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ZZ - step 3 - uworld > Uworld Exam 10 > Flashcards

Uworld Exam 10 Flashcards

1
Q

What Hepatitis should you think in a pregnant patient?

A

Hep E

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2
Q

What kind of virus is Hep E? What is its risk in pregos?

A

Unenveloped, ssRNA virus spread through fecal oral route; can lead to pregnant patient death

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3
Q

What is the main purpose of a double blind experiment

A

stop observer’s bias

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4
Q

Difference between Minute volume and alveolar volume?

A

Alveolar volume subtracts dead space

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5
Q

What translocation is associated with t15;17?

A

AML M3

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6
Q

What is the molecular MOA of t15;17?

A

Translocation of retinoic acid recetor from chr. 17 to 15 leads to PML/RAR alpha=>inhibits differentiation of myeloblasts

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7
Q

NF type 1 is what kind disorder? What chromosome is it on?

A

single gene AD on Chr. 17

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8
Q

Most common symptoms of NF1

A

Cafe-au-lait spots, Neurofibromas, Lisch Nodules (harmatomas of the eye)

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9
Q

Description for Type 1 HSR?

A

Cell surface-bound IgE Bridging by an antigen

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10
Q

What is superior mesenteric syndrome?

A

Transverse portion of the duodenum is entrapped between SMA and the aorta=>decreases angle of between SMA and aorta

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11
Q

Polyhydramnios is associated with what kind of diseases?

A

GI obstructions and aneuncephaly

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12
Q

Infant whose epidermis easily peels off?

A

Scalded Skin Syndrome

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13
Q

What causes Scaled skin syndrome? What is the specific agent in the bug that causes this?

A

Staph; +nikolskys sign, exfoliatin exotoxin

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14
Q

How does Exfoliatin exotoxin work?

A

uses proteases to cleave desmoglein from desmosomes

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15
Q

What is genetic defect in CML?

A

Fusion of 9 and 22=>BCR-ABL gene

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16
Q

BCR-ABL gene encodes for what kind of receptor?

A

Tyrosine Kinase receptor

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17
Q

Nitrates MOA? AE?

A

MOA: Dilates veins

AE=Dilating veins and arteries too much=>headache, flushing

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18
Q

What reflects osteoblastic activity?

A

Increased ALP

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19
Q

What structure goes through the pterion? What is this structure a branch of?

A

Middle Meningeal Arteries=>from maxillary arteries

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20
Q

Coronary Plaques more than what cause symptoms?

A

75%

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21
Q

Which nerve travels with the inferior thyroid artery?

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

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22
Q

What vitamin is effective in treating measles?

A

Vit. A

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23
Q

Aldolase B is used for converting what sugar?

A

Fructose

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24
Q

Sucrose? Maltose? Lactose? break up into?

A

Sucrose=Fructose+glucose
Maltose=Glucose+glucose
Lactose=glucose+galactose

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25
Q

CPS 1 is an enzyme for which cycle? What is its obligate co-factor

A

Urea Cycle; N-acetylglutamate

26
Q

Young Caucasian woman with increased coagulability, and resistant to activated protein C in plasma?

A

Factor Leiden V

27
Q

Integral Membrane proteins have alpha helices of hydrophobic amino acid residues such as

A

valine, alanine and isoleucine

28
Q

Triad of symptoms in pericardial tamponade

A

Muffled heart sounds, elevated JVP and profound hypotension

29
Q

Explain 1 day 1 week 1 month

A

1st day=>coagulative necrosis
1st week=>Neutrophil=>Macrophage (inflammation_
1 month=>Granulation Tissue
After that=>Scar Tissue

30
Q

With DM neuropathy, what would you see bladder wise?

A

Increased postresidual volume

31
Q

Which drug has been shown to decrease mortality in all patients with any CHF?

A

B-Blocker

32
Q

DOC for DVT in Pregos?

A

Heparin

33
Q

DOC for DVT in Regular patients?

A

Warfarin

34
Q

Patient’s blood rapidly coagulates with cold and uncoagulates with warmth, most likely bug?

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

35
Q

Patients over the age 65 are most prone to secondary?

A

pneumonia

36
Q

What are the bugs that cause secondary pneumonia, in order?

A

strep pneumoniae, staph aureus, H. influ

37
Q

Subdural hematoma+bilateral retinal damages?

A

Shaken Baby Syndrome

38
Q

AE of HIV-1 protease inhibitors?

A

Redistribution of fat from extremities to abdomen

39
Q

Cladribine MOA? Use? metabolism?

A

MOA: purine analog=>DNA strand breaks
Use: Hairy Cell Leukemia
Metabolism=resistant to adenosine deaminase

40
Q

Two formulas for RBF?

A

FF=GFR/RBF; RBF=PAH clearance/(1-hematocrit)

41
Q

MC movement disorder?

A

Essential Tremor

42
Q

Symptoms of essential tremor?

A

symmetrical tremor that affects upper extremities

43
Q

DOC for essential tremor?

A

Propanolol

44
Q

MC shigellosis in US?

A

Shigella Sonni

45
Q

Shigella invades what cells?

A

M cells in Peyer’s Patches in ileum

46
Q

Capcitiation

A

Money is by each enrollee not fee

47
Q

Overuse of alpha adenergic agonistic decongestants cause?

A

Tachyphylaxis=>decreased production of endogenous NE; the drug is not effective anymore=>so stop it

48
Q

A neonate with jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia and edema with extramedullary hematopoesis?

A

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis)

49
Q

MCC of Hemolytic Disease of the new born?

A

Rh incompatibility

50
Q

Hemidesimosome Ab?

A

bullous pemphigoid

51
Q

46 XY with Small Phallus and hypospadias but becomes better in puberty

A

5 alpha reductase def.

52
Q

Sickle Cell Trait person is what percentage HbS?

A

40%

53
Q

Sickle Cell Homozygous person has what percentage of Hbs?

A

80%

54
Q

In both homozygous and heterozygous do the cells sickle when sodium metabisulfate is added?

A

Yes

55
Q

Sickle cell trait patient has relative protection from?

A

P. Falciparum (malaria)

56
Q

Which markers reflect osteoclastic activity?

A

Tartarate-resistant acid phsophatase, urinary hydroxyproline and urinary deoxypyridinoline (Most Reliable)

57
Q

Inulin Filtered vs Excreted ratio?

A

The same

58
Q

How much of urea is reabsorbed?

A

50%

59
Q

How much of sodium is reabsorbed?

A

99%

60
Q

PAH Filtered vs excreted?

A

Excreted would be higher because it is almost all secreted

ZZ - step 3 - uworld (27 decks)

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