URR part one Flashcards

1
Q

Standard precautions are an extension of ______

A

universal precautions

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2
Q

Universal precautions apply to direct contact with any ______, ______, and ______.

A

body fluids
airborne particles
skin wounds

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3
Q

Universal precautions apply to anything that has direct contact with an _____, _____, and _____.

A

body fluids
airborne particles
skin wounds

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4
Q

Universal precautions protect:

A

patient and caregiver

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5
Q

Universal precautions include:

A

good hygiene
handwashing
equipment cleaning
protective equipment

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6
Q

The CDC recommends the use of alcohol based hand rub when:

A

hands are not visibly soiled

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7
Q

Wash hands for ____

A

20+ seconds

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8
Q

Washing should be performed:

A

contamination
before putting on gloves and after gloves are removed
before and after assisting with any type of interventional procedures
between contact with patients
after changing exam table linens or paper

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9
Q

When putting on PPE, always put the _____ on first after washing your hands.

A

gown

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10
Q

All PPE should be removed prior to leaving the work area, except _______

A

respirators

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11
Q

Order for putting on PPE:

A

gown
mask
goggles
gloves

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12
Q

Order for taking off PPE:

A

gloves
goggles
gown
mask

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13
Q

Wear gloves when there is a potential contact with ____, _____, ______, _______ or _______

A

blood
body fluids
mucous membranes
nonintact skin
contaminated equipment

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14
Q

How to remove gloves properly

A

the first glove, pull the wrist section of the glove towards the fingers, turning the glove inside out as it is removed. Place the removed glove in the hand still wearing a glove. Pull the second glove off like the first and you should have both gloves inside out as it is removed

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15
Q

How to remove a gown properly

A

Remove your gloves, untie the strings, pull the gown forward from the shoulders using the neck strings, grab the inside shoulder seams, pull it off the arms and turn it inside out as it is removed

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16
Q

Wear a facemask to protect nose and mouth during times where contact with ______ and sprays of _____ or _____ is possible.

A

respiratory secretions
blood
body fluids

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17
Q

Wear eye protection during times where contact with ______ and sprays of _____ or ______ is possible

A

respiratory secretions
blood
body fluids

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18
Q

used to protect others from germs in patients that have stool incontinence, draining wounds and/or skin lesions that cannot be covered or uncontrolled secretions

A

contact precautions

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19
Q

enteric diseases

A

difficile, rotavirus, norovirus

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20
Q

wound and skin infections

A

MRSA, VRE, scabies, impetigo

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21
Q

used to protect others from germs in the patient’s nose, mouth, throat, and lungs

A

Droplet precautions

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22
Q

_____ precautions are used with patients suspected infection and that exhibit sneezing, coughing, or spitting

A

droplet

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23
Q

______ precautions are used for patients with pneumonia, influenza, adenovirus, mumps, rubella, meningitis, bordatella pertussis

A

Droplet precautions

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24
Q

Droplet precautions PPE

A

wear a facemask for close contact with the patient
wear gloves when touching the patient and items in the patient’s immediate environment
wear a gown or goggles if excessive spraying of respiratory fluids is anticipated
patient should wear a facemask when exiting the exam room

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25
Q

strict isolation, separation from others to prevent the spread by contact or airborne transmission of highly contagious diseases

A

airborne precautions

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26
Q

Infections associated with airborne precautions

A

tuberculosis, measles, chicken pox, shingles

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27
Q

Airborne precautions PPE

A

fitted N-95 mask or higher level disposable respirator when in the patient’s room
put respirator on before entering the room and after exiting the room
wear a gown and/or goggles if excessive spraying of respiratory fluids is anticipated
patient should wear a facemask when exiting the room

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28
Q

All items and personnel in a sterile field must be _____

A

sterile

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29
Q

When in doubt about sterility:

A

discard the potentially contaminated item and begin again

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30
Q

Sterile fields become ____ fields if left unmonitored

A

unsterile

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31
Q

Edges of sterile areas or fields, generally the outer ____ are not considered sterile.

A

inch

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32
Q

Sterile individuals must pass each other ______ when moving around the procedure room

A

back to back

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33
Q

_______ devices come in contact with intact skiin

A

non critical

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34
Q

______ devices come in contact with high risk patients, non-intact skin, or mucous membranes

A

semi critical

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35
Q

____ devices are used in a sterile field or within blood vessel

A

critical

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36
Q

___ or ______ disinfection performed for transducer used for standard examinations over intact skin

A

low
intermediate

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37
Q

____ disinfection refers to the use of a chemical solution on a transducer to release or eliminate all microorganisms, except bacterial spores

A

high

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38
Q

The type of high level disinfection used relates to differences in ___, _____, _______, ______, and ______

A

soak time
rinse time
temperature maintenance
required ventilation
duration of use of solution

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39
Q

Certain chemicals are unsafe to use on the transducer due to the potential for deterioration of the ______ and glues used to assemble the transducer

A

matching layer

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40
Q

Never immerse the _____ component of the transducer in the disinfectant

A

electrical

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41
Q

_____ and _____ are NOT acceptable for high level disinfectants

A

sprays
wipes

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42
Q

refers to the complete destruction of all living organisms on an object using exposure to heat, chemicals, or radiation

A

sterilization

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43
Q

Needle guides on transducers are ______ devices that require sterilization after each patient

A

critical

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44
Q

Transducers cannot be thermally sterilized because heating the PE element above the _____ can cause it to lose its piezoelectric properties/

A

Curie Point

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45
Q

PZT has a Cure Point of ______ degrees Celcius

A

300-400

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46
Q

Adult and child CPR __:__ compression to breath ratios single rescuer technique

A

30
2

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47
Q

Choking protocol standing

A

Heimlich Maneuver

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48
Q

Choking protocol unconsious

A

abdominal thrusts, open airway, 2 breaths

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49
Q

Syncope protocol

A

place patient on their back with legs elevated

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50
Q

created by congress to become apart of the Department of Labor; the purpose is to assure safe and healthful working conditions by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education, and assistance

A

Occupation Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

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51
Q

_______ are the #1 risk for electrical shock to patient and technologist

A

cracks in housing

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52
Q

NPO status helps with:

A

reduction of bowel gas that could obscure adjacent structures
allows gallbladder to fill with bile for better visualization
decreases peristalsis in the GI to improve visualization of adjacent structures that could be obscured by part of the stomach or intestines

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53
Q

The Joint Commission recommends using __ identifiers for each patient

A

2

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54
Q

Acceptable identifiers

A

patient name
date of birth
medical record number
photo ID

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55
Q

professional negligence by a healthcare professional in which the patient received substandard care or treatment that caused harm, injury, or death to a patient

A

Medical malpractice

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56
Q

a legal doctrine that holds an employer legally responsible for the unlawful acts of an employee when they occur within the scope of their employment

A

respondeat superior

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57
Q

the principle that states that if an accident occurs, it implies negligence

A

res ipsa loquitur

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58
Q

defined as behavior that no careful, reasonable, or prudent person would commit

A

medical negiglence

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59
Q

______ is required for all invasive procedures

A

informed consent

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60
Q

mandates industry wide standards for health care information on electronic billing and other processes

A

HIPAA

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61
Q

individually identifiable health information

A

PHI

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62
Q

State and federal regulations prohibit the use of a patient’s ________ as an identifier on imaging exams

A

social security number

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63
Q

_____ frequency transducers are used for thinner patients and superficial structure

A

higher

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64
Q

small parts, extremity vascular, musculoskeletal exams should use the _______ transducer

A

linear array

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65
Q

abdominal, pelvic, OB should use the ______, ______, or ______ transducer

A

curved array
linear array
vector array

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66
Q

Cardiac exams should use the _____ or _____ transducer

A

sector array
vector array

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67
Q

Inappropriate presets can ____ the images and ______ exam time

A

degrade
extend

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68
Q

If the venous preset is selected for an arterial exam, _______ of the arterial signal is likely to occur

A

aliasing

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69
Q

Venous flow velocities are much ______ than arterial

A

lower

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70
Q

techniques used to prevent WRMSDs

A

ergonomics

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71
Q

Sonographers typically experience _____ and ____ issues

A

shoulder
neck

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72
Q

Arm abduction should be limited to a small angle and reach should be limited to __ cm or less to minimize potential injury

A

30

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73
Q

Sonographer that must stand should balance their weight on both feet to prevent ____ and ____ injuries

A

hip
back

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74
Q

Ultrasound system monitor should be adjusted to a position level with the sonographer’s line of sight that allows a _____ neck position

A

neutral

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75
Q

The wrist should be in a neutral position of flexed/extended at an angle less than ___ degrees

A

15

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76
Q

_____ function measures area of a circle

A

ellipse

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77
Q

most commonly used on OB biometry measurements

A

ellipse function

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78
Q

length x width

A

area

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79
Q

length x width x heightx 0.523

A

volume

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80
Q

commonly used to assess the bladder, ovaries, prostate, and cardiac chambers

A

volume

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81
Q

two factors that are related to each other and as one changes the other changes in the same way

A

directly proportional

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82
Q

If the Doppler shift increases, the calculated velocity _____

A

increases

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83
Q

If the power of the beam decreases, the intensity of the beam ______

A

decreases

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84
Q

two factors that are related to each other and as one changes the other changes in the opposite way

A

indirectly proportional

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85
Q

if the vessel diameter decreases, the velocity ______

A

increases

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86
Q

If the frequency of a sound wave decreases, the _____ wavelength of the beam ______

A

increases

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87
Q

100,000 cm is equal to ____

A

1 km

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88
Q

7 MHZ US probe uses ____ kHz or _____Hz

A

7000
7000000

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89
Q

5 mm is equal to __ meters

A

.005

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90
Q

65 cm is equal to ___ meters

A

0.65

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91
Q

4 MHz frequency increases by a factor of 4=

A

16 MHz

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92
Q

increase by a factor of means ______ by that number

A

multiply

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93
Q

Decrease by a factor of means _____ by that number

A

divide

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94
Q

4 MHz frequency decreases by a factor of 4 =

A

1 MHz

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95
Q

the inverse of a number

A

reciprocal

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96
Q

As the units get larger, the number gets ____

A

smaller

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97
Q

100mm =

A

10 cm

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98
Q

Distance units

A

mm
cm

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99
Q

volume units

A

cm cubed

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100
Q

area units

A

cm squared
mm squared

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101
Q

frequency units

A

Hz

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102
Q

wavelength units

A

mm

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103
Q

PRF units

A

kHz

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104
Q

PRP units

A

ms

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105
Q

intensity units

A

mw/cm squared

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106
Q

smallest unit of a digital memory

A

bit

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107
Q

bit is also known as

A

binary digit

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108
Q

a bit has a value of __ or __

A

0
1

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109
Q

a group of bits

A

binary numbers

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110
Q

system used by computers to process information

A

binary numbers

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111
Q

used to determine echo placement on our screens

A

binary numbers

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112
Q

binary number 0 =

A

position is off

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113
Q

binary number 1=

A

position is on

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114
Q

a term used to compare the relative powers, intensities, or amplitude of 2 sound energy levels

A

decibel system

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115
Q

changes in intensity are expressed in a logarithmic scale

A

decibel system

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116
Q

represent the ratio of 2 intensity levels

A

decibels

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117
Q

a +3 decibel increase will ____ the power or intensity

A

double

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118
Q

A -3 decibel decrease will ____ the power or intensity

A

half

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119
Q

used to describe numbers

A

logarithms

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120
Q

exponent to which the vase must be raised to produce that number

A

logarithm

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121
Q

categories of sound

A

infrasound
audible sound
ultrasound
diagnostic ultrasound

122
Q

infrasound

A

<20 Hz

123
Q

audible sound

A

20 H to 20 kHz

124
Q

ultrasound

A

> 20 kHz

125
Q

Diagnostic ultrasound

A

> 2MHz

126
Q

______ and _____ properties of a material determine the speed of sound propagation in the material

A

stiffness
density

127
Q

stiffness is also known as

A

bulk modulus

128
Q

There is a significant increase in sound velocity with small _____ in stiffness of the material

A

increases

129
Q

an increase in ____ results in a slight decrease in the sound velocity

A

density

130
Q

the opposite of stiffness

A

compressability

131
Q

Increasing compressability causes a decrease in ______

A

propagation speed

132
Q

a ______ wave requires a medium to travel

A

mechanical

133
Q

move through matter by causing molecules to vibrate successively along their path

A

sound waves

134
Q

carry energy from one point to another; no matter or particles are carried along the waveform

A

sound waves

135
Q

the conversion of electrical energy into mechanical energy- transmission of the sound beam

A

piezoelectric effect

136
Q

the conversion of mechanical energy into electrical energy- receiving the reflected beam information

A

piezoelectric effect

137
Q

_______ is applied to the piezoelectric material which vibrates (expands and contracts) to produce mechanical sound or pressure waves

A

electricity

138
Q

_______ cause mechanical vibrations (acoustic pressure) of the piezoelectric material that are converted into the electrical signal for the display

A

returning sound waves

139
Q

certain types of materials that produce a sound wave when pressure deforms them from voltage applied

