URR part 4 Flashcards
The strength of the received echo determines the _____ on the display
brightness of the pixel
The use of multiple focal zones will improve _____, but degrade ______
lateral resolution
temporal resolution
What system control adjusts the number of gray levels in the image to maintain the gray scale within the range of human vision?
compression
Which of the following console settings should be lower in superficial imaging and higher in deep imaging?
a. focal zone
b. transmit frequency
c. PRF
d. gain
d
You are scanning with a transducer that maintains a constant of 2 scan lines per sector degree. Which of the following statements is true regarding changing a 45 degree sector angle to a 90 degree sector angle?
a. the PRF will increase
b. the number of scan lines will decrease
c. the elevational resolution will degrade
d. the temporal resolution will degrade
d
Which of the following imaging parameters is responsible for the ability to resolve the AP wall thickness of an artery?
a. lateral resolution
b. dynamic range
c. axial resolution
d. contrast resolution
c
Which of the following imaging parameters is responsible for the ability to resolve the AP wall thickness of an artery?
a. lateral resolution
b. dynamic range
c. axial resolution
d. contrast resolution
c
When Harmonic imaging is turned on, it primarily improves ______ resolution
lateral
To increase the amplitude of the ultrasound pulse produced by the transducer:
a. the voltage amplitude from the pulser must decrease
b. the number of piezoelectric elements must increase
c. the voltage amplitude from the pulser must increase
d. the size of the piezoelectric element must increase
c
If the entire image is too dark, what console adjustment should you make first?
a. adjust the far field TGC
b. adjust the near field TGC
c. increase the overall gain
d. increase the output power
c
_______ removes low amplitude signals and noise from the image.
increasing rejection
Increased damping improves axial resolution, but decreases ______
sensitivity
When you activate Harmonic imaging and add a focal zone to the field of view, which type of resolution improves the most?
a. axial
b. contrast
c. elevational
d. lateral
d
If the input power is 2mW and the ouput power is 1mW, what is the gain?
3dB
Which of the following correctly describes an amplifier?
a. sonographer controls this by using the compression control
b. only useful signals are amplified
c. each returning reflection is made stronger/larger for additional processing and storage
d. the signal to noise ratio improves with amplification
c
While scanning an echo, you change the gray map to a new choice and continue to scan. This be termed a changed in ______
preprocessing
______ is the percentage of time the transducer is transmitting soundwaves
duty factor
What effect does frequency compounding have on the image?
reduce speckle artifact
increasing scan line density leads to improved _______ resolution
spatial
Which of the following types of resolution varies with different depths on the image?
a. axial resolution
b. lateral resolution
c. contrast resolution
d. temporal resolution
b
The amount of compensation necessary for different echoes varies with reflector:
depth
Axial resolution varies directly with:
a. spatial pulse length
b. beam intensity
c. output power
d. beam diameter
a
A linear transducer providing a trapezoidal image demonstrates degraded _____ resolution in the far field of the image.
lateral
Decreasing the number of cycles in a pulse will:
a. increase the frequency of the wave
b. degrade the axial resolution of the system
c. increase the wavelength
d. improve the axial resolution of the system
d
Why does axial resolution improve with higher frequencies?
wavelength is reduced
_____ can be used to reduce image noise and clutter on the 2D image.
a. spatial compounding
b. adjusting the Doppler baseline
c. switching to a curved array transducer
d. decreasing transducer frequency
a
Which of the following can change the image data displayed on an archived exam on the ultrasound system?
a. change the placement of the Doppler cursor
b. change the transducer frequency used to create the image
c. turn off harmonic imaging
d. change the gray map used to create the image
d
Which of the following ultrasound machine controls affects the power of the beam?
a. receiver gain
b. swept gain
c. TGC
d. transmit gain
d
Which of the following is not necessary in contruction of a capactitative micromachined ultrasound transducer?
a. voltage source
b. matching layer
c. backing layer
d. silicon substrate
b
The wider the element diameter, the ______
a. greater the beam divergence in the far field
b. lower the beam intensity
c. shorter the near zone
d. greater the probe frequency
b
Which of the following transducers will produce the highest frequency sound waves?
