Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

zz - step 3 - uworld > uWorld 2 > Flashcards

uWorld 2 Flashcards

1
Q

present self antigen, tumor antigen, or antigen synthesized by the cell due to viral infection
proteins in cytoplasm are degraded molecules and subsequently routed to the cell surface via the golgi apparatus
never processed w/in acidified lysosomes

A

MHC Class I
endogenous pathway of antigen presentation

found on surface of most nucleated cells of human body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

integrins are necessary for what

A

binding of inflammatory cells to vascular walls during the process of TRANSMIGRATION through the endothelial layer from the bloodstream to the tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how does MHC class II antigen presentation happen

A

material in environment is taken up by APC and degraded by acidification after endosome-lysosome fusion or phagosome-lysosome fusion
MHC-II is synthesized in roughER and routed to endosomes by the Golgi apparatus
MHC-II is antigen binding site blocked by invariant chain- guides molecule during sorting and fusion of vesicle with MHC to phago-lysosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM)

A

caused by secretion of parathyroid hormone related protein (PTH-rP)
causes increased bone resorption and decreased renal exertion of calcium
polyuria, nephrolithiasis, GI and neuropsychiatric symptoms`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

acute onset of mental status change is most suggestive of what (delirium, dementia, or depression)

A

delirium- a reversible, acute confusional state involving a reduced or fluctuating level of consciousness with difficulty sustaining attention and impaired memory and executive function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a brief psychotic disorder

A

sudden onset of at least one positive psychotic symptoms (delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech or behavior) lasting form one day to a month
typically alert and oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is type II (beta) error

A

FALSELY conclude there was NO increased risk
probability of a type II error is related to how much POWER a study has to detect a difference when a difference actually exists (power = 1-beta)
SAMPLE SIZE and power are related in that studies with a large sample size have a greater power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

if the RR obtained in the first study was similar to the one obtained in the meta-analysis it is unlikely what what was present in the study

A

design flaws (i.e. poor blinding, researcher expectancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is Berkson’s Bias

A

election bias that van be created by selecting hospitalized patients as the control group (b/c they are less healthy than normal population)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are Gardos channel blockers

A

calcium-dependent (Gardos) potassium channel regulators the transport of potassium and water through the red blood cell membrane- when blocked, potassium and water efflux if reduced, preventing dehydration of erythrocytes and reducing the polymerization of HbS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the mechanism most likely responsible for the decreased genes expression seen in huntington disease

A 
HISTONE DEACETYLATION- thus silencing genes necessary for neuronal survival
expansion of the huntingtin protein results in a GAIN-OF-FUNCTION that leads to pathological interaction with other proteins, including various transition factors
TRANSCIPTIONAL REPRESSION (SILENCING) is one of the mechanisms by which mutated huntingtin is thought to cause disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

loss of hunting tin protein results in what

A

embryonic death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what causes a low volume of distribution (3-5 liters) of a drug (i.e. drug stays in plasma compartment)

A

large molecular weight
bound extensively to plasma proteins
highly charged (hydrophilic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when would one see a volume of distribution of 14-16 liters

A

if the drug has a small molecular weight but is hydrophilic (charged)
(it can distribute into the plasma volume plus interstitial volume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

when does a drug exhibit a higher volume of distribution much higher than total body waster volume

A

drugs that avidly bind the tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how can thiamine deficiency be diagnosed

A

if baseline ERYTHROCYTE TRANSKETOLASE ACTIVITY is low but increases after thiamine pyrophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the function of DNA polymerase delta

A

elongates Okazaki fragments of the lagging strand

fragments are later joined by the enzyme DNA ligase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

snRNA is synthesized by what

A

RNA polymerase II (along with mRNA and miRNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are anti-smith antibodies against

A

snRNPs (complexes of snRNA with proteins that are essential component of spliceosomes which remove introns from pre-mRNA forming m-RNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the first-line antidepressant for major depressive disorder

A

SSRI (block the serotonin transporter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

to ensure that that investigators do not miss a difference between drug B and standard of care (if a difference truly exists) what do you want to maximize?

A

power (power = 1-beta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a type 1 error

A

reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is really true (finding a statistical significance b/w 2 groups that doesn’t exist)
if p is less than a (0.05) then it is statistically significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is seen microscopically in seborrheic keratosis

A

sells resembling basal cells, with variable pigmentation
hyperkeratosis (thickening of status corneum)

keratin containing cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is discoid lupus erythematous (DLE)

A

thick, scaly, discoid plaque that erupt on unexposed skin and may result in scarring
systemic disease in not present in most patients with DLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is a xanthelasma
common yellowish macule, papule, or plaque found on the EYELID and is often associated with hyperlipidemia
26
what are most cases of Rett syndrome due to
de novo mutations in the X-linked MECP2 gene
27
what is seen in Rett syndrome
``` mainly girls normal development to 5-18 months loss of motor and language skills development of stereotypical hand movements (wringing) DECELERATION of HEAD GROWTH ```
28
what is the inheritance of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
x-linked recessive
29
what is stereotypic movement disorder
characterized by stereotypical, purposeless motor behavior that begins in early development and is not better explained by another neurodevelopment or genetic disorder
30
what is the functional residual capacity
point where the tendencies of the chest wall to expand and the lung to collapse oppose one another creating an NEGATIVE INTRAPLEURAL PRESSURE of approx -5cm H2O (during inspiration intrapleural pressure gets even more negative and thus induces a negative alveolar pressure drawing air into lungs)
31
what is the most commonly featured bone
clavicle
32
the clavical is the point of origin or insertion for what msucles
``` deltoid- inferolateral aspect pectorals major- inferomedial aspect subclavius- inferolateral aspect sternohyoid- inferomedial aspect trapezius- superolateral aspect sternocleidomastoid- superomedial aspect ```
33
the major and minor rhomboid muscles originate and insert where, what do they do
originate on the vertebral spines insert on the medal border of the scapula cause retraction of the scapulae
34
serratus anterior muscle originates where and inserts where, what innervates it, what problem is caused by loss of innervation
originates- laterally on 1-8 ribs inserts- meidal aspect of scapula innervated by long thoracic nerve, injury causes winged scapula
35
where does the sternoclavicular ligament attach and what does it do
attach the clavicle to the manubrium | hold medal side of medial fragment (of a fractured clavicle) in place
36
where does the subclavius muscle originate and what is its function
originated on the first rib and inserts on the inferior lateral aspect of clavicle functions to displace clavicle inferiorly
37
where does the trapezius originate and insert
cervical spinous processes and insert on the lateral third of classical pulls lateral fragment (of a fractured clavicle) superiorly but the combined traction from arm weight and pectorals major overcomes trap
38
what causes superior displacement of medal fragment of the glacial following a fracture what causes inferior displacement of the lateral fragment of the clavicle after a fracture
sternocleidomastoid- superior displacement | weight of the arm and pectorals major muscle cause inferior displacement
39
what happens to EPO in COPD and why
erythropoietin production increased smokers have chronic bronchitis (decreasing the diameter of conducting airways) and centrilobular emphysema (dilating the alveolar air places so that there is insufficient contact b/w the airspace's and deoxygenated blood in alveolar capillaries) both which cause hypoxia smoking can independently cause hypoxia by increasing concentration of carboxyhemoglobin hypoxia is sensed by renal cortex that synthesize and release EPO
40
in COPD what happens to expiratory flow rate, functional residual capacity,
Expiratory flow rate- decreased FRC- increased right ventricular afterload- increased left ventricular compliance- not directly affected
41
where do the ureters course anteriorly to the external iliac artery
at or just after the bifurcation of the common iliac artery external iliac continues along the pelvic brim and passes under the inguinal ligament to become there femoral artery (it does not enter the true pelvis)
