Microbiology Superset RidEZ - Part 3 Flashcards by Mani Yavi

Q

What is the histologic appearance of Mucor?

A

Just like Rhizopus

Mold with irregular, broad, empty looking, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What is the histologic appearance of Rhizopus?

A

Just like Mucor

Mold with irregular, broad, empty looking, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Which patients are likely to have Mucor/Rhizopus?

A

Ketoacidotic diabetics

2. Leukemics

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Where in the body does Mucor/Rhizopus proliferate?

A

Walls of blood vessels, causing infarction of distal tissue
Rhinocerebral frontal lobe abscesses

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What is pneumocystis jirovecii?

A

Formerly pneumocystis carinii. Yeast (originally classified as a protozoan)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What disease states does Pneumocystis cause?

A

Most infection sasymptomatic. Immunosuppresion predisposes to disease.

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

How is pneumocystis diagnosed?

A

Lung biopsy or lavage. Methenamine silver stain of lung tissue.

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Treatment for pneumocystis

A

Combination of TMP-SMX, Pentamidine, and Dapsone.

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Characterization of sporotrix schenckii

A

Dimorphic fungus that lives on vegetation.

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Presentation of sporotrichosis

A

Traumatically introduced into the skin by a thorn
Local pustule/ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis)
Little systemic illness

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What is rose gardener’s disease?

A

Sporotrichosis

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Histologic appearance of sporotrix schenckii

A

Cigar-shaped yeast visible in pus with unequal budding

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

Treatment for sporotrichosis

A

Itraconazole or potassium iodide

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What disease states does Entamoeba histolytica cause?

A

Amebiasis
Bloody diarrhea (dysentery)
liver abscess
RUQ pain

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What disease states does Giardia lamblia cause?

A

Giardiasis
Bloating
Flatulence
Foul-smelling diarrhea

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What diseases are found in campers and hikers?

A

Yersinia pestis and Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What disease states does Cryptosporidium cause?

A

Diarrhea

AIDS: Severe
Non-HIV: Mild watery

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What disease states does Toxoplasma cause?

A

HIV: Brain abscess

2. Birth defects (ring-enhancing brain lesions)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What disease states does Plasmodium cause?

A

Malaria:

Cyclic fever
Headache
Anemia
Splenomegaly
Severe cerebral malaria (with Plasmodium falciparum)

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What disease states does Trichomonas cause?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis causes vaginitis with foul-smelling greenish discharge, strawberry-colored mucosa, and itching and burning. Motile on wet prep.

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What disease states does Trypanosoma cruzi cause?

A

Chagas’ disease:

Dilated cardiomyopathy
Megacolon
Megaesophagus

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What disease states does Trypanosoma gambiense cause?

A

African sleeping sickness

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What disease states does Trypanosoma rhodesiense cause?

A

African sleeping sickness

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

Q

What disease states does Leishmania donovani cause?

A

Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar or black fever):
fever, weight loss, anaemia and substantial swelling of the liver and spleen

How well did you know this?

1

Not at all

2

3

4

5

Perfectly

What disease states does Naegleria cause?

Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis

What disease states does Babesia cause?

Babesiosis: Fever and anemia

Which protozoa are transmitted by cysts?

1. Entamoeba histolytica 2. Giardia lamblia 3. Cryptosporidium 4. Toxoplasma All water cysts except Toxo (cysts in meat or cat feces)

Which protozoa are transmitted by insect?

1. Plasmodium (Anophales mosquitoes) 2. Trypanosoma cruzi (Reduviid bug) 3. Other trypanosomas (Tsetse fly) 4. Leishmania (Sandfly) 5. Babesia (Ixodes tick)

Which protozoa are transmitted by swimming in freshwater lakes?

Naeglaria (via cribriform plate)

Which protozoa are transmitted sexually?

Trichomonas vaginalis

Which protozoa are transmitted by mosquito?

Plasmodium

Which protozoa are transmitted by reduviid bug?

Trypanosoma cruzi (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid))

Which protozoa are transmitted by tsetse fly?

Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid))

Which protozoa are transmitted by sandfly?

Leishmania

Which protozoa are transmitted by ixodes tick?

Babesia

How do you diagnose: Giardia lamblia

Trophozoites or cysts in stool (classic pair shaped organism with double nuclei like owl eyes)

How do you diagnose: Entamoeba histolytica

1. Trophozoites or cysts in stool AND/OR 2. Serology

How do you diagnose: Cryptosporidium

Cysts on acid-fast stain

How do you diagnose: Toxoplasma

Serology, biopsy

How do you diagnose: Plasmodium

Blood smear

How do you diagnose: Trypanosoma

Blood smear

How do you diagnose: Babesia

Blood smear, no RBC pigment, appears as "maltese cross"

How do you diagnose: Leishmania

Macrophages containing amastigotes

How do you diagnose: Naegleria

Amebas in spinal fluid

Treatment for: Entameba histolytica

Metronidazole and iodoquinol

Treatment for: Giardia lamblia

Metronidazole

Treatment for: Trichomonas vaginalis

Metronidazole

Treatment for: Cryptosporidium

None

Treatment for: Naegleria

None

Treatment for: Plasmodium

1. Choloroquine 2. additonal Primaquine (for P. vivax and P. ovale to prevent relapse or liver damage) 3. sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine 4. Mefloquine 5. Quinine

Treatment for: Trypanosoma cruzi

Nifurtimox

Treatment for: Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense

If blood-borne, suramin. If CNS penetration, melarsoprol.

Treatment for: Leishmania

Sodium stibogluconate

Treatment for: Babesia

Qunine, clindamycin

Treatment for: Toxoplasma

Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine

Type of bug: Candida albicans

Dimorphic fungus, cutaneous OR systemic infection

Type of bug: Coccidioides immitis

Monomorphic fungus, systemic infection

Type of bug: Histoplasma capsulatum

Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection

Type of bug: Blastomyces dermatidis

Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection

Type of bug: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection

Type of bug: Malassezia furfur

Monomorphic fungus, superficial infection

Type of bug: Cladosporium werneckii

Monomorphic fungus, superficial infection

Type of bug: Microsporum

Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection

Type of bug: Trichophyton

Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection

Type of bug: Epidermophyton

Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection

Type of bug: Aspergillus fumigatus

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

Type of bug: Cryptococcus neoformans

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

Type of bug: Mucor

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

Type of bug: Rhizopus

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

Type of bug: Pneumocystis jirovecii

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

Type of bug: Sporothrix schenckii

Dimorphic fungus, subcutaneous infection with some lymphatic spread

Type of bug: Entamoeba histolytica

Protozoan

Type of bug: Giardia lamblia

Protozoan

Type of bug: Naegleria

Protozoan

Type of bug: Plasmodium

Protozoan

Type of bug: Cryptosporidium

Protozoan

Type of bug: Toxoplasma

Protozoan

Type of bug: Trichomonas

Protozoan

Type of bug: Trypanosoma

Protozoan

Type of bug: Leishmania

Protozoan

Type of bug: Babesia

Protozoan

Type of bug: Taenia solium

Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)

Type of bug: Echinococcus granulosus

Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)

Type of bug: Schistosoma

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

Type of bug: Clonorchis sinensis

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

Type of bug: Paragonimus westermani

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

Type of bug: Ancylostoma duodenale

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Type of bug: Ascaris lumbricoides

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Type of bug: Enterobius vermicularis

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Type of bug: Strongyloides stercolaris

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Type of bug: Trichinella spiralis

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Type of bug: Dracunculus medinensis

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Type of bug: Loa loa

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Type of bug: Onchocera volvulus

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Type of bug: Toxocara canis

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Type of bug: Wuchereria bancrofti

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

Type of bug: Treponema

Spirochete

Which worm: Undercooked pork

1. Taenia solium (tapeworm) | 2. Trichinella spiralis (roundworm)

Which worm: Brain cysts

Taenia solium (tapeworm)

Which worm: Liver cysts

Echniococcus granulosus (tapeworm)

Important points about echinococcus granulosus

Tapeworm (Cestode) 1. Ingested eggs from dog feces 2. Liver cysts 3. Cysts release antigens and cause anaphylaxis

Taenia solium: Treatment

Praziquantel/niclosamide. Albendazole for cysticercosis

Echinococcus granulosus: Treatment

Albendazole

Characterization of Schistosoma

Fluke (Trematode) 1. Hosted by snails 2. Penetrate skin of humans

Presentation of Schistosoma

Spleen and liver: 1. Granulomas 2. Fibrosis 3. Inflammation

Schistosoma: Treatment

Praziquantel

Which worm: Portal hypertension

Schistosoma mansoni

Which worm: Hematuria

Schistosoma haematobium

Which worm: Bladder cancer

Schistosoma haematobium

Important points about Clonorchis sinensis

Fluke (trematode) 1. Undercooked fish 2. Inflammation of biliary tract

Which worm: Undercooked fish

Clonorchis sinensis

Clonorchis sinensis: Treatment

Praziquantel

Which worm: B12 deficiency

Diphyllobothrium latum (tapeworm)

Which worm: Undercooked crab meat

Paragonimus westermani (fluke)

Important points about Pargonimus westermani

Trematode (fluke) 1. Undercooked crabmeat 2. Inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of the lung 3. Hemoptysis

Which worm: Hemoptysis

Paragonimus westermani (fluke)

Paragonimus westermani: Treatment

Praziquantel

Which worm: Microcytic anemia

Ancylostoma (aka hookworm) and Necator (both roundworms)

Which worm: Perianal pruritus

Enterobius vermicularis (aka pinworm, a roundworm)

Important points about Ancylostoma duodenale

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Aka hookworm 2. Larvae penetrate skin of feet 3. Intestinal infection can cause anemia

Ancylostoma duodenale: Treatment

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

Important points about Ascaris lumbricoides

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Aka giant roundworm (Up to 1 foot in length!) 2. Eggs are visible in feces. 3. Intestinal infection

Ascaris lumbricoides: Treatment

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

Important points about Enterobius vermicularis

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Aka pinworm 2. Food contaminated with eggs 3. Intestinal infection 4. Anal pruritus (scotch tape test)

Enterobius vermicularis: Treatment

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

Important points about Strongyloides stercoralis

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Larvae in soil penetrate the skin 2. Intestinal infection

Strongyloides stercoralis: treatment

Ivermectin/thiabendazole

Important points about Trichinella spiralis

Roundworm (nematode) 1. Undercooked meat, usually pork 2. Inflammation of muscle 3. Periorbital edema

Trichinella spiralis: Treatment

Thiabendazole

Important points about Dracunculus medinensis

Nematode (roundworm) 1. In drinking water 2. Skin inflammation and ulceration

Dracunculus medinensis: Treatment

Niridazole

Important points about Loa loa

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Transmitted by deer fly 2. Causes swelling in skin 3. Can see worm crawling in conjunctiva

Loa loa: Treatment

Diethylcarbamazine

Important points about Onchocerca volvulus

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Transmitted by female blackflies 2. Causes river blindness

Onchocerca volvulus: Treatment

Ivermectin

Important points about Toxocara canis

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Food contaminated with eggs 2. Causes granulomas (if in retina, blindness) 3. Visceral larva migrans

Toxocara canis: Treatment

Diethylcarbamazine

Important points about Wuchereria bancrofti

Nematode (roundworm) 1. Female mosquito 2. Causes blockage of lymphatic vessels (elephantiasis)

Wuchereria bancrofti: Treatment

Diethylcarbamazine

Which DNA viruses are double stranded?

All DNA viruses except for Parvoviridae Mnemonic: All are dsDNA like ours, except "Part-of-a-virus" which is ss.

Which DNA viruses are single stranded?

Parvoviridae

Which DNA viruses have linear genomes?

All except papova virus and hepadna which are circular

Which DNA viruses have circular genomes?

papova virus and hepadna which are circular

Which RNA viruses are single stranded?

All except Reovirus (ds) Mnemonic: All are ssRNA like ours, except "RepatO-virus" which is ds.

Which RNA viruses are double stranded?

Reovirus (ds) Mnemonic: All are ssRNA like ours, except "RepatO-virus" which is ds.

Which DNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic acids?

Most dsDNA (except poxvirus and HBV)

Which DNA viruses have non-infectious naked nucleic acids?

poxvirus and HBV

Which RNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic acids?

+ strand ssRNA (almost the same as mRNA)

Which RNA viruses have noninfectious naked nucleic acids?

- strand ssRNA Mnemonic: Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication 1. Arena 2. Bunya 3. Paramyxo 4. Orthomyxo 5. Filo 6. Rhabdo

Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the plasma membrane?

All except herpesviruses (nuclear membrane)

Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the nuclear membrane?

Only herpesviruses

Which viruses are haploid?

All except retroviruses (diploid)

Which viruses are diploid?

Retroviruses

Where do DNA viruses replicate?

In the nucleus (except pox)

Where do RNA viruses replicate?

Cytoplasm (except influenza and retroviruses)

DNA virus families

Mnemonic: DNA viruses are HHAPPPy 1. Hepadna 2. Herpesviruses 3. Adenovirus 4. Parvovirus 5. Papovavirus 6. Poxvirus

Which DNA viruses are icosahedral?

All except pox (complex)

Which DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus?

All except pox (carries own DNA-dependent RNA polymerases)

Which DNA viruses are naked?

Mnem: Get naked for your PAP 1. Parvo 2. Adeno 3. Papova

Which DNA viruses are enveloped?

HPH 1. Hepadna 2. Pox 3. Herpes

Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Live attenuated vaccines

Both (with a few cases of reversion to virulence)

Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Killed vaccines

Humoral immunity (stable)

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: MMR vaccine

Live attenuated, egg-based Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu, mmR, Yellow fever)

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Sabin polio vaccine

Live attenuated

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: VZV vaccine

Live attenuated

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Yellow fever vaccine

Live attenuated, egg-based Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu, mmR, Yellow fever)

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Smallpox vaccine

Live attenuated

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Adenovirus vaccine

Live attenuated

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Rabies vaccine

Killed Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies, Influenza, salk Polio, hAv)

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Influenza vaccine

Killed, egg-based Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu, mmR, Yellow fever) Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies, Influenza, salk Polio, hAv)

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Salk polio vaccine

Killed Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies, Influenza, salk Polio, hAv)

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HAV vaccine

Killed Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies, Influenza, salk Polio, hAv)

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HBV vaccine

Recombinant (antigen is recombinant HBsAg)

Definition: Viral recombination

Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

What is this viral process: Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

Viral recombination

Definition: Viral Reassortment

Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments. Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.

What is this viral process: Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments.

Viral Reassortment Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.

Definition: Viral Complementation

When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus "complements" the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses.

What is this viral process: When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus makes a functional protein that serves both viruses.

Viral Complementation

Definition: Viral Phenotypic Mixing

Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus. Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes.

What is this viral process: Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus.

Viral Phenotypic Mixing Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes.

What does it mean for a virus to be naked?

It has only a nucleocapsid, and no envelope.

Which RNA viruses are enveloped?

1. Measles 2. Mumps 3. Rubella 4. RSV 5. Rabies 6. HTLV 7. HIV 8. Influenza 9. Parainfluenza Mnem: MMRRHHflu

Which RNA viruses are naked?

Mnemonic: Naked CPR 1. Calicivirus 2. Picornavirus [Enteroviruses (polio, coxsackie, echo, HAV), Rhino] 3. Reovirus

What does it mean for viruses to be negative stranded?

Must transcribe negative strand to positive, using RNA polymerase.

Negative stranded viruses

Mnem: Always Bring Polymerase or Fail Replication 1. Arenaviruses 2. Bunyaviruses 3. Paramyxoviruses 4. Orthomyxoviruses 5. Filoviruses 6. Rhabdoviruses

Segmented viruses

Mnem: BOAR 1. Bunyaviruses 2. Orthomyxoviruses (flu) 3. Arenaviruses 4. Reovirus

How many segments in influenza?

8

Which RNA viruses are linear?

All except the BAD seeds (Bunyavirus, Arenavirus, Deltavirus)

Which RNA viruses are circular?

the BAD seeds 1. Bunya 2. Arena 3. Delta

Which RNA viruses are icosahedral?

Naked (CPR) FaRT 1. Calici 2. Picorna 3. Reo 4. Flavi 5. Retro 6. Toga

Which RNA viruses are helical?

Mnemonic: The COP BARFeD up a helix. 1. Corona 2. Orthomyxo 3. Paramyxo 4. Bunya 5. Arena 6. Rhabdo 7. Filo 8. Delta

Which viruses have reverse transcriptase?

Retro and HBV