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USMLE > Microbiology Superset RidEZ - Part 3 > Flashcards

Microbiology Superset RidEZ - Part 3 Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

What is the histologic appearance of Mucor?

A

Just like Rhizopus

Mold with irregular, broad, empty looking, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)

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2
Q

What is the histologic appearance of Rhizopus?

A

Just like Mucor

Mold with irregular, broad, empty looking, nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (over 90 degrees)

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3
Q

Which patients are likely to have Mucor/Rhizopus?

A
  1. Ketoacidotic diabetics

2. Leukemics

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4
Q

Where in the body does Mucor/Rhizopus proliferate?

A
  1. Walls of blood vessels, causing infarction of distal tissue
  2. Rhinocerebral frontal lobe abscesses
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5
Q

What is pneumocystis jirovecii?

A

Formerly pneumocystis carinii. Yeast (originally classified as a protozoan)

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6
Q

What disease states does Pneumocystis cause?

A

Most infection sasymptomatic. Immunosuppresion predisposes to disease.

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7
Q

How is pneumocystis diagnosed?

A

Lung biopsy or lavage. Methenamine silver stain of lung tissue.

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8
Q

Treatment for pneumocystis

A

Combination of TMP-SMX, Pentamidine, and Dapsone.

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9
Q

Characterization of sporotrix schenckii

A

Dimorphic fungus that lives on vegetation.

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10
Q

Presentation of sporotrichosis

A
  1. Traumatically introduced into the skin by a thorn
  2. Local pustule/ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis)
  3. Little systemic illness
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11
Q

What is rose gardener’s disease?

A

Sporotrichosis

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12
Q

Histologic appearance of sporotrix schenckii

A

Cigar-shaped yeast visible in pus with unequal budding

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13
Q

Treatment for sporotrichosis

A

Itraconazole or potassium iodide

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14
Q

What disease states does Entamoeba histolytica cause?

A
  1. Amebiasis
  2. Bloody diarrhea (dysentery)
  3. liver abscess
  4. RUQ pain
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15
Q

What disease states does Giardia lamblia cause?

A
  1. Giardiasis
  2. Bloating
  3. Flatulence
  4. Foul-smelling diarrhea
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16
Q

What diseases are found in campers and hikers?

A

Yersinia pestis and Giardia lamblia

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17
Q

What disease states does Cryptosporidium cause?

A

Diarrhea

  1. AIDS: Severe
  2. Non-HIV: Mild watery
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18
Q

What disease states does Toxoplasma cause?

A
  1. HIV: Brain abscess

2. Birth defects (ring-enhancing brain lesions)

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19
Q

What disease states does Plasmodium cause?

A

Malaria:

  1. Cyclic fever
  2. Headache
  3. Anemia
  4. Splenomegaly
  5. Severe cerebral malaria (with Plasmodium falciparum)
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20
Q

What disease states does Trichomonas cause?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis causes vaginitis with foul-smelling greenish discharge, strawberry-colored mucosa, and itching and burning. Motile on wet prep.

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21
Q

What disease states does Trypanosoma cruzi cause?

A

Chagas’ disease:

  1. Dilated cardiomyopathy
  2. Megacolon
  3. Megaesophagus
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22
Q

What disease states does Trypanosoma gambiense cause?

A

African sleeping sickness

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23
Q

What disease states does Trypanosoma rhodesiense cause?

A

African sleeping sickness

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24
Q

What disease states does Leishmania donovani cause?

A 
Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar or black fever):
fever, weight loss, anaemia and substantial swelling of the liver and spleen
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25
Q

What disease states does Naegleria cause?

A

Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis

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26
Q

What disease states does Babesia cause?

A

Babesiosis: Fever and anemia

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27
Q

Which protozoa are transmitted by cysts?

A
  1. Entamoeba histolytica
  2. Giardia lamblia
  3. Cryptosporidium
  4. Toxoplasma

All water cysts except Toxo (cysts in meat or cat feces)

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28
Q

Which protozoa are transmitted by insect?

A
  1. Plasmodium (Anophales mosquitoes)
  2. Trypanosoma cruzi (Reduviid bug)
  3. Other trypanosomas (Tsetse fly)
  4. Leishmania (Sandfly)
  5. Babesia (Ixodes tick)
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29
Q

Which protozoa are transmitted by swimming in freshwater lakes?

A

Naeglaria (via cribriform plate)

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30
Q

Which protozoa are transmitted sexually?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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31
Q

Which protozoa are transmitted by mosquito?

A

Plasmodium

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32
Q

Which protozoa are transmitted by reduviid bug?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid))

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33
Q

Which protozoa are transmitted by tsetse fly?

A

Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense (the enses are transmitted by the tsetses, cruzii by reduviid))

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34
Q

Which protozoa are transmitted by sandfly?

A

Leishmania

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35
Q

Which protozoa are transmitted by ixodes tick?

A

Babesia

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36
Q

How do you diagnose: Giardia lamblia

A

Trophozoites or cysts in stool (classic pair shaped organism with double nuclei like owl eyes)

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37
Q

How do you diagnose: Entamoeba histolytica

A
  1. Trophozoites or cysts in stool

AND/OR

  1. Serology
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38
Q

How do you diagnose: Cryptosporidium

A

Cysts on acid-fast stain

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39
Q

How do you diagnose: Toxoplasma

A

Serology, biopsy

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40
Q

How do you diagnose: Plasmodium

A

Blood smear

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41
Q

How do you diagnose: Trypanosoma

A

Blood smear

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42
Q

How do you diagnose: Babesia

A

Blood smear, no RBC pigment, appears as “maltese cross”

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43
Q

How do you diagnose: Leishmania

A

Macrophages containing amastigotes

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44
Q

How do you diagnose: Naegleria

A

Amebas in spinal fluid

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45
Q

Treatment for: Entameba histolytica

A

Metronidazole and iodoquinol

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46
Q

Treatment for: Giardia lamblia

A

Metronidazole

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47
Q

Treatment for: Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole

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48
Q

Treatment for: Cryptosporidium

A

None

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49
Q

Treatment for: Naegleria

A

None

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50
Q

Treatment for: Plasmodium

A
  1. Choloroquine
  2. additonal Primaquine (for P. vivax and P. ovale to prevent relapse or liver damage)
  3. sulfadoxine plus pyrimethamine
  4. Mefloquine
  5. Quinine
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51
Q

Treatment for: Trypanosoma cruzi

A

Nifurtimox

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52
Q

Treatment for: Trypanosoma gambiense and rhodesiense

A

If blood-borne, suramin.

If CNS penetration, melarsoprol.

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53
Q

Treatment for: Leishmania

A

Sodium stibogluconate

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54
Q

Treatment for: Babesia

A

Qunine, clindamycin

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55
Q

Treatment for: Toxoplasma

A

Sulfadiazine plus pyrimethamine

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56
Q

Type of bug: Candida albicans

A

Dimorphic fungus, cutaneous OR systemic infection

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57
Q

Type of bug: Coccidioides immitis

A

Monomorphic fungus, systemic infection

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58
Q

Type of bug: Histoplasma capsulatum

A

Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection

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59
Q

Type of bug: Blastomyces dermatidis

A

Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection

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60
Q

Type of bug: Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

A

Dimorphic fungus, systemic infection

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61
Q

Type of bug: Malassezia furfur

A

Monomorphic fungus, superficial infection

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62
Q

Type of bug: Cladosporium werneckii

A

Monomorphic fungus, superficial infection

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63
Q

Type of bug: Microsporum

A

Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection

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64
Q

Type of bug: Trichophyton

A

Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection

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65
Q

Type of bug: Epidermophyton

A

Monomorphic fungus, cutaneous infection

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66
Q

Type of bug: Aspergillus fumigatus

A

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

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67
Q

Type of bug: Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

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68
Q

Type of bug: Mucor

A

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

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69
Q

Type of bug: Rhizopus

A

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

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70
Q

Type of bug: Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

Monomorphic fungus, opportunistic systemic infection

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71
Q

Type of bug: Sporothrix schenckii

A

Dimorphic fungus, subcutaneous infection with some lymphatic spread

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72
Q

Type of bug: Entamoeba histolytica

A

Protozoan

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73
Q

Type of bug: Giardia lamblia

A

Protozoan

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74
Q

Type of bug: Naegleria

A

Protozoan

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75
Q

Type of bug: Plasmodium

A

Protozoan

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76
Q

Type of bug: Cryptosporidium

A

Protozoan

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77
Q

Type of bug: Toxoplasma

A

Protozoan

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78
Q

Type of bug: Trichomonas

A

Protozoan

79
Q

Type of bug: Trypanosoma

A

Protozoan

80
Q

Type of bug: Leishmania

A

Protozoan

81
Q

Type of bug: Babesia

A

Protozoan

82
Q

Type of bug: Taenia solium

A

Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)

83
Q

Type of bug: Echinococcus granulosus

A

Helminth: Cestode (Tapeworm)

84
Q

Type of bug: Schistosoma

A

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

85
Q

Type of bug: Clonorchis sinensis

A

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

86
Q

Type of bug: Paragonimus westermani

A

Helminth: Trematode (fluke)

87
Q

Type of bug: Ancylostoma duodenale

A

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

88
Q

Type of bug: Ascaris lumbricoides

A

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

89
Q

Type of bug: Enterobius vermicularis

A

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

90
Q

Type of bug: Strongyloides stercolaris

A

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

91
Q

Type of bug: Trichinella spiralis

A

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

92
Q

Type of bug: Dracunculus medinensis

A

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

93
Q

Type of bug: Loa loa

A

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

94
Q

Type of bug: Onchocera volvulus

A

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

95
Q

Type of bug: Toxocara canis

A

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

96
Q

Type of bug: Wuchereria bancrofti

A

Helminth: Nematode (roundworm)

97
Q

Type of bug: Treponema

A

Spirochete

98
Q

Which worm: Undercooked pork

A
  1. Taenia solium (tapeworm)

2. Trichinella spiralis (roundworm)

99
Q

Which worm: Brain cysts

A

Taenia solium (tapeworm)

100
Q

Which worm: Liver cysts

A

Echniococcus granulosus (tapeworm)

101
Q

Important points about echinococcus granulosus

A

Tapeworm (Cestode)

  1. Ingested eggs from dog feces
  2. Liver cysts
  3. Cysts release antigens and cause anaphylaxis
102
Q

Taenia solium: Treatment

A

Praziquantel/niclosamide. Albendazole for cysticercosis

103
Q

Echinococcus granulosus: Treatment

A

Albendazole

104
Q

Characterization of Schistosoma

A

Fluke (Trematode)

  1. Hosted by snails
  2. Penetrate skin of humans
105
Q

Presentation of Schistosoma

A

Spleen and liver:

  1. Granulomas
  2. Fibrosis
  3. Inflammation
106
Q

Schistosoma: Treatment

A

Praziquantel

107
Q

Which worm: Portal hypertension

A

Schistosoma mansoni

108
Q

Which worm: Hematuria

A

Schistosoma haematobium

109
Q

Which worm: Bladder cancer

A

Schistosoma haematobium

110
Q

Important points about Clonorchis sinensis

A

Fluke (trematode)

  1. Undercooked fish
  2. Inflammation of biliary tract
111
Q

Which worm: Undercooked fish

A

Clonorchis sinensis

112
Q

Clonorchis sinensis: Treatment

A

Praziquantel

113
Q

Which worm: B12 deficiency

A

Diphyllobothrium latum (tapeworm)

114
Q

Which worm: Undercooked crab meat

A

Paragonimus westermani (fluke)

115
Q

Important points about Pargonimus westermani

A

Trematode (fluke)

  1. Undercooked crabmeat
  2. Inflammation and secondary bacterial infection of the lung
  3. Hemoptysis
116
Q

Which worm: Hemoptysis

A

Paragonimus westermani (fluke)

117
Q

Paragonimus westermani: Treatment

A

Praziquantel

118
Q

Which worm: Microcytic anemia

A

Ancylostoma (aka hookworm) and Necator (both roundworms)

119
Q

Which worm: Perianal pruritus

A

Enterobius vermicularis (aka pinworm, a roundworm)

120
Q

Important points about Ancylostoma duodenale

A

Nematode (roundworm)

  1. Aka hookworm
  2. Larvae penetrate skin of feet
  3. Intestinal infection can cause anemia
121
Q

Ancylostoma duodenale: Treatment

A

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

122
Q

Important points about Ascaris lumbricoides

A

Nematode (roundworm)

  1. Aka giant roundworm (Up to 1 foot in length!)
  2. Eggs are visible in feces.
  3. Intestinal infection
123
Q

Ascaris lumbricoides: Treatment

A

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

124
Q

Important points about Enterobius vermicularis

A

Nematode (roundworm)

  1. Aka pinworm
  2. Food contaminated with eggs
  3. Intestinal infection
  4. Anal pruritus (scotch tape test)
125
Q

Enterobius vermicularis: Treatment

A

Mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate

126
Q

Important points about Strongyloides stercoralis

A

Nematode (roundworm)

  1. Larvae in soil penetrate the skin
  2. Intestinal infection
127
Q

Strongyloides stercoralis: treatment

A

Ivermectin/thiabendazole

128
Q

Important points about Trichinella spiralis

A

Roundworm (nematode)

  1. Undercooked meat, usually pork
  2. Inflammation of muscle
  3. Periorbital edema
129
Q

Trichinella spiralis: Treatment

A

Thiabendazole

130
Q

Important points about Dracunculus medinensis

A

Nematode (roundworm)

  1. In drinking water
  2. Skin inflammation and ulceration
131
Q

Dracunculus medinensis: Treatment

A

Niridazole

132
Q

Important points about Loa loa

A

Nematode (roundworm)

  1. Transmitted by deer fly
  2. Causes swelling in skin
  3. Can see worm crawling in conjunctiva
133
Q

Loa loa: Treatment

A

Diethylcarbamazine

134
Q

Important points about Onchocerca volvulus

A

Nematode (roundworm)

  1. Transmitted by female blackflies
  2. Causes river blindness
135
Q

Onchocerca volvulus: Treatment

A

Ivermectin

136
Q

Important points about Toxocara canis

A

Nematode (roundworm)

  1. Food contaminated with eggs
  2. Causes granulomas (if in retina, blindness)
  3. Visceral larva migrans
137
Q

Toxocara canis: Treatment

A

Diethylcarbamazine

138
Q

Important points about Wuchereria bancrofti

A

Nematode (roundworm)

  1. Female mosquito
  2. Causes blockage of lymphatic vessels (elephantiasis)
139
Q

Wuchereria bancrofti: Treatment

A

Diethylcarbamazine

140
Q

Which DNA viruses are double stranded?

A

All DNA viruses except for Parvoviridae

Mnemonic: All are dsDNA like ours, except “Part-of-a-virus” which is ss.

141
Q

Which DNA viruses are single stranded?

A

Parvoviridae

142
Q

Which DNA viruses have linear genomes?

A

All except papova virus and hepadna which are circular

143
Q

Which DNA viruses have circular genomes?

A

papova virus and hepadna which are circular

144
Q

Which RNA viruses are single stranded?

A

All except Reovirus (ds)

Mnemonic: All are ssRNA like ours, except “RepatO-virus” which is ds.

145
Q

Which RNA viruses are double stranded?

A

Reovirus (ds)

Mnemonic: All are ssRNA like ours, except “RepatO-virus” which is ds.

146
Q

Which DNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic acids?

A

Most dsDNA (except poxvirus and HBV)

147
Q

Which DNA viruses have non-infectious naked nucleic acids?

A

poxvirus and HBV

148
Q

Which RNA viruses have infectious naked nucleic acids?

A

+ strand ssRNA (almost the same as mRNA)

149
Q

Which RNA viruses have noninfectious naked nucleic acids?

A
  • strand ssRNA

Mnemonic: Always Bring Polymerase Or Fail Replication

  1. Arena
  2. Bunya
  3. Paramyxo
  4. Orthomyxo
  5. Filo
  6. Rhabdo
150
Q

Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the plasma membrane?

A

All except herpesviruses (nuclear membrane)

151
Q

Which enveloped viruses acquire their envelopes from the nuclear membrane?

A

Only herpesviruses

152
Q

Which viruses are haploid?

A

All except retroviruses (diploid)

153
Q

Which viruses are diploid?

A

Retroviruses

154
Q

Where do DNA viruses replicate?

A

In the nucleus (except pox)

155
Q

Where do RNA viruses replicate?

A

Cytoplasm (except influenza and retroviruses)

156
Q

DNA virus families

A

Mnemonic: DNA viruses are HHAPPPy

  1. Hepadna
  2. Herpesviruses
  3. Adenovirus
  4. Parvovirus
  5. Papovavirus
  6. Poxvirus
157
Q

Which DNA viruses are icosahedral?

A

All except pox (complex)

158
Q

Which DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus?

A

All except pox (carries own DNA-dependent RNA polymerases)

159
Q

Which DNA viruses are naked?

A

Mnem: Get naked for your PAP

  1. Parvo
  2. Adeno
  3. Papova
160
Q

Which DNA viruses are enveloped?

A

HPH

  1. Hepadna
  2. Pox
  3. Herpes
161
Q

Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Live attenuated vaccines

A

Both (with a few cases of reversion to virulence)

162
Q

Humoral or Cell-mediated immunity: Killed vaccines

A

Humoral immunity (stable)

163
Q

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: MMR vaccine

A

Live attenuated, egg-based

Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu, mmR, Yellow fever)

164
Q

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Sabin polio vaccine

A

Live attenuated

165
Q

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: VZV vaccine

A

Live attenuated

166
Q

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Yellow fever vaccine

A

Live attenuated, egg-based

Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu, mmR, Yellow fever)

167
Q

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Smallpox vaccine

A

Live attenuated

168
Q

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Adenovirus vaccine

A

Live attenuated

169
Q

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Rabies vaccine

A

Killed

Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies, Influenza, salk Polio, hAv)

170
Q

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Influenza vaccine

A

Killed, egg-based

Mnemonic: FRY an egg (Flu, mmR, Yellow fever)

Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies, Influenza, salk Polio, hAv)

171
Q

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: Salk polio vaccine

A

Killed

Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies, Influenza, salk Polio, hAv)

172
Q

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HAV vaccine

A

Killed

Mnemonic: RIP Always (Rabies, Influenza, salk Polio, hAv)

173
Q

Live/Killed and Egg-based/Recombinant: HBV vaccine

A

Recombinant (antigen is recombinant HBsAg)

174
Q

Definition: Viral recombination

A

Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

175
Q

What is this viral process: Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology

A

Viral recombination

176
Q

Definition: Viral Reassortment

A

Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments. Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.

177
Q

What is this viral process: Viruses with segmented genomes exchange segments.

A

Viral Reassortment

Same as high frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide pandemics.

178
Q

Definition: Viral Complementation

A

When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus “complements” the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both viruses.

179
Q

What is this viral process: When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in nonfunctional protein and the non-mutated virus makes a functional protein that serves both viruses.

A

Viral Complementation

180
Q

Definition: Viral Phenotypic Mixing

A

Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus. Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes.

181
Q

What is this viral process: Genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus.

A

Viral Phenotypic Mixing

Progeny of type A however have type A coat from type A genes.

182
Q

What does it mean for a virus to be naked?

A

It has only a nucleocapsid, and no envelope.

183
Q

Which RNA viruses are enveloped?

A
  1. Measles
  2. Mumps
  3. Rubella
  4. RSV
  5. Rabies
  6. HTLV
  7. HIV
  8. Influenza
  9. Parainfluenza

Mnem: MMRRHHflu

184
Q

Which RNA viruses are naked?

A

Mnemonic: Naked CPR

  1. Calicivirus
  2. Picornavirus [Enteroviruses (polio, coxsackie, echo, HAV), Rhino]
  3. Reovirus
185
Q

What does it mean for viruses to be negative stranded?

A

Must transcribe negative strand to positive, using RNA polymerase.

186
Q

Negative stranded viruses

A

Mnem: Always Bring Polymerase or Fail Replication

  1. Arenaviruses
  2. Bunyaviruses
  3. Paramyxoviruses
  4. Orthomyxoviruses
  5. Filoviruses
  6. Rhabdoviruses
187
Q

Segmented viruses

A

Mnem: BOAR

  1. Bunyaviruses
  2. Orthomyxoviruses (flu)
  3. Arenaviruses
  4. Reovirus
188
Q

How many segments in influenza?

A

8

189
Q

Which RNA viruses are linear?

A

All except the BAD seeds (Bunyavirus, Arenavirus, Deltavirus)

190
Q

Which RNA viruses are circular?

A

the BAD seeds

  1. Bunya
  2. Arena
  3. Delta
191
Q

Which RNA viruses are icosahedral?

A

Naked (CPR) FaRT

  1. Calici
  2. Picorna
  3. Reo
  4. Flavi
  5. Retro
  6. Toga
192
Q

Which RNA viruses are helical?

A

Mnemonic: The COP BARFeD up a helix.

  1. Corona
  2. Orthomyxo
  3. Paramyxo
  4. Bunya
  5. Arena
  6. Rhabdo
  7. Filo
  8. Delta
193
Q

Which viruses have reverse transcriptase?

A

Retro and HBV

USMLE (13 decks)

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