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Washington / SEAPA Pilots > U.S. Coast Pilot #8; Alaska Dixon Entrance To Cape Spencer > Flashcards

U.S. Coast Pilot #8; Alaska Dixon Entrance To Cape Spencer Flashcards

1
Q

Vertices clearances of bridges and overhead cables are in:
A. Feet above low water.
B. Feet above high water.
C. Meters above high water.
D. Feet above mean high water.

A

D. Feet above mean high water.

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2
Q

The controlling depth is the __________ known depth of the channel.

A

Least

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3
Q

What is the difference between the mid channel and centerline controlling depth?

A

Mid Channel applies to the middle half of the channel and the centerline applies to only the center.

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4
Q

What do squat corrections depend on?
A. Depth of water below keel.
B. Hull formation.
C. Speed of vessel.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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5
Q

True or False Squat denotes change in trim of a ship underway relative to when the ship is stopped. It usually causes the stern to sit deeper in the water.

A

True

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6
Q

A statute mile is how many feet and how many nautical miles?

A

5,280 ft and .87 Nautical miles

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7
Q

The geographic coordinates listed in the Coast pilot are in what datum?
A. NAD 80
B. NAD 83
C. NAD 84
D. NAD 86

A

B. NAD 83 unless otherwise noted.

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8
Q

On a chart scale one unit of measure on the chart is equal to _________ units of measure on the earth’s surface.

A

The same

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9
Q

Which chart’s are General, Coastal and Harbor Chart scales?
A. Scales larger then 1 : 50,000
B. 1 : 50,000 to 1 : 150,000
C. 1 : 150, 000 to 1 : 600,000
D. 1 : 150, 000 to 1 : 1,000, 000

A

General: C
Coastal: B
Harbor: A

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10
Q

What kind of projection is used on most charts that has straight line meridians and parallels that intersect at right angles?

A

Mercator projections

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11
Q

What tidal datum is used on most charts except the Great Lakes?
A. Mean Low Water
B. Mean lower low water
C. Mean high water
D. Mean low water spring.

A

B. Mean lower low water.

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12
Q

True or False: Information that has been reported has been verified by government survey.

A

False Reports have not been verified

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13
Q

CATZOC information on an ENC unlike a paper chart or RNC is reported by:
A. Numbers
B. Letters
C. Symbols
D. A combination of all of the above.

A

C. Symbols not numbers

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14
Q

___________ is shown in water areas on many charts to accentuate shoals and other areas considered dangerous for navigation when using that particular chart.
A. A grey tint
B. A black line
C. A blue tint
D. A dashed line

A

C. A blue tint

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15
Q

Soundings collected by NOAA and denoting “partial bottom coverage” collected after 1940 were probably collected with:
A. Lead line
B. Single beam
C. Multi beam
D. None of the above.

A

B. Single beam

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16
Q

Soundings collected by NOAA indicating full bottom coverage were probable collected using which means?
A. Lead Line
B. Single Beam
C. Multi-beam
D. None of the above.

A

C. Multi-beam or side scan sonar.

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17
Q

Charted in black text vertical clearances for overhead cables are for the lowest wires at:
A. Mean low low water
B. Mean high water
C. Mean higher high water
D. Mean low water

A

B. Mean high water

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18
Q

Vertices clearances indicating the highest points of a ship that can pass under an overhead power cable without risk of electrical discharge from cable to ship are indicated on charts how?
A. In black text
B. In Red text
C. In Magenta text
D. In Gray text

A

C. In Magenta text

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19
Q

Vessels with masts, stacks, booms or antennas should allow sufficient clearance under power cables to avoid _____________.

A

Arcing

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20
Q

Dumping areas are supervised by the Corp of Engineers and are shown on navigational charts until:
A. They are no longer in use.
B. One year after the final disposal.
C. They are no longer considered to be a danger to navigation.
D. They are always shown on navigational charts.

A

C. They are no longer considered to be a danger to navigation.

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21
Q

What should vessels fouled by submarine cable or pipeline do?
A. Not attempted to clear with out divers.
B. Attempt to clear as soon as possible.
C. Attempt to clear without undue strain.
D. Seek permission from the Captain of the Port before clearing.

A

C. Attempt to clear without undue strain.

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22
Q

These are artificial shelters constructed of various materials including rocks, rubble, derelict barges/oil rigs and specially designed precast structures.
A. Artificial reefs
B. Fish Havens
C. Disposal areas
D. None of the above

A

B. Fish Havens

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23
Q

True or False: Large magnetic disturbances are more frequently detected in shallow waters near landmasses then on the deep sea

A

True

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24
Q

How is magnetic variation shown on charts?
A. By isogonic lines
B. On compass roses
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

A

C. All of the above

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25
Q

This is an annual publication containing important information for mariners on a variety of subjects which supplements information not usually found on charts and in navigation publications.

A

Special Notice to Mariners

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26
Q

Which IALA Maritime Buoyage region are all navigable waters of the U.S except West of the International Date Line and South of 10 degrees?
A. IALA A
B. IALA B
C. IALA C
D. A and B only

A

B. IALA B

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27
Q

In 2020 the US coast guard chief of the office of navigation systems announced that all geographic coordinates for aids to navigation assigned positions will be reporting using:
A. WGS 83
B. WGS 84
C. WGS 94
D. WGS 04

A

B. WGS 84

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28
Q

This is the range of visibility of lights as given in the US Coast Guard light list and as shown on the charts?
A. Nominal Range
B. Luminous Range
C. Geographic Range
D. Visible Range

A

A. Nominal Range.

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29
Q

This is the maximum distance at which a light may be seen under the existing visible conditions?

A. Nominal Range
B. Luminous Range
C. Geographic Range
D. Visible range

A

B. Luminous Range

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30
Q

This is a function of only the curvature of the earth and is determined solely from the heights above sea level of the light and the observers high
A. Nominal Range
B. Luminous Range
C. Geographic Range
D. Visible range

A

C. Geographic Range

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31
Q

This is a vertical pipe structure, supported by a submerged buoyancy chamber, and attached by a universal coupling to a weighted sinker on the seafloor.
A. Articulated Light
B. Daybeacon
C. Day board
D. Conventional Buoy

A

A. Articulated Light primarily designed to mark narrow channels with greater precision than conventional buoys.

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32
Q

True or False: Buoys that mark wrecks are placed directly over the site of the wreck.

A

False they are placed to the Seaward or Channel side of the wreck.

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33
Q

On a channel span of a fixed bridge what marks the center of the channel? What marks the edges of the channel?

A
  1. Two green lights
  2. Red Lights
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34
Q

On a multi span bridge what marks the main channel span?
A. Three white lights above the green range lights
B. Two Green Lights
C. Two white lights avove the green range lights.
D. Two Red Lights.

A

A. Three White Lights above the green range lights.

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35
Q

Which types of satellites can locate the position of a 406 MHz EPIRB?

A

SARSAT satellites.

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36
Q

NAVTEX Transmissions are made on what frequency?
A. 157.1 MHz
B. 406 MHz
C. 518 MHz
D. None of the above

A

C. 518 MHz

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37
Q

How many miles offshore can NAVTEX transmit?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 500

A

B. 200 miles

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38
Q

True or False: A tsunami can exceed 500 knots in the deep ocean but slows to 20 or 30 kits in shallow water near land.

