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A2 > USMLE 2 Review > Flashcards

USMLE 2 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What gallbladder disease is associated with ulcerative colitis?

A

Sclerosing cholangitis

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2
Q

What are the s/sx of a partial bowel obstruction? What is the appropriate treatment?

A
  • Bilious emesis, but still able to pass flatus

- NPO, IVFs, and NG suction. O/w supportive

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3
Q

What are the s/sx of a complete bowel obstruction? What is the appropriate treatment?

A
  • Bilious emesis, inability to pass flatus.

- Emergent laparotomy

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of death of patients with mitral stenosis 2/2 rheumatic fever?

A

CHF

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5
Q

What are the 6 P’s of compartment syndrome?

A 
Pain
Pulselessness
Paresthesias
Passive stretch pain
Pallor
Paralysis
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6
Q

What is the diagnostic test and treatment of choice for cholangitis?

A

ERCP

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7
Q

Air in the gallbladder wall = ?

A

Emphysematous cholecystitis (caused by gas producing bacteria)

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8
Q

Patient who are allergic to PABA cannot receive which local anesthetic class?

A

esters

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9
Q

What is the order of loss of nerve conduction sensations with local anesthetics? (5)

A 
Pain
Temp
Touch
Proprioception
Skeletal muscle tone
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10
Q

What parts of the body should not receive local anesthetics with vasoconstrictors? (4)

A

Nose
Digits
Penis
Ear

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11
Q

What, technically, is an abrasion?

A

Superficial loss of epithelial elements, with portions of the dermis remaining intact

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12
Q

What are the three major phases of wound healing?

A

-

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13
Q

What are the different types of chronic wounds (4)?

A
  • Pressure ulcers
  • venous Stasis
  • Arterial insufficiency
  • Diabetic neuropathic ulcers
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14
Q

What is the treatment for pressure ulcers?

A

Movement

Saline moistened gauze

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15
Q

What is the treatment of venous stasis ulcers?

A

Compression

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16
Q

What causes the skin pigmentation associated with venous stasis ulcers?

A

Deposition of hemosiderin

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17
Q

What causes arterial insufficiency ulcers?

A

Plaque buildup lowers arterial blood delivery`

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18
Q

What is the treatment for arterial insufficiency ulcers?

A

Re Cannulate the artery or

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19
Q

What is the treatment for flash pulmonary edema 2/2 a-fib?

A

Cardioversion

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20
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

A

Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head that occurs most commonly in boys 4-10 years old. The parent typically reports that the child limps and complains of occasional hip or knee pain, as in this case. Early x-ray studies will show an increase in the density of the femoral head compared with the asymptomatic side.

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21
Q

What is the size of a carcinoid tumor at the appendix that is an indication for a right hemicolectomy?

A

More than 2 cm

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22
Q

What are the s/sx of a complete bowel obstruction?

A

Crampy, intermittent abdominal pain, increased BSm obstipation

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23
Q

What are the s/sx of paralytic ileus?

A

No BS
No focal TTP
Air throughout colon and small intestines

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24
Q

What are the IQ levels of mild, moderate, severe, and profound MR?

A 
Mild = 50-70
Moderate = 35-49
Severe = 20-34
Profound = less than 20
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25
Q

Who is more likely to develop HTN from OCPs? (4)

A
  • h/o pregnancy related HTN
  • obese women
  • over 35 years old
  • Long time taking OCPs
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26
Q

What are the CXR findings suggestive of miliary TB?

A

Reticulonodular infiltrates spread evenly throughout both lung fields

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27
Q

Over how many centimeters are pulmonary nodules suspicious for cancer? What growth rate?

A

more than 3 cm

If doubles faster than every 2 years

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28
Q

What are the classic s/sx of an epidural abscess?

A

Fever, back pain, and midline spinal TTP

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29
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice for a suspected epidural abscess?

A

MRI

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30
Q

What are the classic histological findings for sarcoidosis?

A

Schaumann bodies and asteroid bodies

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31
Q

What is the classic pathogen that causes meningitis with elevated opening pressure in AIDS pts?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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32
Q

What labs are needed to to start a pt on an anti-HTN med? (3)

A

BMP
UA
Lipids

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33
Q

What is the role of citrate in the treatment of uric acid renal stones?

