

Necrotizing fasciitis

180
Q

What is the usual presentation of SCC of the anus?

A

Fungating mass growing outside the anus, and inguinal lymph node involvement

181
Q

What is the treatment for SCC of the anus? Prognosis?

A

Resection, Chemo, and radiation

90% success rate

182
Q

Which is more common: upper or lower GI bleeds?

A

upper, by far

183
Q

What is the first step in diagnosing GI bleeding?

A

Pass and NG tube for suction and look for blood. If there is, then it is an upper source

  • If not, and no bile, then f/u with EGD (since duodenum not sampled)
  • If not, but with bile, then do lower
184
Q

If there is active bleeding from the lower GI tract, what should be done?

A
  • If more than 2 ml/min, then go angiogram

- If less than 0.5 m;L/min, then wait until stops, then colonoscopy

185
Q

BRBPR in a child is almost always 2/2 what?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

186
Q

What is the best therapeutic option for stress ulcers?

A

Angiographic embolization

187
Q

What is the treatment for a perforated colon?

A

Emergent surgery

188
Q

What is the presentation and treatment for primary peritonitis?

A

Mild generalized abdominal pain

Abx

189
Q

The treatment for a generalized acute abdomen is what?

A

Exploratory laparotomy

190
Q

What are the x-ray findings of a volvulus?

A

air-fluid levels in the small bowel, very distended colon, and a huge air-filled loop in the right upper quadrant that tapers down toward the left lower quadrant with the shape of a “parrot’s beak.”

191
Q

What is the treatment for a volvulus?

A

Proctosigmoidoscopic exam with the old rigid instrument resolves the acute problem. Rectal tube is left in. Recurrent cases need elective sigmoid resection.

192
Q

ACute pain and GI bleeding (that is not hemorrhoids) = ?

A

ischemic colitis

193
Q

What are the s/sx of a primary hepatoma?

A

vague RUQ pain, weight loss

194
Q

What is the blood marker for a primary hepatoma?

A

alpha fetoprotein

195
Q

What is the treatment for a pyogenic liver abscess?

A

Percutaneous drainage

196
Q

What is the treatment for amebic abscesses of the liver?

A

Metronidazole

197
Q

What is the relative level of bili in a patient with jaundice 2/2 hemolytic anemia?

A

5-8, (not 35-40)

198
Q

What happens to direct and indirect bili with hepatocellular jaundice?

A

Both increase

199
Q

True or false: obstructing gallstones are commonly seen on imaging

A

False

200
Q

What is an ERCP?

A

An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP) is an invasive procedure that allows visualization and instrumentation of the biliary and pancreatic ducts. An endoscope descends into the duodenum, the ampulla is cannulated, and x-ray dye is injected.

A2 (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions