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USMLE > USMLE Goljan 1 > Flashcards

USMLE Goljan 1 Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What is the most common malaria?

A

Vivax (Viva! It’s the MC)

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2
Q

What is the fever pattern for P. vivax?

A

48 hours (Viva the 48 hr party!!!)

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3
Q

Which malaria is the most lethal?

A

Falciparum (make one false step and you are dead)

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4
Q

Which malaria is associated with nephrotic syndrome?

A

P. malariae

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5
Q

What is the fever pattern for P. falsiparirum?

A

No pattern, it is so false that it doesn’t have one

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6
Q

What is the fever pattern for P. malariae?

A

72 hours

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7
Q

What do you find in the lab work?

A

Blood smears with organisms inside RBC, falciparum ring form and gametocytes (banana shape)

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8
Q

Prophylaxis Tx for malaria?

A

Chloroquine

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9
Q

What drug do you use for resistant falciparum?

A

Mefloquine

ME FLOr resistant Falciparum

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10
Q

What is the Tx for all except falciparum?

A

Chloroquine plus primaquine

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11
Q

What is the specific Tx for falciparum?

A

IV quinidine or quinine plus doxycycline

Falciparum is the FALSE QUEEN (quinidine)

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12
Q

What leukemia has translocation t(15;17)

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (M3)

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13
Q

In which leukemia do you find DIC?

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (M3)

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14
Q

What leukemia has gum infiltration?

A

Acute Monocytic Leukemia (M5)

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15
Q

What leukemia has auer rods?

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (M2/M3)

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16
Q

What are auer rods?

A

fused azurophilic granules on cytosol of blast cells

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17
Q

What leukemia is cured/reverse with Vitamin A (Retinol)?

A

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (M3)

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18
Q

What is the age distribution of all leukemias?

A

ALL (0-14) AML (15-39) AML (40-60) CML (40-60) CLL (>60 years old)

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19
Q

Which leukemia has translocation t9;22?

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

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20
Q

What is the frequency of acute leukemias ?

A

Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (M2) 30-40% Acute Promyelocytic (M3) 5-10%, Acute Monocytic (M5) 10%

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21
Q

What leukemia is associated with ABL protooncogene?

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

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22
Q

What is the translocation of ABL protooncogene?

A

t9;22

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23
Q

What chromosome is CML found in? What is the name of the chromosome?

A

Chromosome 22; Philadelphia Chromosome

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24
Q

What is afected in chromosome 22 for CML?

A

bcr (break cluster region) bcr-ABL fusion gene

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25
Q

What is the most specific test for CML?

A

decrease LAP (Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase)

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26
Q

What are other positive tests for CML?

A

philadephia chromosome and bcr-ABL fusion gene

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27
Q

What is the most common cancer and leukemia in children?

A

ALL

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28
Q

What is the most common subtype?

A

pre-B (80%)

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29
Q

What is a positive marker for ALL?

A

CALLA; CD10
Common ALL Antigen and TdT (terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase)

You are Caller No. 10!!!

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30
Q

Where do B cells metastasize in ALL?

A

CNS and testicles

think B is for Brain and Balls!

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31
Q

Where do T cells metastasize in ALL?

A

Anterior Mediastinal mass or acute leukemia

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32
Q

Which ALL type has best prognosis?

A

t(12;21)

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33
Q

Gout or Pseudogout?

How do you tell?

A

Positively Birefringement (Blue color) Pseudogout

Negatively Birefringement (Yellow color) Gout

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34
Q

What crystal is negatively birefringent?

A

Negative is Yellow in color so it’s Monosodium Urate for Gout

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35
Q

What crystals are positively birefringent?

A

Positively Blue in color so it is Calcium Pyrophosphate Crystals (CPPC) for Pseudogout

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36
Q

Blue Crystals?

A

Pseudublue
Pseudogout
- Blue is Calcium pyrophosphate

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37
Q

Yellow Crystals?

A

Gout Monosodium urate

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38
Q

What joints are involved in Osteoarthritis?

A

DIP + PIP

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39
Q

What joints are involved in Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

MCP + PIP

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40
Q

What are PIP joints inflamed called?

A

Bouchard Node

Pouchard

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41
Q

What is a Heberden Node?

A

Inflamation of DIP

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42
Q

What is rheumatoid factor? (RF)

A

IgM Ab against IgG

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43
Q

Where is rhematoid factor found?

A

In synovial fluid

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44
Q

What is the synovial tissue that grows over the articulate cartilage called?

A

Pannus

Not to be confused with Tophus that is found in Gout

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45
Q

Which on is symmetrical? Rheumatoid or Osteoarthritis?

A

Rheumatoid

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46
Q

What is it called when you get a patient with rheumatoid arthritis that expresses dry mouth and dry eyes?

A

Schoegrem Sx

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47
Q

Syndrome with rheumatoid arthritis with nodes in the lungs?

A

Kaplan Sx

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48
Q

What is the Tx of Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

Methotrexate

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49
Q

What are some effects of long teng methotrexate tx?

i.e. Arhtritis Tx

A

Macrocytic Anemia
Hypersegmented Neutrophils

Also causes:
Intersitial Fibrosis of the Lung

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50
Q

Tx for Gout?

A

Indomethacine

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51
Q

What drug do you give for underexcretion of uric acid?

A

Probenecid

Sulfanpirizone

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52
Q

Overproducer of uric acid?

A

Allopurinol

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53
Q

What is the mech. of Allopurinol?

A

Block Xanthine Oxidase

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54
Q

What is the mechanism of uric acid accumulation/gout in alcoholics?

A

Patients with alcoholism are under metabolic acidosis
-All the acids compete in the excrition of proximal tubule

Alcoholics contain b-hydroxybutiric acid, lactic acid so they compete with uric acid to be excreted

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55
Q

Dz with degenerative arthritis in vertebral columns, pee turns black?
cartilage is turns black

A

Alkaptonuria

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56
Q

What is the inheritance of alkaptonuria?

A

autosomal recessive

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57
Q

What enzyme is absent and what accumulates?

A

Homgentisic Acid builds up

homogentisic oxidase

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58
Q

Patien w/ disuria, sterile piuria?

A

Non-specific urethritis chlamydia

No culture in urine

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59
Q

Same patient develops pain on Achilles Tendon? Conjunctivitis

A

Reiter’s Sx

HLA-27 (+) patient

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60
Q

Chlamydia triggered HLA-B27?

A

Yes, it made Reiter become active

  • Ulcerative colitis can also be an environmental factor
  • psoriasis
  • shigella
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61
Q

Patient with hot joint, pustule on palm aspirated and found gram neg. dipplococci?

A

Disseminated Gonococchemia

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62
Q

STD?

A

Sinovitis
Tinosinovitis (hands)
Dermititis (pustules hand and feet)

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63
Q

What components do you need to kill Gonorrhea?

A

C5-C9

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64
Q

Septic arthritis?

A

MC gonorrhea (GC) Gonoccocus…

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65
Q

Any patient with bilateral bell-spalsy?

A

Lyme Dz until proven otherwise

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66
Q

MC cranial nerve involved with Lyme Dz?

A

VIIth nerve

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67
Q

Hemolytic Anemia? What do you see in this patient?

A

Babesia Micro

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68
Q

Ticks carry both dz?

A

Lyme and Babesia

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69
Q

What percent of lyme infected have babeiosis?

A

20% of patients have babeiosis

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70
Q

What is babesia microti?

A

intracellular erythrocytic parasite

similar to ring falciparum

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71
Q

Tx for chronic?

A

Ceftriaxone

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72
Q

Tx for acute?

A

Tetracycline

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73
Q

Mechanism of blue sclera?

A

Color of veins is blue
Seein the coroidal veins
that give the color to the sclera since there is very little collagen I

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74
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

Brittle bone Dz
Defect in osteoclasts
no marrow, severa anemia

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75
Q

Where are B cells located in lymph nodes?

A

Germinal Follicles; Peripheral areas of spleen (white pulp)

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76
Q

Where are T cells located?

A

ParacorTex; periarteriolar sheat in spleen

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77
Q

What are histiocytes and where are they located?

A

Part of the Lymphatic system in sinuses; skin (Langherhan’s Cells); Red Pulp in Spleen

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78
Q

What is associated with Left Supraclavicular Nodes?

A

Abdominal and Pancreatic CA

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79
Q

What is associated with Right Supraclavicular Nodes?

A

Lung Mets and Esophageal CA; Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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80
Q

What is the left supraclavicular node called?

A

Virchow’s Node

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81
Q

What CA diseminates to para-aortic nodes?

A

Testicular CA and Burkitt’s Lymphoma

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82
Q

What gene is associated with Follicular Lymphoma?