A

Turns to bicarb in the liver, and causes alkalinization of the urine

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34
Q

What type of hypersensitivity rxn is psoriasis?

A

Type IV

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35
Q

What are the classic PE findings of psoriasis?

A

Silvery plaques over extensor surfaces that bleed when scraped. Npt painful or pruritic.

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36
Q

What translocation produces follicular lymphoma?

A

t(14;18)

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37
Q

Which lymphoma does not need to be treated until symptomatic?

A

Follicular lymphoma

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38
Q

What needs to be checked frequently in patients with controlled pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Eyes–perimetry field testing

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39
Q

What is the therapy for pseudotumor cerebri (idiopathic intracranial HTN)? (2)

A

Lose weight

Acetazolamide

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40
Q

What is the first line drug in the treatment of thyroid storm?

A

Beta blockers

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41
Q

What is the treatment regimen for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy?

A

PTU for first trimester, then methimazole for second

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42
Q

What type of vaccine is the varicella vaccine?

A

Live attenuated

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43
Q

What is factitious thyrotoxicosis?

A

Administration of thyroid hormone in an attempt to lose weight

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44
Q

What malignancy is notorious for causing DI?

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

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45
Q

What is the hematological effect of desmopressin?

A

Increases vWF

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46
Q

Which abx can be used to treat SIADH? MOA (abx effect)?

A

Demeclocycline

Binds reversibly to 30x ribosomal subunit

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47
Q

What is the medical prophylaxis for small-medium esophageal varices? MOA?

A

Non-selective Beta blockers

Block adrenergic dilator tone in mesenteric arterioles

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48
Q

What is the protocol regarding vaccinations in a pt s/p bone marrow transplant?

A

vaccinate 3-6 months post op, avoid live attenuated for 24 months.

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49
Q

How does calcium restriction lead to an increase in renal stone formation?

A

Less Ca in diet mean more oxalate is absorbed from intestines, since no Ca to bind it. Oxalate then precipitates into kidneys, and pulls Ca with it, causing stones.

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50
Q

What are the three classic GI problem associated with Henoch-schonlein purpura?

A

Intussusception
Pancreatitis
Cholecystitis

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51
Q

What is the eye condition that patients with HLA-b27 are at increased risk of developing?

A

Anterior uveitis

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52
Q

What are the sizes of thyroid nodules that require bx if the TSH is normal?

A

If the nodule is solid and over 1 cm, FNA is indicated

If the nodule is mixed cystic and solid, 1.5 cm is needed.

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53
Q

What are the indications to begin statin therapy? (4)

A

DM
Atherosclerotic disease
LDL-C of 190 or higher
10 ASCVD risk of 7.5% or greater

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54
Q

How long does it take HIT to develop?

A

4-10 days if this is first exposure

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55
Q

What happens with HIT?

A

Thrombocytopenia, and a hypercoagulable state 2/2 platelet activation

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56
Q

What is the treatment for HIT?

A

Stop heparin, and switch to direct thrombin inhibitor, like argatroban or lepirudin

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57
Q

What is the MOA of carbidopa in the treatment of PD?

A

Increases L-dopa entry into the brain, by preventing its peripheral conversion to dopamine

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58
Q

What are the extrarenal symptoms of ADPKD?

A

Intracranial berry aneurysms

Mitral valve prolapse

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59
Q

What are the kidneys like with ADPKD? ARPKD?

A

Big with ADPKD

Small with ARPKD

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60
Q

What is the major extrarenal manifestation of ARPKD?

A

Liver cysts

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61
Q

What renal disease is associated with Hep B? What is the classic bx appearance of this?

A

Membranous nephropathy

Spike and dome

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62
Q

If a pt has a first degree relative diagnosed with colon cancer before age 50, when should they receive a colonoscopy?

A

10 years prior to their parent’s diagnosis

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63
Q

Which opioid can cause serotonin syndrome?

A

Meperidine

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64
Q

What is the MOA of phenelzine?

A

MAOI

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65
Q

What is the enzymatic deficiency of Gaucher’s disease?

A

glucocerebrosidase

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66
Q

Are bence jones proteins detected on a normal UA?

A

No

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67
Q

What are the classic CXR features of silicosis?

A

Calcifications of the hilar lymph nodes

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68
Q

What is POEMS syndrome?