A

piezoelectric materials

140
Q

Average propagation speed in a PE element is _____

A

4-6 mm/ms

141
Q

most common material used for transducer

A

lead zirconate titanate

142
Q

ceramic materials used for transducer

A

lead zirconate titanate
barium titanate
lead metaniobate
lead titanate

143
Q

Natural elements used for transducer

A

quartz
tourmaline
rochelle salt

144
Q

natural element used in musculoskeletal and other high frequency superficial imaging probes

A

quartz

145
Q

If a transducer is reheated above the Curie point, ______ may result and the element will lose the ability to produce sound waves

A

depolarization

146
Q

________ production uses two piezoelectric elements, one to transmit and one to receive

A

continuous wave

147
Q

_______ production uses one piezoelectric element and alternates using it to transmit and receive sound waves

A

pulsed wave

148
Q

partical motion parallel to wave motion

A

longitudinal sound wave

149
Q

requires a medium to travel

A

mechanical sound wave

150
Q

positive amplitude of a wave, an area of high pressure and particle density on a pressure wave

A

compression

151
Q

negative amplitude of a wave, an area of low pressure and particle density on a pressure wave

A

rarefaction

152
Q

one compression and one rarefaction

A

cycle

153
Q

four types of recordable changes occur with the mechanical interaction of the wave and the medium

A

pressure
temperature
density
particle motion

154
Q

Changes in acoustic variables can lead to damage to the medium, called ______

A

bioeffects

155
Q

particles move parallel to the direction of the wave movement

A

longitudinal

156
Q

particles move perpendicular to the direction of the wave movement

A

transverse

157
Q

difference between the average value and the maximum value of the wave intensity (compression)

A

amplitude

158
Q

difference between the average value and the minimum value of the wave intensity (rarefaction)

A

amplitude

159
Q

height of the compression or depth of the rarefaction

A

amplitude

160
Q

indicates relative intensity or strength of the wave

A

amplitude

161
Q

the difference between the minimum and maximum value of the sound wave intensity

A

peak to peak amplitude

162
Q

amplitude _____ as it travels through tissue and attenuation occurs

A

decreases

163
Q

amplitude is proportional to _____

A

power/voltage

164
Q

Amplitude squared =

A

power

165
Q

If the amplitude decrease by 1/2 of the original power, the power _____ by ___ of its original value

A

decreases
1/4

166
Q

if the amplitude decreases to 1/3 of the original value, the power ____ to ___ of its original value

A

decreases
1/9

167
Q

Amplitude is operator adjustable with _____

A

output power controls

168
Q

rate energy transmitted into substance OR the rate at which work is performed

A

power

169
Q

units of power

A

W or mW

170
Q

units of amplitude

A

mm or cm

171
Q

Power is operator adjustable with _____

A

output power controls

172
Q

Higher power settings are related to an increased risk for the occurrence of ______

A

bioeffects

173
Q

_____ diminishes as the wave travels through a medium

A

power

174
Q

If power doubles, intensity _____

A

doubles

175
Q

If power triples, intensity _____

A

triples

176
Q

If amplitude doubles, power increases to ____ its original value

A

4x

177
Q

If amplitude triples, power increases to ____ original value

A

9x

178
Q

the rate energy travels through a substance

A

intensity

179
Q

best indicator for the related risk of bioeffects

A

intensity

180
Q

____ and ____ are inversely related in regards to intensity

A

power
area

181
Q

Intensity = ____/_____

A

power
area

182
Q

units of intensity

A

mW/cm squared

183
Q

Intensity is operator adjustable with ______ and ______

A

output power
electronic focusing

184
Q

As beam power increases, intensity _____

A

increases

185
Q

The intensity at a more shallow focal zon will be _____ than the intensity at a deeper focal zone on the same US beam

A

highe

186
Q

The wider the element, the greater the _____

A

beam area

187
Q

The larger the area of the beam, the lover the ______ of the beam when power is constant

A

lower

188
Q

If beam area doubles with no change in power, intensity is reduced to ____

A

50%

189
Q

The smaller the area of the beam, the _____ the intensity of the beam when power is constant

A

higher

190
Q

If the beam area is decreased by 50% with no change in power, intensity is _____

A

doubled

191
Q

the depth at which the intensity of the beam is reduced to ____ the original intensity

A

1/2

192
Q

______ reduces beam intensity as it travels through the tissue

A

attenuation

193
Q

speed of the wave as it travels through a medium

A

propagation speed

194
Q

Propagation speed is determined by:

A

the medium

195
Q

Standard propagation speed in soft tissue

A

1540 m/s

196
Q

Fastest to slowest propagation speeds

A

solids
liquids
gases

197
Q

Range of propagation speed in the human body

A

500 m/s - 4000 m/s

198
Q

Propagation speed only changes when:

A

the sound wave travels into a different media

199
Q

_________ does not vary with frequency or wavelength of the sound waves

A

propagation speed

200
Q

number of vibrations per second of an energy waveform

A

frequency

201
Q

number of cycles per second in a sound wave

A

sound frequency

202
Q

Each cycle consists of a ______ and a ______

A

compression
rarefaction

203
Q

Frequency of sound is measured in ____

A

Hertz

204
Q

one cycle per second =

A

1 Hert

205
Q

1,000 cycles per second =

A

1 kiloHertz

206
Q

1,000,000 cycles per second =

A

1 MHz

207
Q

Pulsed US frequency varies with the _____ of the element and the _____ of sound in the element

A

thickness
speed

208
Q

Continuous US frequency is determined by ______ applied to the element

A

electrical frequency

209
Q

_______ remains constant at all depths as the sound wave travels through a medium

A

frequency

210
Q

_______ does NOT change is you change from pulsed to continuous transmission

A

frequency

211
Q

Diagnostic US = __-__ MHz

A

2-15

212
Q

The choice of frequency for an exam is dependent on the ______ and _______ needed for an optimal exam.

A

penetration
resolution

213
Q

the time it takes for one cycle to occur

A

period

214
Q

_____ is the reciprocal of frequency

A

period

215
Q

1/frequency=

A

period

216
Q

an frequency increases, period _____

A

decreases

217
Q

Units for period

A

sec, ms, us

218
Q

Diagnostic ultrasound period

A

0.08-0.5 us

219
Q

Lower frequency waves have _____ period and _____ wavelengths

A

lower
longer

220
Q

____ remains constant when traveling through a medium

A

period

221
Q

the distance traveled by one cycle

A

wavelength

222
Q

wavelength is measured in ___

A

mm

223
Q

Average wavelength of ultrasound in soft tissue

A

0.1 - 0.8 mm

224
Q

______ is inversely related to frequency with sound propagation

A

wavelength

225
Q

The higher the frequency, the _____ the wavelength

A

shorter

226
Q

ONLY sound parameter determined by the US system/probe and medium

A

wavelength

227
Q

The US system determines the ____ of the wave and the ______ varies with the medium in which the wave travels

A

frequency
propagation speed

228
Q

Lower frequency waves have ____ period and _____ wavelengths

A

longer
longer

229
Q

Sound waves with _____ wavelengths are preferred to produce the best 2D images

A

shorter

230
Q

occurs when two waves with different frequencies are produced at the same time and combine to form a new wave

A

interference

231
Q

original waves are waves that are out of phase; resultant amplitude is smaller than ONE of the individual waves

A

destructive interference

232
Q

the individual waves become tangent to each other and have the same phase relationship; resultant amplitude is larger than BOTH of the individual waves

A

constructive interference

233
Q

Interference is associated with ______ and +++++

A

acoustic speckle artifact
reduced signal to noise ratio

234
Q

explains the hourglass shape of the beam

A

Huygen’s priniciple

235
Q

sound waves produced by ultrasound transducers originate as numerous points on the surface of a piezoelectric element

A

Huygen’s principle

236
Q

progressive decrease in beam intensity, power, and amplitude as it travels through the medium

A

attenuation

237
Q

______ is described in negative decibels

A

attenuation

238
Q

Attenuation occurs due to _____, _____, ______, and _____

A

reflection
refraction
absorption
scatter

239
Q

______ is the predominant factor causing attenuation of the US beam

A

sound absorption

240
Q

Attenuation is counteracted by ______ the TGC setting for the far field

A

increasing

241
Q

________ is directly related to the distance the beam travels and transducer frequency

A

attenuation

242
Q

Higher transducer frequencies exhibit faster attenuation rates in soft tissue =

A

less penetration

243
Q

Longer travel distances ______ beam attenuation

A

increase

244
Q

amount of attenuation of sound per cm

A

attenuation coefficient

245
Q

unit for attenuation coefficient

A

dB/cm

246
Q

used to describe attenuation in different tissue types

A

attenuation coefficient

247
Q

Higher attenuation coefficients indicate ______ attenuation

A

increased

248
Q

A way to describe attenuation with a specific distance of the sound traveled

A

attenuation coefficient

249
Q

The farther the sound wave travels, the _____ the attenuation

A

greater

250
Q

Attenuation coefficient is directly related to transducer ______

A

frequency

251
Q

Attenuation coefficient value does not vary with ______

A

path length

252
Q

Attenuation coefficient for soft tissue is equivalent to ____ the frequency

A

1/2

253
Q

-dB = attenuation coefficient(dB/cm) x path length (mm)