A

True a Tsunami can cross the Pacific Ocean in less than 24 hours.

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39
Q

This is a stationary wave oscillation with a period varying from a few minutes to an hour or more but somewhat less than the tidal periods.
A. Tsunami
B. Surge
C. Seiche
D. Rouge wave

A

C. Seiche

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40
Q

This is what happens when the external forces cause a short period horizontal oscillation on the water.
A. Tsunami
B. Surge
C. Seiche
D. Rouge wave

A

B. Surge

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41
Q

With few exceptions humans die if their core temperature of approximately 99.7 degrees to below what temp:
A. 90.6
B. 87.5
C. 78.6
D. 69.7

A

C. 78.6 This is when immersion Hypothermia occurs.

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42
Q

What is considered cold water?
A. Less than 90 degrees
B. Less than 80 degrees
C. Less than 70 degrees
D. Less than 60 degrees

A

C. Less than 70 degrees

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43
Q

At what temperature range does frost bite begin?
A. When skin temperature falls between 22 - 32 degrees Fahrenheit
B. When skin temperature falls between 42 - 52 degrees Fahrenheit
C. When skin temperature falls between 4 - 14 degrees Fahrenheit
D. When skin temperature falls below 0 degrees Fahrenheit

A

C. When skin temperature falls between 4 - 14 degrees Fahrenheit

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44
Q

This act was passed to restore and maintain the chemical, physical and biological integrity of the waters within the United States.
A. Federal Water Pollution Control Act
B. Clean Water Act
C. Marine Portection Research and Sanctuaries Act
D. A and B only

A

D. A and B only

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45
Q

This act regulates the dumping of all material, except fish waste into oceans.
A. Federal Water Pollution Control Act
B. Clean Water Act
C. Marine Portection Research and Sanctuaries Act
D. Water Pollution Act

A

C. Marine Protection Research and Sanctuaries Act

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46
Q

This organization is recognized as the only international body responsible for establishing and recommending measures on an international level concerning ships routing.

A

IMO

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47
Q

This conducts research and gathers data about the global oceans, atmosphere, space and sun and applies this knowledge to improve our understanding and stewardship of the environment.
A. NOAA
B. IMO
C. USCG
D. None of the above.

A

A. NOAA National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration

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48
Q

When using the Tide Predictions __________ should not be confused with Hight water or Low Water.

A

Slack Water

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49
Q

The principal means of disseminating marine weather services and products in coastal areas is:
A. Notice to Mariners
B. USCG broadcast on 22A
C. NOAA Weather Radio
D. Regular marine broadcasts on NAVTEX.

A

C. NOAA Weather Radio

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50
Q

Name the weather advisories from left to right.

A

Small Craft Advisory
Gale Warning
Storm Warning
Hurricane Warning

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51
Q

What does this Coastal Warning Display.
A. Small Craft Advisory
B. Gale Warning
C. Storm Warning
D. Hurricane Warning

A

C. Storm Warning

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52
Q

What does this Coastal Warning Display.
A. Small Craft Advisory
B. Gale Warning
C. Storm Warning
D. Hurricane Warning

A

D. Hurricane Warning

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53
Q

What does this Coastal Warning Display.
A. Small Craft Advisory
B. Gale Warning
C. Storm Warning
D. Hurricane Warning

A

B. Gale Warning

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54
Q

What does this Coastal Warning Display.
A. Small Craft Advisory
B. Gale Warning
C. Storm Warning
D. Hurricane Warning

A

A. Small Craft Advisory

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55
Q

What does this Coastal Warning Display.
A. Small Craft Advisory
B. Gale Warning
C. Storm Warning
D. Hurricane Warning

A

D. Hurricane Warning

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56
Q

What does this Coastal Warning Display.
A. Small Craft Advisory
B. Gale Warning
C. Storm Warning
D. Hurricane Warning

A

C. Storm Warning

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57
Q

What does this Coastal Warning Display.
A. Small Craft Advisory
B. Gale Warning
C. Storm Warning
D. Hurricane Warning

A

B. Gale Warning

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58
Q

What does this Coastal Warning Display.
A. Small Craft Advisory
B. Gale Warning
C. Storm Warning
D. Hurricane Warning

A

A. Small Craft Advisory

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59
Q

Who administers public health inspections on vessels arriving in the U.S. that have had in the 15 days proceeding arrival any death or ill person among the passengers or crew?
A. U.S.C.G.
B. Public Health Service administers
C. ABS
D. None of the above

A

B. Public Health Service Administers.

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60
Q

An ill person is defined as:
A. Anyone with a temperature of greater than 100 degrees or more accompanied by rash, glandular swelling or jaundice persisting for more than 48 hours.
B. Anyone that has diarrhea defined as the occurrence in a 24 hour period of three or more loose stools or of a greater normal amount of loose stools.
C. Anyone with a temperature of of greater than 100 degrees for more than 24 hours.
D. A and B only.

A

D. A and B only

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61
Q

This agency may issue a cruising license valid for one year to a yacht of a foreign country that has a reciprocal agreement with the United States. This License will make them exempt from having to undergo formal entry and clearance procedures such as filing manifest and obtaining permits to proceed as well as from payment of tonnage tax and entry and clearance fees at all but the first port of entry.
A. USCG
B. U.S. Customs and Border Protection
C. Public Health Service Administers
D. None of the above.

A

C. Public Health Service Administers

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62
Q

What Agency issues permits for dumping dredged material into waters of the United States? Which one issues permits for dumping of fill material into the waters of the United States? Which one issues permits for dumping other material in the territorial sea and ocean waters ?
A. USCG
B. EPA
C. Corp of Engineers
D. U.S. Customs and Border Protection

A
  1. C Corp of Engineers
  2. C. Corp of Engineers
  3. B. EPA
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63
Q

One Nautical Mile is how many feet?

A

A: 6,076.12 ft

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64
Q

One Cable is how many Nautical Miles?

A

A: .1 NM

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65
Q

How many meters in a foot?

A

A: .3048

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66
Q

A long ton is how many pounds?

A

A: 2,240 lbs

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67
Q

A short ton is how many pounds?

A

A: 2,000 lbs

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68
Q

Which vessels, dredge or floating plant must have radiotelephone onboard capable of operation from its navigational bridge or main control station, capable of transmitting and receiving on the frequency or frequencies within 156-162 MHz band using the classes of emissions designated by the federal communications commisssion for the exchange of navigational information.
A. Every power-driven vessel of 20 meters or over in length while navigating
B. Every vessel of 100 gross tons and upward carrying one or more passengers for hire while navigating
C. Every towing vessel of 26 feet or over in length while navigating
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above also Every dredge and floating plant engaged in or near a channel or fairway in operations likely to restrict or affect navigation of other vesssels except for an unmanned or intermittently manned floating plant under the control of a dredge.

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69
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for maintaining a listening watch on the designated frequency?
A. Person in charge to pilot or direct the movement of the vessel.
B. The OOW with a pilot onboard
C. The OOW when Master has the Con.
D. The look out.

A

A. Person in charge to pilot or direct the movement of the vessel.

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70
Q

This term refers to all fixed structures, temporary or permanent for which a Corp of Engineers’ permit was issued.

A

Structures

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71
Q

This is the dividing line used administratively to distinguish between the areas in which structures shall conform to Class “A” and Class “B” or “C” requirements.
A. International Date Line
B. Outer Continental Shelf
C. Line of Demarcation
D. None of the above

A

C. Line of Demarcation

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72
Q

This term means all submerged lands lying seaward and outside the area of lands beneath navigable waters as defined in the Submerged Lands Act.
A. Line of Demarcation
B. Outer Continental Shelf
C. Structural Line
D. Reference Line

A

B. Outer Continental Shelf

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73
Q

The District Commander assigns all structures seaward of the line of demarcation as this:
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. B and C only

A

A. Class A all structures shoreward are Class B and Class C.

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74
Q

Structures having a maximum horizontal dimension of 30 feet or less on any one side or in diameter shall be required to have:
A. Two obstruction lights installed on diagonally opposite corners 180 degrees apart with each light having a 360 degree lens.
B. One obstruction light visible for 360 degrees.
C. Two obstruction lights visible for 360 degrees placed anywhere on the structure.
D. No obstruction lights required.

A

B. One obstruction light visible for 360 degrees.

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75
Q

Structures having a maximum horizontal dimension of over 30 ft but not in excess of 50 ft on any one side or in diameter shall be required to have:
A. Two obstruction lights installed on diagonally opposite corners 180 degrees apart with each light having a 360 degree lens.
B. One obstruction light visible for 360 degrees.
C. An obstruction light on each corner or 90 degrees apart in the case of circular structures or as prescribed by the District Commander each light to have a 360 degree lens.
D. No obstruction lights required.

A

A. Two obstruction lights installed on diagonally opposite corners 180 degrees apart with each light having a 360 degree lens.

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76
Q

Structures having an overall dimension of over 50 ft on any one side or in diameter shall be required to have:
A. Two obstruction lights installed on diagonally opposite corners 180 degrees apart with each light having a 360 degree lens.
B. One obstruction light visible for 360 degrees.
C. An obstruction light on each corner or 90 degrees apart in the case of circular structures or as prescribed by the District Commander each light to have a 360 degree lens.
D. No obstruction lights required.

A

C. An obstruction light on each corner or 90 degrees apart in the case of circular structures or as prescribed by the District Commander each light to have a 360 degree lens.

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77
Q

Lesser structures and piles, pile clusters or flare templates when they are located within 100 yds of a Class “A”, “B” or “C” structure marked by established obstruction lights.
A. Two obstruction lights installed on diagonally opposite corners 180 degrees apart with each light having a 360 degree lens.
B. One obstruction light visible for 360 degrees.
C. An obstruction light on each corner or 90 degrees apart in the case of circular structures or as prescribed by the District Commander each light to have a 360 degree lens.
D. No obstruction lights required but shall be marked with red or white retro-reflective material installed as prescribed by the district commander.

A

D. No obstruction lights required but shall be marked with red or white retro-reflective material installed as prescribed by the district commander.

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78
Q

True or False all obstruction lights shall be installed in a manner which will permit at least one of them to be carried in sight of the mariner regardless of the angle of approach, until he is within 50 ft of the structure, visibility permitting.

A

True

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79
Q

What is the light characteristic of all structural lights?
A. Long flashing for 20 flashes per minute
B. Solid illumination
C. Quick flashing 60 flashes per minute
D. Quick flashing 30 flashes per minute

A

C. Quick flashing 60 flashes per minute.

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80
Q

Class A and B structures shall be marked with:
A. White or red lights
B. White lights only
C. Red lights only
D. Green lights only

A

B. White lights only

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81
Q

Class C structures shall be marked with:

A. White or red lights
B. White lights only
C. Red lights only
D. Green lights only

A

A. White or Red lights

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82
Q

Fog signal requirements for structures are:

A. Be located on the structure so that the sound signal produced is audible over 360° in a horizontal plane at all ranges up to and including the required range
B. Must be located 10 ft but nor more than 150 ft above mean high water.
C. Must be aimed seaward in all directions
D. A and B only

A

D. A and B only

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83
Q

Operating requirements for fog signals for structures are:
A. By an attendant on the structure;
B. Remotely by an attendant on a nearby structure;
C. By a fog detection device capable of activating the fog signal when the visibility in any direction is reduced to the range at which fog signal operation is required.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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84
Q

True or False: Vessels of special construction or purpose which cannot fully comply with the light, shape, and sound signal provisions of 72 COLREGS without interfering with their special function may instead meet alternative requirements. The Chief of the Prevention Division in each Coast Guard District Office makes this determination and requires that alternative compliance be as close as possible with the 72 COLREGS.

A

True

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85
Q

A composite unit to be a pushing vessel that is rigidly connected by mechanical means to a vessel being pushed so they react to see and swell as one vessel mechanical means does not include:
A. Hawsers
B. Wires
C. Chains
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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86
Q

For the purposes of Rule 30 of the 72 COLREGS which of the below is a vessel at anchor:
A. A barge made fast to one or more mooring buoys.
B. A vessel anchored in a special anchorage.
C. A tug and barge underway but not making way.
D. A and B only

A

D. A and B only.

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87
Q

True or False: Vessels of special construction that cannot fully comply with the light, shape and sound signal provisions of the inland Rules without interfering with their special function may instead meet alternative requirements.

A

True, The Chief of the Prevention Division in each USCG District Office makes this determination.

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88
Q

In accordance with Rule 23 of the Inland Rules A vessel that is pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed ahead rigidly connected as a composite unit should be regarded as:
A. A towing vessel being pushed ahead
B. A composite unit
C. A power driven vessel.
D. A vessel of special construction.

A

C. A power driven vessel.

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89
Q

What does the below describe:
A line from Thomas Basin Entrance Light “2” to East Channel Lighted Buoy “4A”, to Pennock Island Reef Lighted Buoy “PR”’, to Wreck Buoy “WR6”, then following a line bearing 064 degrees true to shore. This anchorage is effective 24 hours per day from 1 May through 30 September, annually.

A

§110.231 Ketchikan haroo, ne ger Vessel Anchorage.
(a) The anchorage grounds. Ketchikan Harbor, Alaska, Large Passenger Vessel Anchorage.

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90
Q

True or False: No vessels other than a large passenger vessel of over 1600 gross tons may anchor with the anchorage without express consent of the COP. Ketchikan Harbor Large Passenger Vessel Anchorage.

A

True

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91
Q

This means the difference in metric tons between the light weight displacement and the total displacement of a vessel measured in water of specific gravity 1.025 at the load waterline corresponding to the assigned summer freeboard.

A

Deadweight or DWT

92
Q

This is the trade between ports or places within the US, its territories and possessions either directly or via a foreign port including trade on the navigable rivers, lakes and inland waters.

A

Domestic trade

93
Q

What is clean ballast:
A. Discharge on a clear, calm water on a clear day that does not produce visible traces of oil on the surface of the water or on adjoining shore lines.
B. Discharge on a clear, calm water on a clear day that does not cause a sludge or emulsion to be deposited beneath the surface of the water or upon adjoining shore lines.
C. Discharge on a clear, calm water on a clear day that causes minimal traces of oil on the surface.
D. A and B only.

A

D. A and B only.

94
Q

What are included in large primary structural members: (7 items)

A
  1. Web frames
  2. Girders
  3. Webs
  4. Main brackets
  5. Transverse
  6. Stringers
  7. Struts
95
Q

Define Length as it relates to vessels.

A

The distance in meters from the fore side of the stem to the axis of the rudder stock on a waterline at 85 percent of the least molded depth measured from the molded baseline or 96 percent of the total length on that waterline.

96
Q

Define lightweight

A

means the displacement of a vessel in metric tons without cargo, fuel oil, lubricating oil, ballast water, fresh water and feed water in tanks, consumable stores and any persons and their effects.

97
Q

True or False A new vessel refers to a vessel delivered after December 31, 1977.

A

True, Also conversion after 1979.

98
Q

What does oil need to consist of to be termed Oil?
A. Petroleum or fuel oil
B. Sludge
C. Oil refuge and oil mixed
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

99
Q

Oily mixture includes which of the following:
A. Slops from bilges
B. Slops from oil cargoes
C. Oil residue and oily ballast water from cargo or fuel oil tanks
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

100
Q

What does ballast water need to be to be considered segregated ballast.
A. Introduced to a tank that has only had one occurrence of cargo oil and fuel oil system
B. Introduced using a fuel oil pump that has been cleaned thoroughly
C. Introduced into a tank that is completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil system and that is permanently allocated to the carriage of ballast.
D. All of the above.

A

C. Introduced into a tank that is completely separate from the cargo oil and fuel oil system and that is permanently allocated to a the carriage of ballast.

101
Q

True or False: Tank as defined in the Coast Pilot is designed for the carriage of liquid in bulk.

A

True.

102
Q

What agency notifies a classification society whether or not it is authorized as a classification society.
A. USCG
B. Army Corp of Engineers
C. Port State Control
D. U.S. Border Patrol

A

A. USCG

103
Q

Who is the USCG officer designated by the commandant to command a Port Zone?

A

Captain of the Port

104
Q

What is the Length of Tow referring to?
A. The distance in feet from the tug boat’s stern to the bow of the first vessel in a tow.
B. The distance in feet from the tug boat’s stern winch to the bow of the first vessel in a tow.
C. The distance in feet from the tug boat’s stern to the stern of the last vessel in a tow.
D. The distance in feet from the tug boat’s stern winch to the end of the towing bridle.

A

C. The distance in feet from the tug boat’s stern to the stern of the last vessel in a tow.

105
Q

What is a service implemented under part 161 of this chapter by the USCG designed to improve the safety and efficiency of vessel traffic and to protect the environment.

A

Vessel Traffic Services

106
Q

How is a Tanker defined in the Coast Pilot?
A. A self-propelled vessel constructed or adapted primarily to carry oil or hazardous materials in bulk in the cargo spaces.
B. A vessel that is constructed or adapted to carry or that carries oil or hazardous material in bulk as cargo or cargo residue.
C. A vessel that is constructed or adapted to carry or that carries liquids, oil or hazardous material in bulk as cargo or cargo residue.
D. A self-propelled vessel constructed or adapted primarily to carry liquids in bulk in the cargo spaces.

A

A. A self-propelled vessel constructed or adapted primarily to carry oil or hazardous materials in bulk in the cargo spaces.

107
Q

How is Tank Vessel defined in the Coast Pilot?
A. A self-propelled vessel constructed or adapted primarily to carry oil or hazardous materials in bulk in the cargo spaces.
B. A vessel that is constructed or adapted to carry or that carries oil or hazardous material in bulk as cargo or cargo residue.
C. A vessel that is constructed or adapted to carry or that carries liquids, oil or hazardous material in bulk as cargo or cargo residue.
D. A self-propelled vessel constructed or adapted primarily to carry liquids in bulk in the cargo spaces.

A

B. A vessel that is constructed or adapted to carry or that carries oil or hazardous material in bulk as cargo or cargo residue.

108
Q

Who is authorized to establish safety zones?
A. District Commanders
B. Captain’s of the Ports
C. District Chief of the USCG
D. A and B only.

A

D. A and B only.

109
Q

Who is authorized to establish regulated navigation areas?
A. District Commanders
B. Captain’s of the Ports
C. District Chief of the USCG
D. A and B only.

A

A. District Commanders

110
Q

What reason may a District Commander or Captain of the Port may prohibit any vessel, subject to the provisions of chapter 37 of Title 46, U.S. Code, from operating in the navigable waters of the United States, or from transferring cargo or residue in any port or place under the jurisdiction of the United States, and within the district or zone of that District Commander or Captain of the Port,
A. if the District Commander or the Captain of the Port determines that the vessel’s history of accidents pose a threat to the marine environment.
B. If the vessels history of pollution incidents pose a threat to the marine environment.
C. If serious repair problems creates reason to believe that the vessel may be unsafe or pose a threat to the marine environment.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above.

111
Q

True or False: Each District Commander or Captain of the Port may request the Secretary of the Treasury, or the authorized representative thereof, to withhold or revoke the clearance required by 46 U.S.C. App. 91 of any vessel, the owner or operator of which is subject to any penalties under 46 U.S.C. 70036.

A

True

112
Q

These are waters from main shore to main shore of the lakes and rivers and connecting waterways or the portions thereof, along which the international boundary between the US and the Dominion of Canada passes.

A

Boundary Waters: these include all bays, arms and inlets thereof but not including tributary waters which in their natural channels would flow into such lakes, rivers and waterways or waters flowing from such lakes, rivers and waterways or the waters of rivers flowing across the boundary.

113
Q

This is the person or organization that contracts for the majority of the carrying capacity of a ship for the transportation of cargo to a stated port for a specified period.
A. Time charterer
B. Voyage Charterer
C. Charterer
D. None of the above.

A

C. Charterer

114
Q

The party who hires a vessel for a specific amount of time.

A. Time charterer
B. Voyage Charterer
C. Charterer
D. None of the above.

A

A. Time Chaterer

115
Q

The part who hires a vessel for a single voyage.

A. Time charterer
B. Voyage Charterer
C. Charterer
D. None of the above.

A

B. Voyage Charterer

116
Q

This is a vessel that is owned or demise chartered by the government of the United States by a state or local government or by the government of a foreign country and that is not engaged in commercial service.

A

Public Vessel

117
Q

Towing vessels when in control of a vessel carrying CDC and operating solely between ports or places in the contiguous 48 states, Alaska and the District of Columbia must submit updates to an NOA as soon as practicable but at least ___________ hours before entering the port or place of destination.
A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours

A

B. 6 hours

118
Q

U.S Vessels of 300 gross tons or less arriving from a foreign port or place whose voyage time is less than 24 hours but greater than 6 hours must submit a NOA as soon as practicable but at least _________ hours before entering the port or place of destination.

A. 4 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours

A

B. 6 hours

119
Q

True or False: Whenever there is a hazardous condition either onboard a vessel or caused by a vessel or its operation the owner, agent, master, operator or person in charge must immediately notify the nearest Coast Guard Sector Office or Group Office.

A

True

120
Q

This is the body of water lying between Revillagigedo Channel and Guard Islands in Clarence Strait.

A

Tongass Narrows

121
Q

and emergency response vessels, floatplanes during landings and take-offs, and vessels of 23 feet registered length or less, shall exceed a speed of _________ knots in the region of Tongass Narrows bounded to the north by Tongass Narrows Buoy 9 and to the south by Tongass Narrows East Channel Regulatory marker at position 55°19’22.0”N., 131°36’40.5”W. and Tongass Narrows West Channel Regulatory marker at position 55°19’28.5”N., 131°39’09.7”W., respectively.
A. 5 knots
B. 7 knots
C. 10 knots
D. 12 knots

A

B. 7 knots

122
Q

True or False: No vessel shall moor or anchor to any structure of the US other than mooring piers, wharves and floats without the consent of the Commander Sector Southeast Alaska in Tongass Narrows.

A

True

123
Q

This includes the entire inlet from its head to its entrance from Chatham Strait.

A

Port Alexander

124
Q

The speed of all vessels of 5 tons or more gross, ships register, shall not exceed ______ miles per hour either in entering, leaving or navigating within Port Alexander, Alaska.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7

A

B. 3

125
Q

This refers to a standard raft of logs or piling securely fastened together for long towing in Alaska inland waters in the manner customary with the local logging interests.

A

Raft section

126
Q

This includes the entire body of water between Wrangell Narrows North Entrance Lighted Bell Buoy 63 and Midway Rock Light.

A

Wrangell Narrows

127
Q

No vessel shall exceed a speed of _______ knots in the vicinity of Petersburg, between Wrangell Narrows Channel Light 58 and Wrangell Narrows Lighted Buoy 60.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 10

A

B. 7 knots

128
Q

Where can vessels anchor in the vicinity of Wrangell Narrows?
A. In the ship channel
B. In the towing channel
C. In the vicinity of Anchor Point
D. All of the above

A

C. In the vicinity of Anchor Point. Vessels are prohibited from anchoring if they may swing into either ship or tow channel.

129
Q

The wheelhouse is constantly manned by persons who: (two things)

A
  1. Fix the position of the vessel
  2. Direct and control the movement of the vessel.
130
Q

True or False: Navigation buoys can be used to fix the vessel’s position.

A

False. Navigation aids such as buoys should not be used to fix the vessels position. If no other aids are available buoys may be used to establish an estimated position.

131
Q

If a pilot is employed by the vessel he/she should be informed of:
A. Draft
B. Maneuvering characteristics and peculiarities of the vessel.
C. Any abnormal circumstances on the vessel that may affect its safe navigation
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

132
Q

At least how many steering gear power units should be available at any given time?

A

2

133
Q

Steering gear tests should show that rudders can move from 35 degrees one side to 30 degrees on the other side in not more than _____ seconds.
A. 20
B. 28
C. 35
D. 42

A

B. 28 seconds

134
Q

From the conning position, the view of the sea surface must not be obscured by more than the lesser of ______ ship lengths or ________ meters from dead ahead to 10 degrees on either side of the vessel. Within this arc of visibility any blind sector caused by cargo, cargo gear or other permanent obstruction must not exceed ________ degrees.

A
  1. Two
  2. 500 meters
  3. 5 degrees
135
Q

From the conning position the horizontal field of vision must extend over an arc from at least ______ degrees a aft the beam on one side of the vessel through dead ahead, to at least _____ degrees abaft the beam on the other side of the vessel.

A
  1. 22.5 degrees
  2. 22.5 degrees
136
Q

True or False: From each bridge wing the field of vision must extend over an arc from at least 45 degrees on the opposite bow, through dead ahead to at least dead astern.

A

True

137
Q

From the main steering position the field of vision must extend over an arc from dead ahead to at least ______ degrees on either side of the vessel.
A. 45
B. 55
C. 60
D. 75

A

C. 60 degrees

138
Q

True or false: A clear view must be provided through at least two front windows at all times.

A

True

139
Q

Steering by primary and secondary steering gear, each steering position on the navigational bridge, each rudder angle indicator in relation to the rudder, the full movement of the rudder to the required capabilities of the steering gear and each remote power unit failure alarm should be tested ________ hours prior to arrival or departure.
A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48

A

B. 12 hours

140
Q

No vessel may enter or be operated on the navigable waters of the US unless the emergency steering drill described below has been conducted within _______ prior to entry and logged in the vessel logbook.
At a minimum the following:
(1) Operation of the main steering gear from within the steering gear compartment.
(2) Operation of the means of communications
steering
between the navigating bridge and the steering compartment.
(3) Operation of the alternative power supply for the steering gear if the vessel is so equipped.

A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours

A

D. 48 hours

141
Q

Marine charts must:
A. Be a large enough scale and have enough detail to make safe navigation of the area possible
B. Be on the smallest scale possible to make safe navigation of the area possible.
C. Be up to date with in a month of the departure date of the vessel.
D. Be an official ENC.

A

A. Be a large enough scale and have enough detail to make safe navigation of the area possible.

142
Q

Each vessel must:
A. Have a marine radar system for surface navigation
B. Have an illuminated magnetic steering mounted in a binnacle that can be read at the main steering stand and a current magnetic compass deviation table
C. A gyrocompass and illuminated repeater for the gyrocompass compass at the main steering stand.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

143
Q

What maneuvering information should be available in the wheel house? (6 things)

A
  1. A turning circle diagram to port and starboard that shows the time and distance and advance and transfer required to alter course 90 degrees with max rudder and constant power, for either full and half speeds or for full and slow speeds
  2. The time and distance to stop the vessel from either full and half speeds or from full and slow speeds while maintaining approximately the initial heading with min rudder use
  3. Each vessel with a fixed propeller a table of shaft revolutions per minute for a representative range of speeds
  4. A controllable pitch propeller a table of control settings for a representative range of speeds
  5. For each vessel that is fitted with an auxiliary device is effective in maneuvering the vessel
  6. Maneuvering information for the normal load and normal ballast condition
144
Q

What device must each vessel have for measuring depth?

A

An echo depth sounding device.

This is essential for navigation and safety at sea.

145
Q

What type of device is required to continuously record depth readings?

A

A device that can continuously record the depth readings of the vessel’s echo depth sounding device, except when operating on the Great Lakes and their connecting and tributary waters.

Continuous recording aids in tracking depth changes over time.

146
Q

What equipment is necessary on the bridge for navigation?

A

Equipment for plotting relative motion.

This equipment helps in understanding the vessel’s movement in relation to other objects.

147
Q

What must be displayed on the navigating bridge and in the steering gear compartment?

A

Simple operating instructions with a block diagram, showing the change-over procedures for remote steering gear control systems and steering gear power units.

This ensures crew members can quickly refer to operational procedures.

148
Q

What indicator must be readable from the centerline conning position?

A

An indicator showing the rate of revolution of each propeller, except when operating on the Great Lakes and their connecting and tributary waters.

This information is crucial for managing the vessel’s speed and maneuverability.

149
Q

If fitted with controllable pitch propellers, what indicator is required?

A

An indicator showing the pitch and operational mode of such propellers, except when operating on the Great Lakes and their connecting and tributary waters.

This helps the crew adjust the propeller settings for optimal performance.

150
Q

What must be indicated if a vessel is fitted with lateral thrust propellers?

A

An indicator showing the direction and amount of thrust of such propellers, except when operating on the Great Lakes and their connecting and tributary waters.

This aids in effective maneuvering, especially in tight spaces.

151
Q

What communication means must vessels have for emergency steering?

A

A telephone or other means of communication for relaying headings to the emergency steering station.

Effective communication is vital for safety during emergencies.

152
Q

What additional requirement is there for vessels of 500 gross tons and over constructed after June 9, 1995?

A

Arrangements for supplying visual compass-readings to the emergency steering station.

This is important for navigation during emergencies where standard instruments may fail.

153
Q

True or False: each vessel of 10,000 gross tons or more must have in addition to the radar system a second marine radar system that operates independently of the first.

A

True, it must have two separate branch power supply circuits or distribution panels to antennas so that failure of any component of one system will not render the other system inoperable.

154
Q
A

Qwrrwrrrwsqrrsqsrrqd

155
Q

YdcvcvcxszaFCACQCSZWXSXD

A

BBBV. ΩΩXXXV FRXU

156
Q

Each vessel required to be fitted with an ARPA must also be fitted with this:
A. A device to measure Relative Wind Speed
B. A device to measure depth
C. A device to measure speed through the water or over the ground
D. All of the above

A

C. A device to measure speed through the water or over the ground.

157
Q

The device to measure speed through the water or over the ground is required to:
A. Have a display that is easily readable on the bridge during day or night
B. Errors in the indication speed when the vessel is operating free from shallow water effect and from the effects of wind, current and tide should not exceed 5 percent of the speed of the vessel or .5 knots which ever is greater.
C. Errors in the indicated distance run when the vessel is operating free from shallow water effect, and from the effects of wind, current and tide should not exceed 5 percent of the distance run of the vessel in one hour or .5 nautical mile in each hour whichever is greater.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above.

158
Q

Each vessel calling at a port in the continental United States including Alaska south of Cape Prince of Wales except each vessel owned or bareboat chartered and operated by the United States or by a state or its political subdivision or by a foreign nation and engaged in commerce must have a satellite navigation receiver with:
A. Automatic acquisition of satellite signals after initial operator setting have been entered.
B. Position updates derived from satellite information during each usable satellite pass.
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

A

C. All of the above.

159
Q

Which vessels are required to have a rate of turn indicator?
A. 10,000 gross tons or more
B. 50,000 gross tons or more
C. 100,000 gross tons or more
D. 150,000 gross tons or more

A

C. 100,000 gross tons or more

160
Q

This is a voyage from a country to which the present International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea applies to a port outside such country or conversely.

A

International Voyage

161
Q

Which of the below vessels are required to have an AIS Class A device type approved by the USCG:
A. Self-propelled vessel of 65 feet or more in length engaged in commercial service.
B. Towing vessel of 26 feet or more in length and more than 600 hp engaged in commercial service.
C. A self-propelled vessel that is certificates to carry more than 150 passengers
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above. Also a self-propelled vessel engaged in the movement of Certain dangerous cargo, flammable or combustible liquid cargo, and a self propelled vessel engaged in dredging in or near a commercial channel or shipping fairway in a planner likely to restrict or affect navigation of other vessels.

162
Q

True or False: Use of AIS relieves the vessel of requirements to sound whistle signals or display lights or shapes in accordance with the COLREG.

A

False it does not do so.

163
Q

What language are AIS safety related text messaging be conducted in.

A

English

164
Q

What requirements are there for the AIS Pilot Plug?

A

It must be readily available and easily accessible from the primary conning position of the vessel.

165
Q

What pieces of equipment should be reported to the Captain of the Port, District Commander or Vessel Traffic Service by the person directing the movement of the vessel if they are not working correctly? (6 things)

A
  1. AIS
  2. Radar
  3. Radio Navigation receivers
  4. Gyrocompass
  5. Echo Depth Sounding Device
  6. Primary Steering Gear Stops
166
Q

What must the owner, master, or operator ensure about each towline for towing astern?

A

The strength of each towline is adequate for its intended service, considering various factors.

167
Q

What factors must be considered for the size and material of each towline?

A
  1. Appropriate for the horsepower or bollard pull of the vessel.
  2. Appropriate for the static and dynamic loads expected.
  3. Appropriate for the sea conditions expected.
  4. Appropriate for exposure to the marine environment and chemicals.
  5. Appropriate for normal stowage and service temperatures.
  6. Compatible with navigational-safety equipment.
  7. Appropriate for the likelihood of mechanical damage.
168
Q

What are the requirements for each towline as rigged?

A
  1. Free of knots.
  2. Spliced with a thimble or have a poured socket at its end.
  3. Free of wire clips except for temporary repair, which must include a thimble and specified wire clips.
169
Q

How should the condition of each towline be monitored?

A

By keeping records of the towline’s initial minimum breaking strength and conducting visual inspections.

170
Q

What should be included in the records for a towline’s condition?

A
  1. Initial minimum breaking strength.
  2. Retest results if purchased or retested.
  3. Visual inspection records.
  4. Serviceability evaluations.
171
Q

What factors should be considered when evaluating the serviceability of a towline?

A
  1. Nautical miles or time in service.
  2. Operating conditions.
  3. History of loading.
  4. Surface condition.
  5. Visible damage.
  6. Material deterioration measurements.
  7. Results of tensile tests.
172
Q

What must be done if the towline’s inspection record lapses for three months or more?

A

The owner, master, or operator must retest the towline or remove it from service.

173
Q

What criteria must the terminal gear meet for towing astern?

A
  1. Material and size appropriate for the towline’s strength and loading.
  2. Each connection secured by a nut and cotter pin.
  3. Lead of the towline prevents sharp bends.
  4. Method to easily release the towline without endangering personnel.
  5. Towline protected from abrasion or chafing.
174
Q

These zones and areas are created under the authority of 46 U.S.C Chapter 700 and 46 U.S.C. 70116?
A. Safety Zones
B. Regulated Navigation Areas
C. Security Zones
D. A and B only

A

D. A and B only

175
Q

These zones are authorized by 46 U.S.C. Chapter 700 and amend by both the Magnuson Act and the Maritime Transportation Security Act?

A. Safety Zones
B. Regulated Navigation Areas
C. Security Zones
D. A and B only

A

C. Security Zones

176
Q

These zones are issued under the authority of 14 U.S.C 91 and 633 and may be established in waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

A. Safety Zones
B. Regulated Navigation Areas
C. Security Zones
D. Naval vessel protection zones

A

D. Naval vessel protection zones

177
Q

This is a water area, shore area or water and shore area to which for safety or environmental purposes, access is limited to authorized persons, vehicles or vessels it may be stationary or described as a zone around a vessel in motion.

A. Safety Zones
B. Regulated Navigation Areas
C. Security Zones
D. Naval vessel protection zones.

A

A. Safety Zones

178
Q

Which is true about safety zones:
Unless otherwise provided in this part-
A. No person may enter a safety zone unless authorized by the COTP or the District Commander;
B. No person may bring or cause to be brought into a safety zone any vehicle, vessel, or object unless authorized by the COTP or the District Commander;
C. No person may remain in a safety zone or allow any vehicle, vessel, or object to remain in a safety zone unless authorized by the COTP or the District Commander; and
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

179
Q

This is an area of land, water or land and water which is so designated by the Captain of the Port or District Commander for such time as is necessary to prevent damage or injury to any vessel or water front facility to safeguard ports, harbors, territories, or waters of the United States or to secure the observance of the rights and obligations of the United States.