A 
Polyneuropathy
Organomegaly
Endocrinopathy
Monoclonal protein
Skin changes
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69
Q

What are the s/sx of POEMS syndrome, besides the POEMS symptoms?

A

Sclerotic bone lesions
Anemia
hyperuricemia

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70
Q

What is the diagnostic test for POEMS syndrome? What does this show?

A

Urine and serum electrophoresis

Shows a monoclonal M spike

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71
Q

Is the rash in pityriasis rosea pruritic?

A

Yes

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72
Q

What is the prognosis for pityriasis rosea?

A

Self limiting within a few months

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73
Q

What are the two major sulfonylureas?

A

Glipizide

Glyburide

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74
Q

What are the electroscopic findings of carcinoid tumors?

A

Dense core granules

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75
Q

Pleural plaques on CXR = ?

A

Asbestosis

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76
Q

What are the auscultatory findings of asbestosis?

A

Fine end inspiratory crackles

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77
Q

How can NSAIDs worsen dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

increase afterload and affect cardiac output by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis (eliminated their effects on vasodilation) and by counteracting the benefits of ACEIs

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78
Q

What is the pathophysiology of the restrictive lung disease caused by coal pneumoconiosis?

A

Macrophages eat up the coal, and fibrosis in response

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79
Q

What are the cardiac manifestations of silicosis?

A

cor pulmonale

RVH

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80
Q

What is the Na, K , and acid/base status of a pt with addison’s disease?

A

Hyponatremic, hyperkalemic acidosis

aldosterone causes H and K secretion

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81
Q

What psychiatric phenomenon can be seen with neurosyphilis?

A

Bipolar mania

82
Q

What are the first and second most common causes of erythema nodosum?

A

Idiopathic

2/2 post strep infx

83
Q

What are the skin findings of erythema nodosum?

A

Diffuse, tender, erythematous, indurated patches and nodules, usually over the anterior aspects of the tibias.

84
Q

What is the major difference in presentation between ARDS and hemodynamic pulmonary edema?

A

Normal capillary wedge pressure in ARDS since not a cardiac issue.

85
Q

What is the major difference between CML and AML?

A

AML has blasts in premature stages, whereas CML has blasts in many stages, including fully differentiated ones.

86
Q

If a pt only wants a sigmoidoscopy for colorectal CA screening, how many times must they get a stool guaiac test?

A

guaiac every three years, sigmoid every 5 years

87
Q

What is the treatment for hepatic abscesses caused by schistosomiasis?

A

Praziquantel

88
Q

What is the MOA of praziquantel?

A

Increases parasite cell membrane permeability to Ca, causing paralysis and contracture of the parasite

89
Q

Which diuretic class has a detrimental effect on lipids?

A

Thiazides

90
Q

What is the acute treatment for adrenal insufficiency?

A

Dexamethasone–not hydrocortisone/fludrocortisone acutely, since Na can be replaced with NS. These are long term drugs.

Hydrocortisone is preferred however if the patient is hyperkalemic

91
Q

What is the primary acid/base disturbance seen in a SBO? Why?

A

Metabolic alkalosis 2/2 emesis, causing a hypokalemic, hypochloremic, metabolic alkalosis

92
Q

Which type of study is used to calculate relative risk?

A

Cohort study

93
Q

When should K supplementation begin in the treatment of DKA?

A

When K levels are below or = to 4.5

94
Q

Where in the prostate is the most common site of CA formation?

A

Peripheral zone

95
Q

What is the appearance of a hematoma on CT?

A

solitary, well circumscribed nodule with a characteristic popcorn calcification pattern.

96
Q

What is the second line treatment for minimal change disease?

A

cyclophosphamide

97
Q

What is the MOA of ketoconazole in the treatment of Cushing’s disease?

A

Inhibits 17alpha hydroxylase

98
Q

What metabolic disturbance should be expected s/p parathyroid adenoma surgery?

A

Hypocalcemia

99
Q

What is the therapy for vertebral compression fractures in the absence of neurological signs?

A

Oral analgesics

100
Q

Which is more important to bx in a lung CA, the main mass, or nodes that are suspected to be involved?

A

Nodes, since staging information comes with it.

101
Q

What are the three common bacteria that cause sinusitis?

A

Haemophilus
Strep pneumo
Moraxella catarrhalis

102
Q

True or false: if a pt has dyslipidemia and DM, you should immediately start statins

A

True

103
Q

What is the first line therapy for open angle glaucoma?

A

Topical latanoprost or bimatoprost

104
Q

Why do HAs caused by brain tumors get better after vomiting, and are their worst in the morning?

A

Decreases ICP with emesis

Lying all night causes increased ICP

105
Q

What is osler-Weber-rendu syndrome?

A

an AD fibrovascular dysplasia, in which vascular lesions (e.g. telangiectasias, AV malformations, aneurysms) are found throughout the body

106
Q

What are the components of Cushing’s triad, and what does this suggest?

A

HTN
Bradycardia
Irregular respirations

107
Q

What is the most common CXR finding of histoplasmosis?

A

Solitary lung nodule

108
Q

What are the associations of histoplasmosis?

A

Birds

Travel to the midwest

109
Q

What are rales?

A

Low pitched, continuous crackles

110
Q

What are rhonchi?

A

Lower pitched wheezes

111
Q

What are the age range and points allotted in the CENTOR scoring system?

A

Age 3 to 14 years: +1 point
Age 15 to 45 years: 0 points
Age over 45 years: -1 point

112
Q

What should be done with a CENTOR score of: 0-1

A

Symptomatic treatment

113
Q

What should be done with a CENTOR score of: 2-3

A

Rapid strep test

114
Q

What should be done with a CENTOR score of: 4-5

A

Treat empirically with abx

115
Q

What is the cardinal feature of acute bronchitis?

A

Productive cough of more than 5 days duration

116
Q

What are the only two indications for starting antivirals after 48 hours of influenza?

A
  1. if the patient has moderate to severe community acquired pneumonia with findings consistent with influenza
  2. if the patient is clinically worsening at the time of the initial outpatient visit
117
Q

What is the recommended abx for typical and atypical PNU in children 3 months to adolescence?

A 
Typical = amoxicillin
Atypical = macrolides (e.g azithromycin)
118
Q

When can a child return to school with the flu?

A

After not having a fever for 24 hours

119
Q

If atypical PNU is suspected in a child, when should they get a cxr?

A

IF they’re hypoxic or being admitted

120
Q

What are the abx of choice for pnu in a neonate?

A

Ampicillin and gentamicin

121
Q

What are the abx of choice for pnu in a child 3 weeks - 3 months?

A

Ampicillin or PCN G or ceftriaxone

122
Q

What are the abx of choice for pnu in a child 3 months to 5 years?

A

Ampicillin or PCN G or amox

123
Q

Why is the BMI age and sex specific in children?

A

The amount of body fat changes with age.

The amount of body fat differs between girls and boys.

124
Q

What are the BMI values for healthy, overweight, and obese in children?

A 
Healthy = 5th-85th percentile 
overweight = 85-95th percentile
Obese = Greater than 95th percentile
125
Q

Over when BMI should children get a cholesterol screen?

A

Over the 85th percentile

126
Q

What LDL level indicates the need to begin treatment for children with, and without other risk factors?

A 
Without = over 190
With = over 160
127
Q

Drug treatment for hypercholesterolemia is appropriate for children in which tanner stage?

A

stage 2 OR achieved menarche.

128
Q

What is the prevalence of obesity in adolescents in the United States?

A

20%

129
Q

The American Academy of Pediatrics expert committee recommends:

  1. Children younger than (__) years old who have a BMI at or above the (__) percentile without secondary complications should attempt to maintain their weight.

Those with complications should pursue weight loss until their BMI is at or below the 85th percentile. The general recommendation is about one pound per month.

A

The American Academy of Pediatrics expert committee recommends:

  1. Children younger than seven years old who have a BMI at or above the 95 percentile without secondary complications should attempt to maintain their weight. Those with complications should pursue weight loss until their BMI is at or below the 85th percentile. The general recommendation is about one pound per month.
130
Q

What is the goal total and LDL cholesterol in children?

A

The guideline for normal cholesterol is less than 170 mg/dl for the total cholesterol level and the goal LDL level is less than 130 mg/dl.

131
Q

For children with LDL of greater than (___) mg/dl it is likely they have a familial hypercholesterolemia and should be referred to a pediatric lipid specialist.

A

190 mg/dL

132
Q

What are the components of the timed, up, and go test?

