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A2 > Peds Uworld review 2 > Flashcards

Peds Uworld review 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the weber and Rinne test?

A

Weber = tuning fork on top of head, detects bone conduction

Rinne = on mastoid process, then air

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2
Q

What determines an abnormal Rinne test?

A

-If bone conduction is heard longer than air conduction in affected ear (normal is reversed)

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3
Q

What sort of study design would be used to determine incidence of a disease?

A

Cohort study

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4
Q

What sort of study would be used to determine a disease prevalence?

A

Cross-section study

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5
Q

What is involved with a cross-sectional study?

A

Sample of individuals from a population at a given point in time to determine prevalence

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6
Q

What is the cause of physiologic jaundice of the newborn, and when does it typically appear/resolve?

A
  • Increased RBC breakdown and Decreased hepatic UDP glucuronosyltransferase activity.
  • Appears day 2-3, and resolves by 1-2 weeks.
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7
Q

At what level of bili is exchange transfusion indicated for physiologic jaundice of the newborn?

A

25 mg/dL

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8
Q

For how long is nocturnal enuresis normal?

A

Until age 5

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9
Q

Which gender typically requires more time to be fully toilet trained?

A

Boys

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10
Q

How can you differentiate between CVID and SCID?

A

CVID is due to abnormal maturation of B cells, but B and T cell counts are normal

SCID is due to T cell defects causing a low T cell count, and thus a low B cell count

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11
Q

Which gets better with ice pack application: myasthenia gravis or Lambert-Eaton syndrome?

A

MG, since this decreases breakdown of ACh in the synapse

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12
Q

What heart sound can classically be heard at onset of a new MI?

A

S4

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13
Q

What immunologic process is impaired with a splenectomy?

A

Antibody-facilitated phagocytosis, due to a loss of splenic macrophages

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14
Q

Which is associated with CF and which with down syndrome: meconium ileus vs Hirschsprung

A 
CF = meconium ileus
Hirschsprung's = DS
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15
Q

What is the level of obstruction seen with meconium ileus vs Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Hirschsprung’s = Rectosigmoid

Meconium ileus = Ileum

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16
Q

What is the “squirt sign” associated with Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Rectal exam produces an explosive discharge of stool and flatus

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17
Q

What associated conditions develop with Tourette syndrome? (2)

A

OCD and ADHD

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18
Q

What is the most common cause of lymphadenitis in children?

A

Staph Aureus

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19
Q

What gyn cancer is associated with Lynch syndrome?

A

Endometrial cancer

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20
Q

What is the general physiologic process that is impaired with Lynch syndrome?

A

DNA mismatch repair

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21
Q

What is the cause of a Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Failure to obliterate the vitelline (omphalomesenteric) duct

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22
Q

What is the diagnostic test for a Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Tch-99 pertechnetate scan

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23
Q

What are three conditions that can lead to pellagra (1 medication, 1 inherited disease, 1 acquired disease)?

A
  • Isoniazid (interference of Y metabolism)
  • Hartnup disease (Lack of Y uptake)
  • Carcinoid syndrome (consumption of Y)
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24
Q

What is the pharmacotherapy for Tourette’s disorder? (2)

A
  • Alpha-2-agonists if mild

- antipsychotics

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25
Q

What is the classic x-ray appearance of an osteosarcoma? What 2 labs are elevated?

A
  • Sunburst appearance on xray

- Elevated alk phos and LDH

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26
Q

What are the classic findings of fetal hydantoin syndrome?

A
  • Hypoplastic fingers/nails
  • Cleft lip/palate
  • MR
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27
Q

What is the role of x-rays in diagnosing osteonecrosis of the femoral head?

A

Will detect later findings, but not sensitive enough for early disease–need MRI

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28
Q

How long should pts with mono avoid contact sports?

A

Minimum of 3-4 weeks

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29
Q

What CT findings highly suggest a hydatid cyst 2/2 echinococcus granulosus?

A

Eggshell calcifications

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30
Q

What are simple hepatic cysts? S/sx? Imaging findings/?

A
  • Congenital cyst related to fluid secretion by epithelial lining
  • Dull RUQ pain, early satiety
  • No calcifications
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31
Q

What are the upper endoscopy findings of ZES?

A

Prominent gastric folds, multiple duodenal/jejunal ulcers

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32
Q

What is the treatment for persistent enuresis?

A
  • Bedwetting alarms/rewards

- Desmopressin if refractory

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33
Q

What are the adverse effects of desmopressin?

A

Since it is an ADH analogue, isovolemic hyponatremia

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34
Q

What is the appropriate diagnostic test for a Zenker’s diverticulum?

A

Contrast esophagram

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35
Q

What are the five components of metabolic syndrome?

A
  1. Abdominal obesity
  2. Impaired fasting BG
  3. HTN
  4. High triglycerides
  5. Low HDL
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36
Q

What is the pathogenesis of polycythemia in an infant?

A
  • In utero hypoxia causing increased RBC production

- Delayed cord clamping causing excessive placental blood transfer

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37
Q

What are the s/sx of polycythemia in a neonate?

A

RUddy complexion

-Respiratory distress and hypoxia d/t increased viscosity of the blood

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38
Q

What level of hematocrit is diagnostic of polycythemia in the neonate?

A

Over 65%

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39
Q

What are the s/sx of contact lens associated keratitis?

A
  • Conjunctival injection
  • Pain
  • Purulent d/c
  • Hazy cornea
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40
Q

What is the treatment for keratitis?

A

Emergent abx and removal of contact lens d/t risk of corneal perforation and loss of vision

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41
Q

What is disruptive mood dysregulation disorder?

A

-Adolescent mental disorder, characterized by persistently irritable or angry mood and frequent temper outbursts that are disproportionate to the situation

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42
Q

What is the pathophysiology for Osgood-Schlatter disease? What is the other term for this?

A
  • Traction apophysitis

- Periods of rapid growth cause tension on the quadriceps tendon and thus the apophysis of the tibial tubercle.

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43
Q

What is the common presentation of patellofemoral stress syndrome?

A

Overuse injury in runners characterized by anterior knee pain that worsens upon descending steps of hills.

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44
Q

What is the common presentation of patellar tendonitis?

A
  • Overuse syndrome resulting from repetitive jumping or kicking.
  • Anterior knee pain after exercise.
  • Point tenderness at the inferior pole of the patella
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45
Q

What are the five s/sx or lab results that indicate septic arthritis over transient tenosynoviits?

A
  • Fever over 101
  • Inability to bear weight
  • WBC over 12
  • ESR over 40
  • CRP over 2 mg/dL
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46
Q

What are the specific s/sx of congenital syphilis?

A
  • Snuffles
  • maculopapular rash that desquamates
  • Abnormal long bone radiographs
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47
Q

What are the cranial manifestations of CMV?

A

Ventricular calcifications

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48
Q

What lung manifestations may occur with exertional heat stroke?

A

ARDS

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49
Q

What is the difference in treatment in exertional vs nonexertional heat stroke?

A
  • Exertional = ice water bath immersion

- Non-exertional = evaporative cooling

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50
Q

What are the pupils like with anticholinergic toxicity?

A

nonreactive mydriasis

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51
Q

how long do abscence seizures typically last? What sort of movements may be seen?

A
  • Less than 20 seconds

- Simple automatisms (but no more complex motor movements)

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52
Q

What is the treatment for mil, moderate, and severe hypothermia?

A
  • Mild = Passive external warming (90 F+)
  • Moderate = active external warming (warm baths, heating pads) (82-90 F)
  • Severe = Peritoneal irrigation with warm fluids (less than 82 F)
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53
Q

What vitamin has been shown to decrease mortality in Measles?