A. Safety Zones
B. Regulated Navigation Areas
C. Security Zones
D. Naval Vessel Protection Zones

A

C. Security Zones, the purpose of a security zone is to safeguard from destruction, loss or injury from sabotage or other subversive acts, accidents or other causes of a similar nature, Vessels, Harbors, Ports and Waterfront Facilities.

180
Q

What is a passenger vessel greater than 100 feet in length authorized to carry more than 500 passengers for higher called?
A. Very Large Cruise Ship (VLCS)
B. Super Large Cruise Ship (SLCS)
C. High Capacity Passenger Vessel (HCPV)
D. None of the above

A

C. High Capacity Passenger Vessel (HCPV)

181
Q

Their is a security zone of 100 yards around escorted _________ in the seventh Coast Guard District.
A. High Capacity Cruise Ships
B. Alaskan Marine Highway Vessel
C. VLCCs
D. A and B only

A

D. A and B only

182
Q

Which vessels are exempt from staying clear of the security zones around AMHS vessels and HCPVs?
A. Dredges actively dredging and restricted in their maneuverability
B. Vessels engaged in towing
C. Commercial fishing vessels while actively engaged in fishing
D. All of the above

A

C. Commercial fishing vessels while actively engaged in fishing

183
Q

What are permanent safety zones between July 3 and July 5?
A. All navigable waters of Tanya Inlet within a 300 yd radius of the fireworks launching point located on the white pass and Yukon Railway Dock.
B. All navigable waters of Portage Cove, Haines, AK within 300 yd radius around the fireworks launch platform.
C. All navigable waters North of the Skagway Buoy 37 within a 300 yd radius around the fireworks launching point in inner Skagway Harbor.
D. A and B only.

A

D. A and B only.

184
Q

A large U.S. Naval vessel is a vessel greater than ______ ft in length.
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

A

B. 100 ft

185
Q

In navigable waters of the United States when immediate action is required and representatives of the Coast Guard are not present in sufficient force to exercise effective control in the vicinity of large navel vessels who is responsible for the enforcement of the rules and regulations contained in this subpart to ensure the safety and security of all large naval vessels present.
A. Any Coast Guard Officer present
B. The Captain of the Port
C. Senior naval officer present
D. None of the above

A

C. Senior naval officer present

186
Q

A naval vessel protection zone exists around U.S. Naval vessels greater than ______ feet in length at all times in the navigable waters of the United States.
A. 50 ft
B. 100 ft
C. 150 ft
D. 200 ft

A

B. 100 ft

187
Q

How can permission be requested to operate within the 100 yards of a large U.S. naval vessel?

A

Request permission on Ch. 16 to the USCG or senior naval officer present

188
Q

When can a ship engaged on an international voyage switch off its LRIT equipment?
A. Upon completion of the voyage
B. Upon commencement of the voyage
C. When permitted by the Flag Administration
D. None of the above

A

C. When permitted by the Flag Administration

189
Q

What is a defined water area used for target practice, bombing, rocket firing or other especially hazardous operations normally for armed forces?
A. Security Zone
B. Danger Zone
C. Restricted Area
D. Naval Vessel Protection Zone

A

B. Danger Zone

190
Q

What is a defined water area for the purpose of prohibiting or limiting public access to the area called?

A. Security Zone
B. Danger Zone
C. Restricted Area
D. Naval Vessel Protection Zone

A

C. Restricted Area

191
Q

How many restricted areas are there on the waters of West Arm Behm Canal, Ketchikan Alaska? (Stated in the Coast Pilot)
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7

A

C. 5

192
Q

In the West Arm Behm Canal Area #5 is flashing an Amber Beacon what does that mean?
A. All vessels are restricted to a 5 kt speed when transiting the area
B. All vessels should take caution for naval activity
C. The area is closed all vessels should wait until the clear signal before proceeding
D. None of the above

A

C. The Area is closed all vessels should wait until the clear signal before proceeding

193
Q

When restrictions are in place in West Arm Behm Canal Area 5 what is the speed restriction?
A. 3 kts
B. 5 kts
C. 7 kts
D. 10 kts

A

B. 5 kts

194
Q

Which areas in the West Arm Behm Canal restricted areas prohibit anchoring or tow a drag of any kind? (Pick two)
A. Area no. 1
B. Area no. 2
C. Area no. 3
D. Area no. 4
E. Area no. 5

A

A. Area no. 1
D. Area no. 4 this is due to power cables crossing the Revillagigedo Island

195
Q

What are the restricted areas of the Lutak Inlet cargo dock?
A. Waters within 100 ft of the dock
B. Waters within 500 ft of the dock
C. Waters within 60 ft of the dock
D. None of the above

A

C. Waters within 60 ft of the dock. Dropping anchors and dragging of anchors, weights or other ground tackle is prohibited

196
Q

What area means all NPS administered lands and waters within 1 mile of any Bartlett Cove Facility?
A. Bartlett Cove Restricted Area
B. Bartlett Cove Security Area
C. Bartlett Cove Developed Area
D. Bartlett Cove Special Area

A

C. Bartlett Cove Developed Area

197
Q

True or False: a Superintendent may prohibit or otherwise restrict activities in the Bartlett Cove Developed Area to protect public health, safety or park resources.

A

True

198
Q

What type of commercial fishing is authorized in Glacier Bay non wilderness waters:
A. Longline fishing for halibut
B. Pot and ring fishing for Tanner Crab
C. Trolling for Salmon
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

199
Q

Where is commercial fishing prohibited?
A. In the waters of Geikie, Tarr, John’s Hopkins and Reid Inlets
B. West arm glacier bay
C. In the east arm of glacier bay north of the line running from Pt. Caroline through the southern pint of Garforth Island and extending to the east side of Muir inlet
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above.

200
Q

What kind of contract must a cruise ship have to operate in Glacier Bay?

A

A concession contract

201
Q

True or False: A tour vessel, charter vessel and passenger ferry must have a commercial authorization to operate in Glacier Bay.

A

True

202
Q

Where are Cruise ships and tour vessels prohibited from operating:
A. Beardsley Entrance
B. At the entrance to Adam’s Inlet
C. Bartlett Cove
D. A and B only

A

D. A and B only

203
Q

True or False: A passenger ferry must travel a direct course between the mouth of glacier bay and Bartlett Cove except when the vessel is granted safe harbor by the superintendent.

A

True

204
Q

A vessel permit is not required in Glacier Bay when:
A. A motor vessel is engaged in official, non-commercial business of the State or Federal Government;
B. A motor vessel is operating in Bartlett Cove waters east of a line extending from the long axis of the fuel dock to the wilderness boundary of Lester Island;
C. One motor vessel is launched from a motor vessel that has a permit and only while the authorized motor vessel remains at anchor or operated in accordance with a concession agreement from a permitted motor vessel while that vessel is not underway;
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above.

205
Q

A vessel permit is not required in Glacier Bay when:
A. A commercial fishing vessel authorized under this subpart is actually engaged in commercial fishing
B. A vessel working under a government contract.
C. A naval vessel of less than 50 meters.
D. All of the above.

A

A. A commercial fishing vessel authorized under this subpart is actually engaged in commercial fishing.

206
Q

A vessel permit is not required in Glacier Bay when:
A. A passenger ferry on a regular route that has been accepted by the COP.
B. A vessel is granted safe harbor by the superintendent.
C. A naval vessel of less than 50 meters.
D. All of the above.

A

B. A vessel is granted safe harbor by the superintendent.

207
Q

Who is prohibited from operating in glacier bay:
A. Operating a motor vessel in Glacier Bay without a required permit is prohibited.
B. A vessel violating a term or condition of a permit or an operating condition or restriction issued or imposed pursuant to this chapter is prohibited.
C. The superintendent may immediately suspend or revoke a permit or deny a future permit request as a result of a violation of a provision of this chapter.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

208
Q

What vessels are limited to the daily vessel quota year-round?
A. Cruise Ships and Tour vessels
B. Charter vessels
C. Private vessels
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

209
Q

Who reduces the vessel quota level into Glacier Bay for any or all categories of vessels as required to protect the values and purposes of Glacier Bay National Park and Preserve?
A. The director
B. The Superintendent
C. The Captain of the Port
D. Any of the above.

A

A. The director

210
Q

Who annually determines the cruise ship quota for glacier bay?
A. The director
B. The Superintendent
C. The Captain of the Port
D. None of the above

A

B. The Superintendent

211
Q

From June 1 to August 31 the superintendent will designate one private vessel permit from the daily quota of 25 as a __________ permit.
A. Emergency
B. Double
C. Transit
D. Official

A

C. Transit Permit, this permit may be used only to directly exit glacier bay from Bartlett cove and return directly to Bartlett Cove.

212
Q

Which statement is true concerning the operating rules around whales?
A. Operating a vessel within a 1/4 Nautical Mile of a whale is prohibited.
B. If a vessel has inadvertently positioned within the prohibited area of a whale it must slow to 10 kts without using reverse propulsion unless impact is likely.
C. The operator of a vessel or seaplane positioned within a 1/2 nautical mile of a whale is prohibited from altering course or speed in a manner that results in decreasing the distance between the whale and the vessel.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

213
Q

True or False: when operating in the whale waters from May 15 to September 30 as designated by the superintendent it is prohibited to operate a motor vessel with in 1 Nautical Mile from shore.

A

True

214
Q

What is true concerning speed restrictions for whale waters from May 15 to September 30:
A. Operating a motor vessel at more than 20 kts through the water is prohibited
B. Operating a motor vessel at more than the maximum speed set by the superintendent
C. From July 1 through August 31 operating a vessel on John’s Hopkins Inlet waters at more than 10 kts through the water
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

215
Q

What waters are closed to vessel operation between May 1 through August 31?
A. Approaching a 1/4 nautical mile from Spider Island or the 4 small islets lying W of Spider Island.
B. Operating a cruise ship on John’s Hopkins Inlet waters south of 58 - 54.2’N (due west from Jaw point)
C. Operating a vessel or a seaplane on John’s Hopkins Inlet waters South of 58 - 54.2’N
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above.
Other Closed waters are as follows:
]§13.1178 CloSe
a) Operating a vessel or otherwise approaching within 100 yards of South Marble Island; or Flapick Island; or any of the three small unnamed isles approximately one nautieal mile southeast of Flapjack Island; or Eider Island; or Boulder Island; or Geikie Rock: or Lone Island; or the northern three-fourths of Leland Island (north of 58°39. IN latitude); or any of the four small unnamed islands located approximately one nautical mile north (one island), and 1.5 nautical miles east (three islands) of the easternmost point of Russell Island; or Graves Rocks (on the outer coast); or Cormorant Rock, or any adjacent rock, including all of the near-shore rocks located along the outer coast, fora distance of 1½ nautical miles, southeast from the mouth of Lituya Bay; or the surf line along the outer coast, fora distance of 1½ nautical miles northwest of the mouth of the glacial river at Cape Fairweather.
(b) Operating a vessel or otherwise approaching within 100 yards of a Steller (northern) sea lion (Eumetopias jubatus) hauled-out on land or a rock or a nesting seabird colony: Provided, however, that vessels may approach within 50 yds of that part of South Marble Island lying south of 58-38.6’N Latitude to view seabirds

216
Q

True or False June 1 through August31 except on vessels in transit or as otherwise authorized by the superintendent the use of generators or other non propulsive motors is prohibited from 10 pm to 6 am in Reid Inlet, Blue Mouse Cove and North Sandy Cove

A

True

217
Q

What is defined as human body wastes and the wastes from toilets and other receptacles intend to receive or retain body wastes?

A

Sewage

218
Q

True or False: A State my completely prohibit the discharge from all vessels of any sewage whether treated or not into some or all the waters within such State by making a written application to the administrator, Environmental Protection Agency and receiving an affirmative determination pursuant to section 312 of the Act.

A

True

219
Q

This is defined as a passenger vessel of 300 gross tons or more.
A. Cruise Ship
B. Very Large Cruise Ship
C. Large Passenger Vessel
D. Very Large Passenger Vessel

A

C. Large passenger vessel.

220
Q

This is defined as a private, commercial, government or military vessel of 300 gross tons or more.

A

Large oceangoing vessel.

221
Q

Which statement is true concerning special prohibitions for humpback whales within 200 nm of Alaska?
A. It is prohibited to approach by any means an oncoming humpback whale so that the whale surfaces within 100 yds of the vessel.
B. It is prohibited to approach by any means an oncoming humpback whale so that the whale surfaces within .5 NM of the vessel.
C. It is prohibited to approach by any means an oncoming humpback whale and calf so that the whale or calf surfaces within 500 yds of the vessel.
D. None of the above.

A

A. It is prohibited to approach by any means an oncoming humpback whale so that the whale surfaces within 100 yds of the vessel.

222
Q

Which is true concerning the special prohibitions of humpback whales?
A. It is prohibited to cause a vessel or other object to approach within 100 yds of a humpback whale.
B. It is prohibited to disrupt the normal behavior or prior activity of a whale by any other act or omission.
C. It is prohibited to come within .5 nm of a humpback whale and calf.
D. A and B only.

A

D. A and B only.

223
Q

Exceptions to the Humpback Whale restrictions on approach of Humpback whales are what?
A. An approach authorized by the National Marine Fisheries Service.
B. A vessel that is restricted in its ability to maneuver
C. Commercial fishing vessels lawfully engaged in actively setting, retrieving or closely tending commercial fishing gear.
D. All of the above are exceptions.

A

D. All of the above are exceptions.

224
Q

Which statements are true concerning the exceptions to the Humpback Whale prohibitions on approach of Humpback whales are what?
A. State, local or Federal government vessels operating in the course of official duty.
B. Prohibitions mentioned do not take precedence over any more restrictive conflicting Federal regulation pertaining to humpback whales such as Glacier Bay National Park and Preserve.
C. Prohibitions mentioned should not affect the rights of Alaska Natives.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

225
Q

Which statement is true concerning vessels operating in the vicinity of humpback whales?
A. The Rules of the Road take precedence over humpback whale prohibitions.
B. Vessels within .5 NM of Humpback Whales should slow to bear steerageway.
C. Vessels must operate at a slow, safe speed when near a humpback whale and the term safe speed has the same meaning as defined in the COLREGS.
D. All of the above.

A

C. Vessels must operate at a slow, safe speed when near a humpback whale and the term safe speed has the same meaning as defined in the COLREGS.

Washington / SEAPA Pilots (14 decks)

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