a. 6mm element thickness, 2mm/us propagation speed of the element
b. 2mm element thickness, 6mm/us propagation speed of the element
c. 6mm element thickness, 6mm/us propagation speed of the element
d. 2mm element thickness, 2mm/us propagation speed of the element
b
What beam formation technique is used to produce the sector field of view in a phased array transducer?
electronic steering
Linear phased arrays utilize what type of focusing?
mechanical and electronic
As the transducer frequency increases, the quality factor ______
increases
Diagnostic ultrasound is described as frequencies greater than:
2MHz
Which of the following is correct regarding endocavity probes?
a. one of the main disadvantages of the tightly curved elements of the endocavity probe is decreased spatial resolution
b. the should be cleaned and soaked in a high level disinfectant at least once a day
c. they most commonly incorporate a curved array of elements that are electronically steered to create an extended field of view
c
Which of the following is an advantage of a 2D linear phased array overy a 1D linear phased array transducer?
a. ability to adjust the lateral resolution
b. ability to use electronic steering to vary the incident angle of the beam
c. ability to use single or multiple focal zones
d. ability to adjust the elevation focus
d
The acoustic impedance of the matching layer:
a. must be much thinner than the transducer element
b. usually the same material as the damping layer
c. it is usually very low
d. is usually much higher than the acoustic gel applied to the patient
c
Which of the following transducers provides the best spatial resolution of the cardiac structures?
a. transesophageal array
b. phased sector array
c. vector array
d. curved sequential array
a
Materials used for the matching layer of a transducer must have an impedance between impedance levels of the ______
skin and PE element
Increasing the transducer frequency on a multihertz transducer will:
a. increase the spatial pulse length
b. improve the axial resolution in the near and far field
c. improve the lateral resolution in the near field
d. improve the axial resolution only in the near field
b
Which of the following correctly describes how a linear array transducer produces a trapezoidal field of view?
a. PE elements are stimulated by timed voltage spikes produced in a concave pattern
b. PE elements are stimulated by timed voltage spikes produced first on the right and moving to the left side of the array
c. PE elements are stimulated by timed voltage spikes produced first on the left and moving to the right side of the array
d. PE elements are stimulated by timed voltage spikes produced in a convex pattern
d
A __ MHz transducer will have the thinnest element.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 12
d
What type of transducer has approximately 200 elements arranged side by side and produces only a rectangular shaped field of view?
linear sequential array
The pulser sends the voltage spike to the _____
transducer
What determines the transducer frequency used for the evaluation of a foreign body?
depth of the foreign body
Which statement regarding high frequency transducers is correct?
a. higher frequency transducers always have low signal to noise ratio
b. harmonic imaging should never be used on transducers over 12 MHz
c. A multi-Hz transducer operates at multiple frequencies and offers a broad bandwidth
d. higher frequency transducers provide image resolution because the sound travels faster through the tissues to provide a more accurate display
c
What type of resolution is degraded in 2D transducer arrays?
temporal
What determines the frequency of a capacitative micromachined ultrasound transducer?
frequency of the drive voltage
Which transducer should be used for evaluation of an area within 1 cm of the transducer face?
2D linear array
Which of the following transducer components reduces the sensitivity and efficiency of the ultrasound system?
a. element width
b. plastic housing
c. matching layer
d. damping material
d
Mirrors and lenses can be used to:
a. increase the PRF of the transducer
b. mechanically focus the US beam
c. improve sound transmission into the body
d. electronically focus the US beam
b
What system parameter is decreased with a high frequency transducer?
a. dynmaic range
b. spatial resolution
c. beam intensity
d. penetration
d
Which type of transducer would be used to evaluate a palpable lump in the neck?
a. 12 MHz curvilinear phased array
b. 12 MHz linear phased array
c. 12 MHz sector phased array
d. 3 MHz curvilinear sequential array
b
To obtain a longer near zone:
a. add a lens to the transducer face
b. change from a 3 MHz to a 6 MHz transducer
c. decrease the transducer element diameter
d. use a linear transducer instead of a curved transducer
b
Which of the following describes a vector array transducer?
a. uses mechanical steering
b. used for breast imaging and extremity vascular exams
c. has a sector shaped field of view with a flat top
d. uses only mechanical focusing
c
Transducers can be electronically focused by:
a. adding an acoustic lens to the face of the transducer
b. using a convex shaped PE element
c. varying timing of the release of the pulses
d. using a concave shaped element
c
Which of the following can be used for backing material in a PW transducer?
a. epoxy
b. air
c. quartz
d. backing material is only necessary in CW transducers
a
A 7 MHz transducer emits a range of frequencies between 4 MHz and 10 MHz. What is the bandwidth of the transducer?
6 MHz
Which of the following describes a Multi-dimensional array?
a. offers increased slice thickness and improved spatial resolution
b. has less than 100 elements that can be fired simultaneously
c. has thousands of elements arranged in a matrix pattern
d. has less than 100 elements that can be fired sequentially
c
Which of the following transducer frequencies can be used for imaging or therapeutic purposes?
a. 5MHz
b. 15 MHz
c. 1 MHz
d. 3 MHz
d
Which of the following is true regarding continuous wave transducer structure and function?
a. CW probes are preferred for detection of low velocity flow
b. CW probes do not require any backing material
c. CW probes have a single PE element
d. CW probes do not require a matching layer
b
As the element diameter decreases, the focal length ______
will decrease
Which of the following occurs with the implementation of backing material in a transducer?
a. increased duty factor
b. improved sensitivity
c. higher Q factor
d. shorter pulses
d
The matching layer is usually made of:
plastic
Which of the following is an advantage of a 2D linear phased array over a 1D linear phased array transducer?
a. ability to adjust the lateral resolution
b. ability to perform 3D imaging
c. ability to use single or multiple focal zones
d. ability to use electronic steering to vary the incident angle of the beam
b
_____ is defined as the range of frequencies contained in the US pulse.
bandwidth
An 8 MHz transducer would have elements that are _____ than a 4 MHz transducer.
a. thinner
b. more dense
c. stiffer
d. thicker
a
Which type of transducer has the smallest field of view in the near field?
sector
What phenomenon is described as the conversion of a pressure wave into an electrical voltage?
Piezoelectric effect
If the fundamental frequency of a transducer is 3 MHz, what is the second harmonic frequency for this transducer?
6 MHz
Which transducer would provide the lowest attenuation rate?
a. 5MHz
b. 10MHz
c. 8MHz
d. 2.5MHz
d
The recommended sample size for PW Doppler evaluation of an artery is:
1-1.5 mm
Which of the following determines the frequency of waves produced by a CW transducer?
a. propagation speed of the element material
b. frequency of electrical excitation voltage
c. thickness of the element
d. diameter of the element
b
What term indicated the phenomenon of a PW Doppler tracing displaying a wider distribution of the velocity of blood cells with varying degrees of arterial blockage?
spectral broadening
_____ is the term used to describe the concentric layers of blood flow within a normal vessel/
laminar flow
How can a Sonographer correct for blooming on a spectral Doppler display?
a. Turn the Doppler gain down
b. reduce the wall filter
c. decrease the color Doppler velocity scale
d. increase the color Doppler velocity scale
a
Tissue Doppler imaging is commonly used in _____
echocardiography
Which of the following system adjustments would increase the size of the spectral window?
a. changing from a 2mm to 4mm sample size
b. tortuous vessel
c. changing from a 4mm to a 2mm sample size
d. decreasing rejection
c
Which of the following describes how to properly set the color Doppler gain levels for an image?
a. increasing the gain until aliasing is noted and then decrease to just below that level
b. starting at a low setting, increase the gain until only one color is displayed throughout the image
c. starting at a high setting with aliasing displayed, decrease the gain until only one color is displayed
d. increase the gain until blossoming is noted and then decrease to just below that level
d
Which of the following exams does not require angle corrected Doppler evaluation?