A

Translocation t14;18
overexpression of bcl-2

Follicular Think Fourteen
Fo Fo

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83
Q

What gene association is found in Burkitt’s?

A

EBV translocation t8;14

African Jaw

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84
Q

What does the African variant involve? (Burkitt’s)

A

Jaw

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85
Q

What does the American variant involve? (Burkitt’s)

A

GI, ovaries and retroperitoneum

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86
Q

What do you see in Burkitt’s?

A

Starry Sky Apparence

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87
Q

What is the Starry Sky?

A

macrophages w/ phagocytosed apoptotic bodies

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88
Q

What are the characteristic cells in Hodgkin’s Lymjphoma?

A

association w/ EBV; cutaneous anergy to common antigens

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89
Q

What are the cells of Hogkin’s L. called?

A

Reed-Sternberg Cells

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90
Q

What are Reed-Sternberg Cells?

A

transformed germinal center B cells

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91
Q

What CD maker’s do you use to detect RS cells?

A

CD15 and CD30; you got to be able to REED by 15 and 30

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92
Q

What does a classic RS cell look like?

A

two mirror image nuclei w/ eosinophilic nucleolus surrounded by a clear halo

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93
Q

What is elevated in vWF disease?

A

Elevated Bleeding Time (platelet adh. problem)

aPTT increased

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94
Q

What is elevated on hemophilia A?

A 
VIII deficient
aPTT increased
(intrinsic pathway)
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95
Q

What is elevated in a person taking aspirin?

A

Bleeding Time elevated

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96
Q

What is elevated in Idiopathic Thrombocytogenic Purpura? Decreased?

A

Bleeding Time increased

platelets decreased

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97
Q

What are two other diseases that has Bleed Time increased and decreased platelets?

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

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98
Q

What factor involved in extrinsic pathway?

A

VII

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99
Q

What factor involved in intrinsic pathway?

A

XII, XI, IX, VIII

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100
Q

What is the best test for vWF diases?

A

ristocetin cofactor assay

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101
Q

What anti bodies does blood group O have?

A

anti A-IgM
anti B-IgM

anti AB- IgG

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102
Q

What anti bodies have blood A?

A

anti B

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103
Q

What does group B has?

A

anti A-IgM

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104
Q

What does group AB has?

A

nothing

just like new borns and old people

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105
Q

What blood group has greatest incidence of gastric carcinoma?

A

group A

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106
Q

What is associated w/ duodenal ulcer?

A

group O blood

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107
Q

Who is the universal donor?

A

Group O

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108
Q

Who is the universal acceptor?

A

AB no antibodies to attack those cells

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109
Q

What Protoconcogene (POC) is associated w/ osteogenic sarcoma?

A

SIS

110
Q

What POC is associated w/ Leukemia?

A

RAS

111
Q

What POC is associated w/ Breast CA?

A

ERB-B2

112
Q

What POC is associated w/ Astrocytoma?

A

SIS

113
Q

What POC is associated w/ Neuroblastoma?

A

N-MYC

114
Q

What POC is associated w/ lung CA?

A

RAS

115
Q

What POC is associated w/ CML?

A

ABL

116
Q

What POC is associated w/ Burkitt’s Lymphoma?

A

c-MYC

MYC

117
Q

What POC is associated w/ colon CA?

A

RAS

118
Q

What POC is associated w/ MEN IIa/IIb Syndromes?

A

RET

119
Q

WhatPOC is associated w/ pancreatic CA?

A

RAS

120
Q

What function does SIS have?

A

GF synthesis

Growth Factor

121
Q

What fx does ERB-B2 has?

A

Receptor Synthesis

122
Q

What fx does ABL has?

A

Non-receptor TK activity

123
Q

WHat fx does RET have?

A

Receptor Synthesis

124
Q

What fx does MYC have?

A

Nuclear Transcription

125
Q

What fx does N-MYC have?

A

Nuclear transcription

126
Q

WHat fx does RAS has?

A

GTP signal transduction

127
Q

What two POC have the same function of Receptor Synthesis?

A

ERB-B2 and RET

128
Q

What two POC have the same fx of nuclear transcription?

A

c-MYC and N-MYC

129
Q

What does SIS activate?

A

Overexpression

130
Q

What does ERB-B2 activate?

A

Amplification

131
Q

What does RET Activate?

A

Point Mutation

132
Q

What does RAS activate?

A

Point Mutation

133
Q

What does ABL activate?

A

translocation

t(9;22)

134
Q

What does MYC activate?

A

c-MYC translocation t(8;14)

135
Q

What does N-MYC activate?

A

Amplification

136
Q

What two POC amplify?

A

ERB-B2 and N-MYC

137
Q

What two POC activate point mutation?

A

RET and RAS

138
Q

What two POC activate translocation?

A

ABL and c-MYC

139
Q

What virus is associated w/ SIS POC and w/ Osteogenic Sarcoma?

A

EBV

140
Q

What POC amplifies breasts??? imagine that…

A

ERB-B2

Breast bigger two!

141
Q

What are the inactivation of suppressor genes?

A

TP53, RB, APC and BRCA1/2

142
Q

What suppressor gene (SG) is associated w/ lung, colon, breast and Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

A

TP53

143
Q

What SG is assciated w/ breast, ovary and prostate CA?

A

BRCA 1

BRCA 2

144
Q

What SG is associated w/ familial polyposis: color cancer?

A

APC

145
Q

What suppressor gene is asscoiated w/ retinoblastoma, osteogenic sarcoma and breast CA?

A

RB

146
Q

What is the function of TP53?

A

G1 to S phase inhibitor

147
Q

What is the function of BRCA 1/2 gene?

A

Regulates DNA repair

148
Q

What is the APC gene function?

A

Prevents nuclear transcription

- degrades catenin; an activator of nuclear transcription

149
Q

What is the function of RB gene?

A

G1 to S phase inhibitor

150
Q

What are the genes fo anti-apoptosis?

A

BCL-2 genes

151
Q

What is the function of BCL-2 genes?

A

prevents the leakage of cytochrome c (signal for apoptosis)

152
Q

What disease is associated with BCL-2?

A

b-cell lymphoma
B C L -2

Follicular Lymphoma t14;18

153
Q

What is another disease that involves TP53?

A

Ataxia Telangiectasia

syceptibility to malignant lymphoma

154
Q

What virus is associated w/ TP53?

A

HBV and

HTLV-1(T cell leukemia and lymphoma)

HPV 16,18 HPV16 inhibits TP53
RB inhibited by HPV 18

155
Q

What CA is associated w/ hypercalcemia?

A

primary SCC of lung
Renal Adeconcarcinoma
PTH-like peptide

156
Q

WHat CA is associated w/ myasthenia gravis?

A

Eaton-Lambert Sx

SCC of lung

157
Q

What CA is associated w/ sudden appearance of seborrheic keratosis?

A

“Sudden”

Stomach Adenocarcinoma

158
Q

What CA is associated w/ hypertrophic osteoarthropathy?

A

Lung CA

159
Q

What CA is associated w/ superficial migratory thrombophlebitis?

A

pancreatic carcinoma

Troussau sign (he had it himself, self-diagnosed)

160
Q

What CA manifests Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis?

Sterile Vegetations on Mitral Valve

A

Mucous-secreting pancreatic and colorectal CA

161
Q

WHat CA manifests w/ ADH increase? What do you find clinically?

A

SCC of lung

Hyponatremia

162
Q

What SG is associated w/ familial polyposis: color cancer?

A

APC

163
Q

What suppressor gene is asscoiated w/ retinoblastoma, osteogenic sarcoma and breast CA?

A

RB

164
Q

What is the function of TP53?

A

G1 to S phase inhibitor

165
Q

What is the function of BRCA 1/2 gene?

A

Regulates DNA repair

166
Q

What is the APC gene function?

A

Prevents nuclear transcription

- degrades catenin; an activator of nuclear transcription

167
Q

What SG is associated w/ familial polyposis: color cancer?

A

APC

168
Q

What suppressor gene is asscoiated w/ retinoblastoma, osteogenic sarcoma and breast CA?

A

RB

169
Q

What is the function of TP53?

A

G1 to S phase inhibitor

170
Q

What is the function of BRCA 1/2 gene?

A

Regulates DNA repair

171
Q

What is the APC gene function?

A

Prevents nuclear transcription

- degrades catenin; an activator of nuclear transcription

172
Q

What virus is associated w/ SIS POC and w/ Osteogenic Sarcoma?

A

EBV

173
Q

What POC amplifies breasts??? imagine that…

A

ERB-B2

Breast bigger two!

174
Q

What are the inactivation of suppressor genes?

A

TP53, RB, APC and BRCA1/2

175
Q

What suppressor gene (SG) is associated w/ lung, colon, breast and Li-Fraumeni syndrome?

A

TP53

176
Q

What SG is assciated w/ breast, ovary and prostate CA?

A

BRCA 1

BRCA 2

177
Q

What does SIS activate?

A

Overexpression

178
Q

What does ERB-B2 activate?

A

Amplification

179
Q

What does RET Activate?

A

Point Mutation

180
Q

What does RAS activate?

A

Point Mutation

181
Q

What does ABL activate?

A

translocation

t(9;22)

182
Q

What POC is associated w/ lung CA?

A

RAS

183
Q

What POC is associated w/ CML?

A

ABL

184
Q

What POC is associated w/ Burkitt’s Lymphoma?

A

c-MYC

MYC

185
Q

What POC is associated w/ colon CA?

A

RAS

186
Q

What POC is associated w/ MEN IIa/IIb Syndromes?

A

RET

187
Q

What Protoconcogene (POC) is associated w/ osteogenic sarcoma?

A

SIS

188
Q

What POC is associated w/ Leukemia?

A

RAS

189
Q

What POC is associated w/ Breast CA?

A

ERB-B2

190
Q

What POC is associated w/ Astrocytoma?

A

SIS

191
Q

What POC is associated w/ Neuroblastoma?

A

N-MYC

192
Q

What does group B has?

A

anti A-IgM

193
Q

What does group AB has?

A

nothing

just like new borns and old people

194
Q

What blood group has greatest incidence of gastric carcinoma?

A

group A

195
Q

What is associated w/ duodenal ulcer?

A

group O blood

196
Q

Who is the universal donor?

A

Group O

197
Q

What is elevated in vWF disease?

A

Elevated Bleeding Time (platelet adh. problem)

aPTT increased

198
Q

What is elevated on hemophilia A?

A 
VIII deficient
aPTT increased
(intrinsic pathway)
199
Q

What is elevated in a person taking aspirin?

A

Bleeding Time elevated

200
Q

What is elevated in Idiopathic Thrombocytogenic Purpura? Decreased?

A

Bleeding Time increased

platelets decreased

201
Q

What are two other diseases that has Bleed Time increased and decreased platelets?

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

202
Q

What CA manifests w/ ACTH increase? Clinical Symptoms?

A

SCC of lung
Medullary CA of Thyroid

Clin: Cushing Sx

203
Q

What CA manifests increase in erythropoietin?

Clinical?

A

Renal AdenoCA
primary SCC of lung
Breast CA

hypercalcemia

204
Q

What CA presents w/ inc. in B-hCG? Symp?

A

Choriocarcinoma (Testis)

gynecomastia

205
Q

What CA presenst w/ Calcitonin increase? Symp.?

A

Medullary CA of Thyroid

hypocalcemia

206
Q

What region of the face does BCC and SCC occur?

A

BCC top of the face upper lips

SCC below lower lips

207
Q

WHat RNA virus is associated with TP53 suppressor?

A

HTLV-1 T cell leukemia and lymphoma virus!

208
Q

What DNA virus is associated w/ TP53 suppersor gene?

A

HBV and HPV 16,18 E6 inhibits it

209
Q

What two genes are knocked out by HPV 16, 18?

A

E6 and E7 produced by HPV

E6 inhibits TP53
E7 inhibits RB suppressor gene

210
Q

What CA does EBV is associated with?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma
CNS lymphoma in AIDS
Mixed Cellularity Hodgkin’s
Nasopharyngeal CA

211
Q

What virus is associated w/ hepatocelluar CA?

A

HBV

212
Q

What RNA virus causes hepatocellular CA?

A

HCV not HBV!!!

HBV is DNA virus

213
Q

What deffect has opening snap during diastole?

A

Mitral Stenosis

Snap Stenosis

214
Q

What MCC of death in rheumatic fever?

A

Myocarditis

215
Q

What type of Hypersensitivity is Rheumatic Fever?

A

Type II

216
Q

What organism is involved in Rheumatic Fever?

A

group A Strepto

Step. pyogenes

217
Q

What do the antibodies react to in Group A Steptococcus?

A

Ab react to M proteins

218
Q

What are two common findings in myocarditis?

A

aschoff bodies
Anitschkow Cells

the two Russians

219
Q

WHat are Aschoff Bodies?

A

central fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by reactive histiocytes

220
Q

How long after a group A step. pharyngitis does Rheumatic Fever occur?

A

1-5 weeks after episode

221
Q

What are five signs of Rheumatic fever?

A

1) Carditis
2) Migratory polyarthritis
3) Subcutaneous Nodules
4) Erythema Marginatum
5) Sydenham’s Chorea

222
Q

What valve is affected with a pansystolic (holosytolic) murmur?

A

Mitral Regurgitation

223
Q

What valve is involved in a mid-systolic click?

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse

it clicks half way since the chordae restrain it

224
Q

What two diseases have Mitral Valve Prolapse?

A

Marfan’s Sx

Ehlers Danlos

225
Q

What pathology is associated with coarctation of the aorta?

A

Turner Sx

226
Q

What is the MC congenital heart disease in children?

A

VSD

very small dudes :)

227
Q

What is the MC congenital heart disease in adults?

A

a is for ASD

228
Q

What are the three A’s in ASD?

A

Adults
Alchohol Fetal Sx
ALL from Down Syndrome

229
Q

What viral infection is involved w/ PDA?

A

rubella

230
Q

What murmur is heard in PDA?

A

machine like murmur during systole and diastole

231
Q

What keeps PDA open in fetus?

A

PGE2

232
Q

What is the Tx for closure of PDA in newborn?

A

indomethacin

233
Q

Where is the murmur best heard for PDA?

A

between the shoulder blades

234
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma, SCC of oropharynx and upper/mid esophagus?

A

Alcohol

235
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with stomach AdenoCA?

A

nitrosamines and nitrosamides

236
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with colorectal cancer?

A

Lithocholic acid

secondary bile acid

237
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with Lung CA? (4)

A

uranium
asbestos
chromium
nickel

238
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with pleural mesothelioma?

A

Asbestos

239
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with breast cancer and cervical cancer?

A

Oral Contraceptives

240
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with SCC of skin, lung CA, liver angiosacroma?

A

Arsenic

241
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with TCC of bladder? (2)

A

cyclophosphamide

b-naphthylamine (dye and rubber indus.)

242
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with acute leukemia?

A

benzene

243
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with SCC of penis?

A

Smegma in uncircumcised male

244
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with SCC of scrotum?

A

tar, soot, oil (chimney sweeper)

245
Q

What carcinogen is impilcated with malignant lymphoma?

A

Alkylating agents

246
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for BCC, SCC, melanoma?

A

UVB light

247
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Kaposi’s Sacroma?

A

HHV-8

248
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Nasopharyngela CA?

A

EBV

249
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for larynx CA?

A

polycyclic HOC (hydrocarbons)

250
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for distal esophagus?

A

barret’s disease

251
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Stomach AdenoCA?

A

Helicobacter pylori

252
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Colon adenoCA?

A

preexisting polyps

tubular and villous adenoma

253
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for pancreas?

A

polycyclic HOC

254
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for hepatocellular CA?

A

HBV or HCV cirrhosis

255
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for seminoma?

A

cryptorchid testis

semi-descended testis
semi noma

256
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for breast CA?

A 
age >50
excess estrogen:
1) nulliparity
2) early menarche
3) late menopause
4) obesity
257
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for dysgerminoma/gonadoblastoma?

A

Turner Sx XO dysgerminoma

XO/XY gonadoblastoma

258
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for vagina/cervix clear cell?

A

diethylestilbestrol

259
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for surface derived ovarian CA?

A

nulliparity

because of increase of ovulatory cycles

260
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for choriocarcinoma?

A

Complete Hydatidiform Mole

261
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Malignant lymphoma thyroid?

A

Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

262
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for papillary CA of thyroid?

A

Ionization Radiation

263
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for medullary CA thyroid?

A

MEN IIa/IIb

264
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for osteogenic sarcoma?

A

retinoblastoma

radiation

265
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Primary CNS lymphoma?

A

EBV in AIDS pat.

266
Q

What is the mos common risk factor for Burkitt’s Lymphoma?

A

EBV

267
Q

Which on is protein rich? Transudate or Exude?

A

Exude

extra proteins inside the fluid

268
Q

What causes flushing and diarrhea in carcinoid Sx?

A

serotonin

269
Q

What mumurs are heard in systole with crescendo-decrescendo fashion??

A

Stenosis AV/PV (atrial valve/pulmonary valve)

270
Q

When do Mitral Valve and tricuspid valve occur?

A

Opening Snap in mid-diastole

USMLE (13 decks)

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