42
where does the ureters cross anteriorly to the internal iliac artery
ureters gain access to the pelvis by crossing over the anterior surface of the common iliac artery near its bifurcation, at this point the ureter lies medial to the ovarian vessels and anterior to the internal iliac artery (WITHIN THE TRUE PELVIS)
43
what crosses over the anterior surface of the ureter midway form the kidney to the pelvic inlet
gonadal artery and vein
44
genes for extended spectrum beta lactamases (ESBL) are found where
PLASMIDS
45
what is the treatment of choice for extended spectrum beta lactamase producing organisms
CARBAPENEMS
46
porin mutations can confer resistance to what antibiotics and what organisms utilize this
penicillin and amino glycoside resistance | gram negative organisms (Pseudomonas)
47
mutations in DNA gyrate can lead to resistance to what drugs
fluoroguinolones
48
what is cryoprecipitate
contains only cold-soluble proteins (Factor 8, fibrinogen, cWF, vitronectin)
49
what toxin from ETEC is like cholera toxin in striation and mode of action (explain)
LT (enterotoxin) | increases intracellular cAMP in gut mucosal cells by Gs
50
endotoxin release induces an inflammatory response mediated by what
tumor necrosis factor-alpha and interleukin-1 secreted from activated macrophages
51
when does one see "stacked brick" intestinal adhesion
enteroaggregative Escherichia coli (EAEC) organisms adhere to jejunal, ill, and colonic mucosa in an aggregative, or stacked-brick, pattern and do not invade implicated in persistant diarrhea in infants in developing countries
52
the steric bud gives rise to what
collecting system of the kidneys (collecting tubules and ducts, major and minor calyces, renal pelvis, ureters
53
the metanephric blastema gives rise to what
glomeruli, Bowman's space, proximal tubules, loop of hence, distal convoluted tubule
54
the structures of the mesonephros become what in males and females
males- Wolffian ducts (ductus deference and epididymis) | females- regresses and becomes vestigial Gartner's ducts
55
decompensated heart failure in the setting of a recent viral infection
DIALTED CARDIOMYOPATHY (dilated with abnormal systolic ventricular function)
56
regional wall nation abnormality is suggestive of what
ischemic heart disease | causes volume overload resulting in eccentric hypertrophy
57
glucagon works via what receptor
Gs
58
what is the most common lung tumor and what does one see in it
hamartoma (pulmonary chondroma) contain islands of mature HYALINE CARTILAGE, fat, smooth muscle, clefts lined by respiratory epithelium presents as a "COIN LESION" with "POPCORN CALCIFICATIONS"
59
what is the best description of thyroid peroxidase enzyme
thyroglobulin iodination NOT thyroxine to triiodothyronine conversions b/c only 20% T3 comes from thyroid rest is converted by iodothyronine deiodinasefrom T4
60
central lines are inserted how
in neck (internal jugular vein) or chest (subclavian vein) and is advanced until the catheter tip enters the SVC
61
the SVC is derived from what
common cardinal veins
62
what forms the descending aorta
fusion of the embryonic right and left dorsal aortas
63
if a pt is started on meds and 10 days later they get joint pain and a pruritic skin rash that show fibrinoid necrosis and neutrophil infiltration what probably happened and what finding is seen in the pt
``` serum sickness (happens after administration of chimeric monoclonal antibodies or nonhuman immunoglobulins decreased serum C3 level ```
64
is leukocyte alkaline phosphatase is low
chronic myelogenous leukemia
65
what are the findings of an accessory nipple
due to FAILURE OF INVOLUTION OF THE MAMMARY RIDGE
66
what is an acrochorda
a skin tag benign and often pedunculate outgrowths of notable skin develop in locations of excess friction like beneath the breasts
67
BRCA1 and BRCA2 are are involved in what and what is the inheritance
repair of double stranded DNA breaks | autosomal dominant
68
what breast cancer mutation is associated with abarent signal transduction
HER2
69
what organism looks "cotton candy" like on Pap smear and may be an incidental finding in patients with IUD
Actinomyces
70
what cells predominate Pap smear of postmenopausal and postpartum women
paranasal cells- round cells with a basophilic cytoplasm, finely granular chromatin in their nuclei, no visible nuclei, high N/C ratio "fried eggs" with a large "central egg yolk"
71
what cell presence in a Pap smear indicated adequate sampling
glandular endocervical cells

zz - step 3 - uworld (62 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions