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Pharmacology > Uses > Flashcards

Uses Flashcards

1
Q

Which class of drug is drug of choice for prophylaxis of Deep Vein Thrombosis

A

DOAC

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2
Q

Which drug is drug of choice for prophylaxis of thrombosis in non-valvular atrial fibrillation

A

DOAC

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3
Q

Which drug is drug of choice for Deep Vein Thrombosis

A

Low molecular weight Heparin

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4
Q

Which drug is drug of choice for prophylaxis in atrial fibrillation with mechanical valve

A

Warfarin

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5
Q

Antidote:Dabigatran

A

Idarucizumab

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6
Q

Antidote:Oral Xa inhibitor

A

Andexanet alfa

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7
Q

Alpha glucosidase inhibtors are used in

A

Type 2 DM
Hypertension
Cardiac disease
(Delay the onset)

Reduce post prandial hyperglycemia
(Delay digestion of carbohydrates)

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8
Q

Drugs which are GLP 1 agonists

A

Exendin-4
Exenatide
Lixisenatide

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9
Q

Drugs which are GLP 1 analogues

A

Liraglutide
Semaglutide
Albiglutide
Dulaglutide

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10
Q

Uses of GLP 1 analogues

A

Maintenance in DM 2

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11
Q

Drugs which are GLP 2 analogue

A

Tedaglutide

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12
Q

Use of teduglutide

A

Short Bowel Syndrome
(Decrease gastric emptying)

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13
Q

Gliptins can be used in combination with (4)

A

Sulfonylureas
Metmorfin
TZDs
Insulin

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14
Q

Amylin analogue

A

Type 1 and 2 DM
(Decrease post prandial hyperglycemia)

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15
Q

Use of short acting insulin? (3)

A

Mimic prandial relase of insulin and control post prandial hyperglycemia

Swift correction of elevated glucose

Conjuction with basal insulin to correct fasting glucose

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16
Q

Intermidiate acting (2)

A

Type 1 and 2 DM: Basal control
Conjuction with short acting for Meal time control

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17
Q

Long acting

A

Basal control

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18
Q

IV regular Insulin (2)

A

Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Hyperkalemia

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19
Q

Pramlintide
(2)

A

Supplement meal time insulin injection in Type 1 and 2 DM
Additional: reduce Body weight

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20
Q

Uses of Meglitinides

A

Post prandial hyperglycemia

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21
Q

Metformin (Biguanides)
(5)

A

Insulin Resistance in DM
PCOS
Obese patients
Metabolic Syndrome
NAFLD

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22
Q

Pioglitazone
(Thiazolidinediones)

A

2nd/3rd line for Type 2 DM
High-risk hypoglycemic patients
Monotherapy or combination when 1st line contraindicated

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23
Q

Which thiazolidinediones are banned and why?

A

Roziglitazone for myocardial infarctiob
Troglitazone for hepatotoxicity

24
Q

SGLT2 inhibitors
Heart Kidney disease Weight

A

DM 2 treatment
(Combination)

Reduce CVS events

Decrease risk of ESRD
Diabetic nephropathy and albuminuria

Weight loss

25
Q

Growth Hormone

A

Uses

  1. Length

Gestational Age baby: SMALL
Children: growth failure
Adults: Replacement
DWARFISM

NOONAN
PRADER WILLI
TURNER

  1. MASS->AIDS Wasting (Cachexia)

3.GIT MALABSORPTION →Short Bowel Syndrome

  1. RENAL → CHRONIC RENAL insufficiency

5.Anti-Ageing
(Off-label)
atheletes
old individuals

26
Q

Growth hormone
GH
GIT
Tumors
Diagnosis Specfic
Adrenal Gland Specific

A

ACROMEGALY

SECRETORY DIARRHEA
FLUSHING episodes
OESOPHAGEAL Varices bleeding
(Acute)

CARCINOID
SOMATOSTATINOMA
GRFoma
VIPoma
Glucagonoma
Thyrotroph adenoma

(Octeroide)
Carcinoid tumor
Pituitary adenoma

(Paserotide)
CUSHING’S DISEASE
(Decrease ACTH)

27
Q

Which drug is used for induction of ovulation in PCOS

A

Urofollitropin

28
Q

Gonadotropins

A

1.Infertility: Ovulation

  1. Amenorrhea
29
Q

Which drug is used intanasally for supression of endogenous FSH and LH so that external controlled Gonadotropins can be used

A

Nafarelin

30
Q

Docusates

A

It is a mild laxative; especially indicated when straining at stools must be avoided.

31
Q

Sodium picosulfate has been used Along
with which drug has been used
to evacuate the colon for colonoscopy and
colonic surgery.

A

mag. citrate solution

32
Q

In combination products with a with which drug is Senna it is useful in treating opioid-induced constipation

A

docusate-containing stool softener,

33
Q

Prucalopride

A

Colonic transit and stool frequency
is improved in constipation-predominant IBS.
the treatment of
chronic constipation in women, when other laxatives fail
to provide adequate relief

34
Q

Lubiprostone when and diseases

A

recommended only in patients
who have not improved adequately by other measures,
including laxatives of at least two classes.

constipation-
predominant IBS and in idiopathic chronic constipation.

35
Q

Saline Purgatives

A

However, they may be employed when constipation is to be relieved urgently and for preparation of bowel before surgery, colonoscopy; in food/drug poisoning and as after-purge in the treatment of tapeworm infestation.

36
Q

Lactitol

A

Lactitol is indicated as an alternative to lactulose for the treatment of constipation and hepatic encephalopathy.

37
Q

Laxatives indications

A

Functional constipation Constipation is infre quent production of hard stools requiring straining to pass, or a sense of incomplete evacuation.

Bedridden patients (myocardial infarction, stroke, fractures, postoperative): bowel movement may be sluggish and constipation can be anticipated.

To avoid straining at stools (hernia, cardio vascular disease, eye surgery) and in perianal afflictions (piles, fissure, anal surgery) it is essential to keep the faeces soft. One should not hesitate to use adequate dose of a bulk forming agent, lactulose or docusates.
Preparation of bowel for surgery, colono scopy, abdominal Xray The bowel needs to be emptied of the contents including gas. Saline purgative, bisacodyl or senna may be used.

  1. After certain anthelmintics (especially for tapeworm) Saline purgative or senna may be used to flush out the worm and the antihelmintic drug. Fixed dose combinations of an anthelmintic (other than piperazine) with a purgative is banned in India, as are laxatives with enzyme preparations. 6. Food/drug poisoning
    The idea is to drive out the unabsorbed irritant/poisonous material from the intestines. Only saline purgatives are satisfactory.
38
Q

Dicyclomine

A

prophylaxis of motion sickness and for
morning sickness

39
Q

Combination
of these antihistaminics with other antiemetics
has been used in chemotherapy-induced nausea
and vomiting (CINV).

A

Promethazine, diphenhydramine, dimenhydri-
nate

40
Q

By
their central anticholinergic action they block the
extrapyramidal side effects of metoclopramide
while supplementing its antiemetic action.
Which drugs supplement metoclorpramide?

A

Promethazine, diphenhydramine, dimenhydri-
nate

41
Q

it is specifi-
cally promoted in India for ‘morning sickness’
(vomiting of early pregnancy),

A

doxylamine + pyridoxine

42
Q

Which drug is used for vertigo by inhibiting Calcium influx from endolymph into the vestibular sensory cells
which mediates labyrinthine reflexes.

A

Cinnarizine

43
Q

What protects
against sea sickness for nearly 24 hours.

A

Meclizine

44
Q

NEUROLEPTICS

A

(a) Drug induced and postoperative nausea and
vomiting (PONV).
(b) Disease induced vomiting: gastroenteritis,
uraemia, liver disease, migraine, etc.
(c) Malignancy associated and cancer chemothe-
rapy (mildly emetogenic) induced vomiting.
(d) Radiation sickness vomiting (less effective).
(e) Morning sickness: should not be used except
in hyperemesis gravidarum

45
Q

Metoclorpramide

A

Anti-emetic:postoperative, drug induced, disease associated
(especially migraine), radiation sickness,
prophylaxis and treatment
of vomiting induced by emetogenic anticancer
drugs (cisplatin, etc.).
Gastrokinetic: To accelerate gastric emptying:
(a) When emergency general anaesthesia has
to be given and the patient has taken food
less than 4 hours before.
(b) To relieve postvagotomy or diabetic gastro-
paresis associated gastric stasis.
Dyspepsia and other functional g.i. dis-
orders: symptomatic relief may obtained.
Metoclopramide may succeed in stopping
persistent hiccups.
4. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
Metoclopramide may benefit milder cases
of GERD, but is much less effective than
PPIs/H2
blockers

46
Q

Domperidone

A

antiemetic
for mild-to-moderate cases of postoperative, drug
and disease induced nausea and vomiting

47
Q

Mosapride

A

Nonulcer dyspepsia,
diabetic gastroparesis, GERD (as adjuvant to
PPIs), and some cases of chronic constipation.

48
Q

it is more
effective in suppressing delayed vomiting occur-
ring between 2nd to 5th days, probably because
of its longer duration of action (elimination
t½ is 40 hours). It is the only drug of this
class approved by US-FDA for delayed CINV.
Moreover, antiemetic efficacy is maintained
during repeat cycles of chemotherapy.

A

Palonosetron

49
Q

Oral
aprepitant (125 mg + 80 mg + 80 mg over 3
days) combined with standard i.v. ondansetron
+ dexamethasone regimen significantly enhanced
the antiemetic efficacy to protect upto 90%
patients against

A

high emetogenic cisplatin based
chemotherapy.

50
Q

Delayed onset CINV

A

Aprepitant

51
Q

given before chemotherapy as adjuvant
to metoclopramide or ondansetron, help by relieving the psychogenic component, anticipatory vomiting and produce amnesia for the unpleasant procedure.

  1. They also suppress
    the dystonic side effects of metoclopramide.
A

.Benzodiazepines

52
Q

it can be used as an alterna-
tive antiemetic for moderately emetogenic chemotherapy
in patients who cannot tolerate other antiemetics or are
unresponsive to them.

  1. It has been
    used in lower doses to improve feeding in cachectic/AIDS
    patients.
A

Dronabinol

53
Q

Ramosetron

A

diarrhoea-predominant irritable bowel syndrome.

54
Q

Macrolides are used as prokinetics for

A

Diabetic Gastroparesis
Pseudo Obstruction

55
Q

Flligrastim

A

Neutropenia due to myelodysplasia, aplastic anemia, HIV, chemotherapy

56
Q

is still the preferred anticoagulant, cardiopulmonary bypass surgery ?

A

high
dose UFH

Pharmacology (20 decks)

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