A

total attenuation

254
Q

tissue thickness that will decrease beam intensity by 50% or -3 dB

A

half value layer

255
Q

also known as depth penetration, half boundary layer, penetration depth

A

half value layer

256
Q

Half value layer typical range

A

0.25-1.0 cm

257
Q

Half value layer is ________ to frequency

A

inversely proportional

258
Q

ultrasound energy is converted into heat energy that is absorbed by the tissues through which it travels

A

absorption

259
Q

______ has the greatest effect on US beam attenuation in soft tissue

A

absorption

260
Q

Absorption ______ with transducer frequency and imaging depth

A

increases

261
Q

Absorption is related to ______

A

thermal bioeffects

262
Q

Average rate of attenuation/absorption in soft tissue

A

0.5 dB/cm/MHz

263
Q

redirection of the sound beam back toward the transducer

A

reflection

264
Q

requires perpendicular incidence along with a difference in acoustic impedance of two media along its path

A

reflection

265
Q

The greater the difference in impedance between the two media, the greater the amount of ______

A

reflection

266
Q

Not all reflections reach the transducer face due to ______

A

oblique angle of incidence

267
Q

Usually less than __% of the incident US energy is reflected at a soft-tissue boundary between different media (muscle and blood)

A

1

268
Q

___ of the sound beam is reflected at a tissue-bone interface

A

50

269
Q

__% of the sound beam is reflected at a tissue-air interface

A

99

270
Q

portion of the beam that exits the transducer and enters the body

A

incident beam

271
Q

portion of the beam that is not reflected

A

transmitted beam

272
Q

portion of the beam that is returned to the transducer due to reflection

A

reflected beam

273
Q

the area where the transmitted and reflected pulses cross each other

A

zone of sensitivity

274
Q

Perpendicular incidence is also known as ______ or ______

A

normal incidence
orthogonal incidence

275
Q

beam strikes the boundary of two media at a 90 degree angle

A

perpendicular incidence

276
Q

Perpendicular incidence is required for _____ and _____ of waves to the transducer

A

reflection
return

277
Q

_______ is perpendicular in relation to the media boundaries

A

incident beam

278
Q

Not all of the beam is reflected, the _______ continues on through the tissue

A

transmitted beam

279
Q

Impedance of the media is directly related to the _______

A

amount of reflection that occurs

280
Q

With 2D imaging, the ______ refers to a beam that is perpendicular to the media boundaries being evaluated to allow for total reflection

A

critical angle

281
Q

___% reflection occurs when the beam strikes a smooth surface as the critical angle of insonation

A

100

282
Q

occurs when the incident beam strikes the media boundaries at an angle other than 90 degrees

A

oblique incidence

283
Q

acute angle

A

less than 90 degrees

284
Q

obtuse angle

A

more than 90 degrees

285
Q

incidence angle =

A

reflected angle

286
Q

If the incident angle is 45 degrees, the angle of reflected waves is _____

A

45 degrees

287
Q

leads to decreased structure visualization because less reflections go back to the probe

A

oblique incidence

288
Q

Oblique incidence is related to ______ if wave crosses between two media with different propagation speeds

A

refraction

289
Q

Reflection that only occurs when wave hits a large, smooth surface with perpendicular incidence

A

specular reflection

290
Q

The amount of reflection _______ as the difference in acoustic impedance of the two medias increases

A

increases

291
Q

The amplitude of the reflection will be _____ with perpendicular incidence

A

greatest

292
Q

Not all specular reflections are returned to the transducer, those that strike the smooth surface at an _________ angle do not return to the transducer

A

oblique

293
Q

waves are redirected but are somewhat organized

A

diffuse reflection

294
Q

occurs with large, rough, or irregular tissue interface

A

diffuse reflection

295
Q

surface irregularities are larger than the incident beam wavelength

A

diffuse reflection

296
Q

specular reflection is also known as

A

backscatter
disorganized scatter

297
Q

non-specular reflection is also known as

A

Rayleigh scatterer

298
Q

occurs when a sound wave strikes a particle that is smaller in size than the incident beam wavelength

A

non specular reflection

299
Q

A red blood cell is _______

A

non specular reflector

300
Q

Sound is redirected in all directions from reflector

A

non specular reflector