A
  1. Sit in the chair with your back to the chair and your arms resting in your lap.
  2. Without using your arms, stand up from the chair and walk 10 ft. (3m).
  3. Turn around, walk back to the chair, and sit down again.
133
Q

What are the values for the timed up and go test?

A

<10 secs=Freely mobile
< 20 secs=Mostly independent
20-29 secs= Variable mobility
> 30 secs=Impaired mobility

134
Q

What part of the heart secretes BNP? What chronic diseases can it be elevated in?

A

Ventricles

LVH or chronic CHF

135
Q

If a pt has a hemorrhagic condition that prevents them from being candidates for warfarin, what is the appropriate antiplatelet therapy?

A

Either ASA or clopidogrel, but not both since both increased bleeding risk similar to coumadin in these pts

136
Q

What are the components of the CHAD2DS2 VASc score?

A 
CHF (or LV systolic dysfunction)
HTN
Age over 75 (2)
DM
Stroke or TIA or thromboembolism
Vascular disease
Age 65-74
Sex, female (2)
137
Q

What drugs are first line therapy in treating HTN in a pt post stroke, for prevention of further strokes?

A

Thiazides or CCBs

138
Q

True or false: Low dose aspirin; confers equivalent benefit to high dose, and less bleeding risk

A

True

139
Q

What medication is recommended as first-line therapy for secondary prevention of noncardioembolic TIA or noncardioembolic stroke?

A

ASA

140
Q

What is the screening recommendation for lung CA?

A

Age 55-80 with a 30 or more pack year history who are currently smoking or quit smoking in the last 15 years

141
Q

What drug has been shown to improve outcomes in a stroke pt that is past the 4.5 hour mark for tPA?

A

ASA

142
Q

What is the risk of treating hypernatremia too quickly? Hyponatremia?

A

Treating hypernatremia = cerebral edema

Treating hyponatremia = pontine demyelination

143
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia caused by underlying MS is different from primary trigeminal neuralgia how?

A

MS usually causes bilateral pain

144
Q

What is preferred for first line treatment for gout: allopurinol or colchicine? Why?

A

Allopurinol since it has fewer side effects

145
Q

What is the MOA of allopurinol?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

146
Q

What does the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies indicate?

A

Asplenic pt

147
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for an asplenic sickle cell pt presenting with a significant fever, but is without pain? Why?

A

Start Vanco + ceftriaxone + supportive measures

At risk for postsplenectomy crisis–a rapidly fatal illness from encapsulated organisms

148
Q

What is the treatment for status epilepticus?

A

IV lorazepam + loading dose of phenytoin

149
Q

What is the Somogyi effect?

A

Nocturnal hypoglycemia induce morning hyperglycemia

150
Q

What drug (not oxygen) is used for treatment of acute cluster headaches? Prophylaxis?

A 
ACute = SQ sumatriptan
Prophylaxis = verapamil and/or topiramate
151
Q

What is the most common primary brain tumor in adults? Histological characteristics?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

Palisading necrosis

152
Q

What is the DOC for HTN with concurrent BPH?

A

Prazosin

153
Q

What is the dosing of amoxicillin for strep throat in children?

A

Amoxicillin dosing is 50 mg/kg divided 2-3 times a day for 10 days

154
Q

What is the best abx to use for strep throat?

A

PCN V since it had the narrowest spectrum of activity, and is the least likely to contribute to abx resistance

155
Q

When should you withhold vaccinations for kids (without immunodeficiency)?

A

Only if moderately or significantly sick

156
Q

What are the recommendations for screening for Pb toxicity? (3)

A
  • Does your child live in or regularly visit a house or child care facility built before 1950?
  • Does your child live in or regularly visit a house or child care facility built before 1978 that is being or has recently been renovated or remodeled (within the last six months)?
  • Does your child have a sibling or playmate who has or did have lead poisoning?
157
Q

What kids need to be screened for TB? (4)

A
  • Children infected with HIV
  • Incarcerated adolescents
  • Family member with TB
  • Born in/traveled to high risk country
158
Q

What is the age that a child can be diagnosed with ADHD?

A

6+ years

159
Q

What are the components of the APGAR score?

A 
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace
ACtivity
Respiration
160
Q

When should a neonate have returned to their birth weight?

A

After 2 weeks

161
Q

If a mother only produces a small amount of colostrum at the beginning of breastfeeding, is this a concern?