A

Vitamin A

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54
Q

How does the rash progress with Measles?

A

Cephalocaudal

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55
Q

What is the emergent treatment for uterine bleeding in a hemodynamically stable pt?

A

High dose oral estrogen/progestin contraceptive pills

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56
Q

What is the emergent treatment for uterine bleeding in a hemodynamically unstable patient?

A

D and C and/or pRBC infusion

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57
Q

What happens to the following with Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia:

  • T cell count
  • B cell count
  • IgA levels
  • IgG levels
  • IgE levels
  • IgM levels
A
  • T cell count elevated
  • B cell count markedly reduced
  • All Ig levels markedly reduced
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58
Q

What happens to the following with CIVD:

  • T cell levels
  • B cell levels
  • IgA levels
  • IgG levels
  • IgE levels
  • IgM levels
A
  • T cell counts normal
  • B cell counts normal
  • All Ig levels markedly reduced
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59
Q

What is the cause of SCID, and what happens to T cells, B cells, and Ig levels because of this?

A

-Impaired T cell development and thus subsequent B cell dysfunction
Both B and T cell counts reduced, and thus Ig levels down

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60
Q

What is transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy?

A
  • transient decrease in IgG levels (variable IgM levels)
  • Normal B and T cell concentrations
  • Basically worse infections until 9 ish months, but not life threatening
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61
Q

What happens to H and K with high aldosterone levels?

A

Increased renal secretion (contraction alkalosis)

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62
Q

What is “contraction alkalosis”?

A

Loss of fluids cause aldosterone release, which promotes H and K excretion.

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63
Q

What are the s/sx of CN poisoning?

A
  • Almond breath
  • AMS
  • Lactic acidosis
  • Seizures
  • Coma
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64
Q

When does EtOH withdrawal set in?

A

12-48 hours

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65
Q

In whom is CN poisoning 2/2 Nitroprusside use more common in?

A

Renal insufficiency

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66
Q

What are the s/sx of HTN encephalopathy?

A

Encephalopathy without focal symptoms (diffuse brain edema)

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67
Q

What are the urinary metabolites seen with a neuroblastoma?

A

Homovanillic acid

vanillylmandelic acid

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68
Q

What is the standard test for lactose intolerance?

A

Hydrogen breath test

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69
Q

What is the medical term for strawberry hemangiomas? What is the treatment for these lesions if they’re in a life threatening place?

A
  • Infantile hemangiomas.

- Beta blockers

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70
Q

What is the highest predisposing factor associated with aortic dissection?

A

Systemic HTN

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71
Q

What is the relationship between atherosclerosis and aortic dissection?

A

Associated, but not causative.

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72
Q

what are the common symptoms of cataracts?

A

Halos around lights
Decreased visual acuity
Glare

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73
Q

What is the underlying pathophysiology of cataracts?

A

Oxidative damage from things like DM, smoking, aging, or glucocorticoid use

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74
Q

What are the s/sx of Chikungunya fever? (5)

A
  • High fevers
  • Polyarthralgias
  • HA
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Maculopapular rash
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75
Q

What are three lab manifestations of Chikungunya?

A
  • elevated LFTs
  • Lymphopenia
  • Thrombocytopenia
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76
Q

How is Chikungunya spread?

A

Mosquito bites

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77
Q

What is pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

Neutrophilic ulcerative skin disease usually associated with an underlying systemic disorder (e.g. IBD) that starts as an inflammatory papule, pustule, or nodule, and progresses to an expanding ulcer with a purulent base and ragged violaceous borders

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78
Q

What is the treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum?

A

Corticosteroids

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79
Q

How is pyoderma gangrenosum diagnosed?

A

Skin Bx

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80
Q

What is ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

Hemorrhagic pustules with surrounding erythema that evolve into necrotic ulcers

usually due to pseudomonas infection

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81
Q

What is the best test to assess for the risk of foot ulceration in pts with diabetic neuropathy?

A

Monofilament testing

82
Q

What is enthesitis?

A

Inflammation at tendon/ligament insertion points

83
Q

Diffuse enthesitis is suspicious for what disease?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

84
Q

How does hypomagnesemia cause hypocalcemia?

A

Induces PTH resistance, and decreasing PTH secretion

85
Q

What is the first line medication to reduce the reoccurance of sickle cell crises? What is the side effect of this?

A

Hydroxyurea

Myelosuppression

86
Q

Can the CENTOR criteria be used to empirically treat strep in preadolescents?

A

No–must do a RSAT

87
Q

What type of fluids should be used in the initial resuscitation of a pt with hypernatremia with hypovolemia

A

NS

88
Q

What are the skin manifestations of Sturge-Weber syndrome?

A

Port wine stain

89
Q

What are the head XR findings of sturge-weber syndrome?

A

Gyriform intracranial calcifications that resemble a tramline

90
Q

Angiofibromas in a butterfly pattern on a child’s face = ?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

91
Q

What are the UA findings of renal papillary necrosis? Why?

A
  • Normal appearing RBCs in the urine. Nothing else

- Extraglomerular problem

92
Q

When is myringotomy with tympanostomy tube placement indicated?

A

If AOM develops 3x/6 months OR

4x/12 months

93
Q

What is the underlying cause of dysmenorrhea?

A

Prostaglandin release

94
Q

When does the pain occur with primary dysmenorrhea vs endometriosis?

A 
Primary = at onset of menses
Endo = few days prior
95
Q

What happens to thirst mechanism with DI?

A 
Central = no thirst
peripheral = thirst intact
96
Q

What is the treatment for SIADH? MOA?

A

Demeclocycline

Inhibits ADH-mediated aquaporin insertion

97
Q

What is the preferred treatment for nephrogenic DI?

A

Thiazides

98
Q

What is the screening test for Conn syndrome? What is the f/u test?

A

Plasma aldosterone / renin concentration

Adrenal suppression testing f/u

99
Q

What are the four major s/sx that distinguish orbital cellulitis vs preseptal cellulitis?

A
  • Ophthalmoplegia
  • Pain with EOMs
  • Proptosis
  • Vision impairment
100
Q

True or false: pts with exertional heat stroke are often volume depleted

A

False–more often NOT volume depleted. Rather, it’s a failure of the thermoregulatory system

101
Q

Which has significant CNS dysfunction: volume depletion 2/2 heat or exertional heat stroke?

A

Exertional heat stroke

102
Q

What is the inheritance pattern and defect of hereditary spherocytosis? What is the treatment?

A

AD loss of ankyrin

Splenectomy or folic acid supplementation

103
Q

What happens to Mean corpuscular Hgb concentration with hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Increases due to a lack of RBC membrane.

104
Q

What is the classic symptom of ABO incompatibility hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

Flank pain

Fever

105
Q

What are the s/sx of IgA deficiency as a cause of transfusion reaction?

A

Anaphylaxis, with angioedema, hypotension, and dyspnea

106
Q

What disease causes a albuminocytologic dissociation on CSF?

A

Guillain -barre

107
Q

What is the classic sign of leukocyte adhesion deficiency (outside of the neonatal period)?

A

Inflammation with a lack of purulence

108
Q

What one UA finding distinguishes glomerular causes of hematuria vs nonglomerular?

A

Proteinuria = glomerular

109
Q

What is the gene defect in osteogenesis imperfecta?What is the mode of inheritance?

A

AD mutation in the COL1A1

110
Q

What is eczema herpeticum?

A

Superinfection of eczema with herpes, causing a vesicular eruption on pre existing inflamed skin

111
Q

Type 2 RTA is associated with what disease?

A

Fanconi syndrome

112
Q

What are the causes of type 1, 2, and 4 RTA?

A

1 = inability to secrete H+ into urine
2 = inability to reabsorb HCO3
4 Aldosterone deficiency

113
Q

What are the lab findings common to all 3 types of RTA? (2)

A

Hyperchloremic

Non-anion gap acidosis

114
Q

What is Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

A

Myoclonic jerks that usually occur in the morning. Not loss of tone, but dropping things common.

115
Q

What are the EEG findings of Lennox-gastaut syndrome?

A

2.5 Hz Slow spike and wave pattern

116
Q

What are the EEG findings of Infantile spasms?

A

Hypsarrhythmia

117
Q

What is the classic triad of Hemolytic uremic syndrome?

A
  • Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • AKI
118
Q

What are the UA findings of multiple myeloma?

A

Bland UA that may show evidence of granular casts

119
Q

What sort of animal bite always requires abx prophylaxis?

A

cat bites since they’re so deep

120
Q

What areas of the body that, when bitten by an animal, require abx prophylaxis?

A

Hands
Feet
Genitalia

121
Q

What are the s/sx of atlantoaxial instability that is characteristic of Down syndrome?

A

-Similar to normal pressure hydrocephalus

122
Q

What are the characteristic AXR findings of jejunal atresia?

A

Triple bubble sign

123
Q

What is the enzyme that is deficient in lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

HGRPT

124
Q

When is bicarb indicated for the treatment of acidosis? Why not sooner?

A

If pH less than 7.1

Risk of impairing cardiac conduction

125
Q

What position is stridor worse with laryngomalacia?

A

Supine makes it worse

126
Q

What happens to MCV with thalassemias?

A

Normal

127
Q

What happens to total RBC numbers in thalassemia?

A

Normal, despite low Hgb

128
Q

What are the classic signs of amyloidosis?

A
  • Macroglossia
  • LVH
  • Waxy skin
  • Anemia
  • neuropathy
  • Ecchymoses
  • Proteinuria
129
Q

What are all the s/sx of anticholinergic toxicity? (5)

A 
Blind as a bat
Hot as a hare
Dry as a bone
Red as a beet
Full as a flask
130
Q

What are the s/sx of theophylline? (4)

A

Seizures
Hyperthermia
Cardiac arrhythmias
Hypotension

131
Q

What CNS pathology is a complication of mumps?

A

Aseptic meningitis

132
Q

True or false: facial nerve palsy is a possible consequence of mumps infx

A

false

133
Q

what are the classic PBS findings of G6PD deficiency?

A

Heinz bodies and bite cells

Heinz bodies are oxidized Hgb

134
Q

When are growing pains classically the worst?

A

At night

135
Q

What happens to the peak of the murmur of aortic stenosis as the disease progresses?

A

Moves later in systole

136
Q

What happens to S2 with AS and why?

A

Soft and single S2 due to reduced mobility of the valve

137
Q

A loud S1 is typically heard with what valvular disease?

A

Mitral stenosis

138
Q

What is the most sensitive indicator for dehydration?

A

Decrease urine levels

139
Q

Why is a head CT not required prior to performing an LP in infants?

A

Their open fontanelles relieve intracranial pressure

140
Q

What are the top three modifiable risk factors for pancreatic cancer, in order?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Chronic pancreatitis
  3. Obesity
141
Q

What sort of lesions are present in bone with langerhans cell histiocytosis?

A

Lytic bone lesions, typically in long bones, with systemic hypercalcemia

142
Q

What is the defect an inheritance pattern of Kallmann syndrome?

A

XLR disorder of migration of fetal gonadotropin-releasing hormone and olfactory neuron

143
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for meconium ileus? Treatment?

A
  • Contrast enema after pneumoperitoneum has been excluded by AXR
  • This may break up the insuppsated meconim
144
Q

What is the classic appearance of meconium ileus on contrast enema?

A

Microcolon

145
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for malrotation?

A

Upper GI series

146
Q

What is the test used to differentiate meconium ileus and Hirschsprung’s disease? What will this test show with each of these?

A

Contrast enema

  • microcolon = ileus
  • Rectosigmoid transition zone = Hirschsprung’s
147
Q

What is the treatment for seborrheic dermatitis in children?

A

Gentle emollients and non-medicated shampoos.

Weak corticosteroids or ketoconazole are second line

148
Q

Peak airway pressure = ? (looking for equation)

A

Resistive pressure + plateau pressure

149
Q

Plateau pressure = ? (equation)

A

Elastic pressure + PEEP

150
Q

newborn baby with cyanosis that is better with crying, but worse when feeding = ?

A

Choanal atresia

151
Q

What are the components of CHARGE syndrome?

A 
Coloboma
Heart defects
Atresia, choanae
Retardation
GU anomalies
Ear abnormalities
152
Q

When is vaccination against Yellow fever indicated?

A

Sub-saharan africa or south america trips

153
Q

What are the lab findings of diamond-blackfan anemia?

A

ONLY RBCs are affected. No pancytopenia

154
Q

What cell lines are decreased with transient erythroblastopenia?

A

Only RBCs

155
Q

Which test is prolonged with factor 8 deficiency?

A

aPTT

156
Q

What is the MOA of tetanospasmin?

A

Prevents release of GABA/glycine from UMN. This causes uninhibited LMN, leading to spasticity/hypertonicity

157
Q

What is needed to make a diagnosis of acute liver failure? (3)

A
  • Elevated LFTs
  • Features of hepatic encephalopathy
  • INR at/over 1.5
158
Q

What are the classic stool findings of a dehydrated infant?

A

Brick-red urate crystals

159
Q

During the first week of life, how many wet diapers/day should there be?

A

Same as age in days (e.g. 4 day old should have 4 wet diapers)

160
Q

What is the most common cause of sepsis in the sickle cell population?

A

Strep pneumoniae

161
Q

What is the major difference between Meniere’s disease and labyrinthitis?

A

Meniere’s disease is recurrent and progressive. Labyrinthitis is not

162
Q

What causes the secondary metabolic acidosis with ASA intoxication?

A

Uncoupling of Mitochondrial ETC, causing lactic acidosis

163
Q

What is the progression of viral bronchitis?

A

Dry cough, followed by yellowish purulence 2/2 epithelial cell sloughing, and possibly mild hemoptysis

164
Q

When is chronic LAD significant?

A

If more than 2 cm, firm/hard, and immobile

165
Q

What is the MOA and use of bethanechol?

A

Cholinergic agent used to treat urinary retention

166
Q

What is the MOA and use of Oxybutynin?

A

Anticholinergic agent used to treat urinary incontinence

167
Q

What is neuropraxia?

A

Transient Weakness d/t nerve injury, common with elbow fractures.

168
Q

How does GERD worsen asthma? What is the treatment for this?

A

Microaspiration of gastric contents, leading to an increase in vagal tone and bronchial reactivity.
Treatment is with PPIs.

169
Q

True or false: pts who are newly diagnosed with rheumatic fever do not need abx unless they have pharyngitis at the time

A

False–always give PCN to any newly diagnosed rheumatic fever

170
Q

What is the duration of PCN therapy in the following pts:

  • Rheumatic fever without carditis
  • Rheumatic fever with carditis, but no residual heart or valvular disease
  • Rheumatic fever with carditis and persistent valvular disease
A
  • 5 years or until 21 years (whichever is longer) for rheumatic fever without carditis or 10 years carditis w/o valvular disease
  • 10 years until 40 years old if have valvular disease
171
Q

What are the two hemoglobins present with sickle cell trait? Disease?

A
  • HbA and HbS = trait

- HbS + HbF = disease

172
Q

What are the classic hand findings associated with Trisomy 18? Feet?

A
  • closed fist with fingers overlapping

- Rocker bottom feet

173
Q

What are the characteristics of the head with trisomy 18 (2)?

A
  • micrognathia

- Prominent occiput

174
Q

What are the classic head findings of trisomy 13?

A
  • Microphthalmia
  • Cleft lip/palate
  • Cutis aplasia
175
Q

What are the characteristic hand findings of trisomy 13? Feet?

A

Polydactyly

Rocker bottom feet

176
Q

Isolated thrombocytopenia in a child after recent viral illness = ? What is the treatment?

A
  • ITP

- Observation if not bleeding. If they are bleeding, then IVIG and corticosteroids

177
Q

What is obesity hypoventilation syndrome, and how does it differ from OSA?

A

-OSA is only at night, whereas OHS is persistent always. Due to chronic hypercapnia in OHS, there is increased biacarb, and resultant decrease in Chloride

178
Q

Why does squatting relieve Tet spells?

A

Increases afterload, forcing more blood through stenotic pulmonary artery

179
Q

Does strongyloides produce diarrhea?

A

Not typically, but if so, not profuse

180
Q

What are the effects of exogenous androgen use in men? (besides obvious, 4)

A

Gynecomastia
Polycythemia
Hyperlipidemia
Possibly hepatotoxic

181
Q

What animal is histoplasma associated with?

A

Bird/bat droppings

182
Q

Hilar adenopathy with noncaseating granulomas is suspicious for what infectious process?

A

Histoplasmosis

183
Q

What normally happens to SBP with inspiration? What changes can occur to this?

A

Falls by less than 10 mmHg

-If falls by more than 10 mmHg, then pulsus paradoxus

184
Q

What is the pathophysiology behind pulsus paradoxus?

A

-If due to tamponade, then L and R ventricles compete for limited space in sac. Increased venous return from inspiration increases RV volume, and thus decreasing space in the LV. This reduces EDV in the LV, and thus reducing SBP

185
Q

What causes pulsus paradoxus with asthma or COPD?

A

The drop in thoracic pressure is greatly exaggerated with these, causing a much larger volume to be maintained in the lungs, reducing LV EDV, and thus SBP

186
Q

What, generally, is Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome?

A

AR loss of anterior parts of the spinal cord, and CN motor nuclei, causing a “floppy baby”

187
Q

Large amount of blood on UA, but very few RBC = ?

A

Rhabdomyolysis (AU detecting myoglobin as blood)

188
Q

Why should plain water never be given to infants under 6 months?

A

Can dilute out electrolytes since kidneys not yet fully functional

189
Q

What are the s/sx of cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A
  • HA
  • binocular palsies
  • periorbital edema
  • Hypoesthesia
  • Hyperesthesia in V1, V2
  • CN III, IV, and VI impingement
190
Q

What are the biologic DMARDs for RA?

A
  • Etanercept
  • Infliximab
  • Adalimumab
  • Tocilizumab
  • Rituximab
191
Q

When should pts with RA be started on DMARDs? Why?

A

ASAP to reduce bony erosions and disease progression

192
Q

What is the first line DMARD for RA?

A

Methotrexate

193
Q

What are the head imaging findings of JC virus?

A

Patchy white areas c/w demyelination

194
Q

What lab test can differentiate between chloride responsive and unresponsive metabolic alkalosis?

A

Urinary Cl excretion will be high is unresponsive, and low if responsive

195
Q

What happens to urinary Cl with hyperaldosteronism?

A

Increased, since there is no stimulus to hold on to Cl

196
Q

What is the most common bodily secretion that transmits CMV?

A

Saliva (think mono)

197
Q

What is the mechanism of a subdural bleed with shaken baby syndrome?

A

Shearing of the subdural veins

198
Q

When is rolling over achieved in development?

A

4-6 months

199
Q

What virus most commonly causes myocarditis, especially in children?

A

Coxsackie virus

200
Q

What is the acute treatment for myocarditis?

A

Diuretics and inotropes

A2 (26 decks)

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