A

Not really-babies are adapted to not have much milk output in the first few days.

162
Q

When does an infant turn their head toward familiar sounds and faces?

A

4 weeks

163
Q

When can an infant begin to move their head from one side ot the other?

A

4 weeks

164
Q

When does an infant have smooth movements of their extremities?

A

4 weeks

165
Q

When does the rooting reflex disappear?

A

4 months

166
Q

When does baby colic start, peak, and end, usually?

A
  • Starts around two weeks
  • Peaks around 6 weeks
  • Ends around 12 weeks
167
Q

What are the s/sx of GERD in babies?

A

regurgitation

168
Q

What is the Wessel defintion (rule of threes) to diagnose colic

A

Unexplained paroxysmal bouts of fussing and crying that lasts at least three hours a day, at least three times a week, for longer than three weeks.

169
Q

An infant under what age with a fever requires admission to the hospital?

A

2 months

170
Q

How many hours a day are spent crying in a: 2 week old?

A

2 hours / day

171
Q

How many hours a day are spent crying in a: 6 week old

A

3 hours/day

172
Q

How many hours a day are spent crying in a: 3 month old

A

1 hour a day

173
Q

What are the PHQ-2 questions for postpartum depression screening?

A

During the past two weeks have you:

  • been depressed/down
  • had anhedonia
174
Q

What are the three major screening tools for postpartum depression?

A

Edinburgh postnatal depression scale
PHQ-2
PHQ-9

175
Q

How long do the postpartum blues last?

A

10 days

176
Q

How long after delivery can postpartum depression be diagnosed?

A

6 months

177
Q

When do Crigler-Najjar and gilbert syndromes usually present?

A

in adolescents

178
Q

How does biliary tract atresia present?

A

acholic stools over the first few weeks of life.

179
Q

How long can it take for milk production to begin after delivery?

A

72 hours

180
Q

What is progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

A parkinson’s disease-plus syndrome, that has onset at age 40, and consists of vertical ocular gaze paresis

181
Q

What is a major risk factor for the development of infective endocarditis in rheumatic heart disease?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

182
Q

What will a PBS show with DIC?

A

Schistocytes

183
Q

The cavernous sinus communicates directly with what vein?

A

Superior ophthalmic vein

184
Q

Which CNs are in the cavernous sinus?

A

III
IV
V (V1 and V2)
VI

185
Q

Heroin can cause what renal pathology?

A

FSGS

186
Q

If a patient presents with HTN, increased aldosterone, and increase renin activity, what is the underlying diagnosis?

A

Renovascular HTN or renin secreting tumor

187
Q

What is the effect of aldosterone on H+ levels?

A

Decreases since K follows H

188
Q

Why is it that PTH causes net Ca loss, but increased renal resorption of Ca?

A

Increased bone resorption overwhelms the kidney’s ability to absorb

189
Q

Who should be offered surgery for a PTH secreting adenoma or hyperparathyroidism?

A

Symptomatic hypercalcemia
Younger than 50 yo
Complications

190
Q

What has the best long term treatment option for patient with ESRD?

A

Renal transplant from a related individual

191
Q

What happens to diabetic neuropathy with dialysis vs renal transplant?

A

Transplants stops progression of neuropathy, whereas dialysis does nothing to halt disease

192
Q

What are the three major antiemetics that can cause EPS?

A

Metoclopramide
prochlorperazine
Promethazine

193
Q

What is the classic cause of pneumaturia without systemic s/sx of infection or CVA TTP?

A

Colovesical fistula, 2/2 diverticulitis

194
Q

What is the diagnostic imaging choice for colovesical fistula?

A

Oral or rectal contrast CT

195
Q

When is emergent treatment of hyperkalemia indicated?

A

If symptomatic and/or above 7.0

196
Q

What are the three EKG changes that occur with hyperkalemia?

A

Peaked T waves
Short QT
QRS widening

197
Q

Which STD usually precipitates episodes of reactive arthritis?

A

Chlamydia

198
Q

What is the MOA of demeclocycline?

A

Decreases responsiveness to ADH

199
Q

Analgesic use causes what type of AKI?

A

Interstitial nephritis

200
Q

What are the common lab findings of multiple myeloma? (3)

A
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Normocytic anemia
  • Protein gap (difference between total proteins and albumin over 4 g/dL)

A2 (26 decks)

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