a. aorta duplex
b. IVC duplex
c. hepatic artery duplex
d. renal artery duplex db
b
______ is defined as specific area or location where Doppler shift information is being obtained.
sample volume
The number of red blood cells in a Doppler sample is directly related to:
a. amount of stenosis present at the sample site
b. brightness of the waveform displayed
c. size of the spectral window
d. peak velocity of the flow
b
Tissue Doppler imaging uses _____ settings than PW Doppler
lower filter
No flow is detected while performing a Color Doppler evaluation of a normal patent vein. What will improve the color display?
a increasing angle of insonation
b. increase the PRF
c. decrease the color persistence
d. decrease the sample size
d
Blood flow volume changes in the body are mainly controlled by what two factor?
cardiac function and peripheral resistance
Which of the following correctly describes a CW Doppler evaluation?
a. CW Doppler transducers contain a single element transducer to constantly transmit sound
b. CW Doppler tracings will not demonstrate a spectral window
c. This angle of incidence does not affect the velocity evaluation using CW Doppler because you are not evaluating the vessel at a specific depth
d. CW Doppler is most useful with low velocity flow that is undetectable on PW Doppler systems
b
Which of the following statements correctly describes power Doppler?
a. offers the highest temporal resolution of all ultrasound imaging techniques
b. color is assigned to the Doppler shift based on the number of moving red blood cells
c. Demonstrates mean flow velocities of any red blood cell in the sample
d. Color is assigned to the Doppler shift based on the velocity of moving red blood cells
b
The ability to see flow in a very deep vessel is limited by the fact that:
a. blood is less reflective than soft tissues
b. blood moves at the same speed as the surrounding tissues
c. blood has a very low attenuation rate
d. blood moves at a faster rate than the surrounding tissues
a
As the incident angle of the beam used to evaluate flow in a vessel moves closer to _____ degrees, color Doppler display will decrease until it is absent
90
The ______ the pulser packet used in color Doppler, the better the flow sensitivity
larger
Which of the following will reduce the amount of Color Doppler information displayed on the image?
a. increased sample size
b. increased sensitivity
c. increased packet size
d. increased probe frequency
a
Which of the following system control adjustments will increase the amount of color Doppler that is superimposed over the 2D image?
a. increased threshold and increased persistence
b. decreased threshold and persistence
c. decreased persistence and increased wall filter
d. increased wall filter and increased threshold
a
You identify a possible stenosis in the carotid artery and you switch the color map from velocity to variance while scanning. Which of the following describes what you just did?
a. changed the postprocessing settings
b. changed the processing from fast fourier transformer to autocorrelation
c. changed the preprocessing settings
d. changed the processing from autocorrelation to fast fourier transform
c
If the radius of a blood vessel decreases by 50%, what happens to the flow volume?
decreases by 16x
Which of the following correctly describes a limitation of the fast Fourier transformer?
a. cannot process more than two samples per cycle
b. cannot correctly process a frequency shift that is less than half the transducer frequency
c. cannot correctly process a frequency shift that is less than one half of the PRF
d. requires a minimum of two samples per cycle to process and produce a Doppler tracing
d
While scanning an obese patient, you apply color Doppler to the aorta. When you adjust the placement of the box, there is a delay between your adjustment and the box moving on the image. How can you correct this?
a. switch to a higher frequency probe
b. activate read magnification over the area of interest
c. increase the sample size
d. activate write magnification over the area of interest
d
Which color Doppler control helps to find a balance between between the accuracy of the color displayed and the temporal resolution of the image?
packet size
Range equation: Distance to Reflector =
a. 1/2 propagation speed x time to reach reflector
b. propagation speed / time to reach reflector
c. propagation speed x 1/2(time to and from reflector)
c
Which of the following sound/tissue interactions does NOT cause redirection of the incident wave?
a. attenuation
b. absorption
c. reflection
d. refraction
b
As a sound wave travels through soft tissue, what happens to the period of the wave?
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. unable to determine
c
Steering is beneficial in 2D and Doppler imaging because:
a. it eliminates all imaging artifacts
b. it allows variation in the incident angle of the ultrasound beam
c. it allows variation in the intensity of the ultrasound beam
d. it eliminates the need for transmit focusing
b
During refraction, if the angle of wave transmission increases as it enters the second media, then the new media has _____ propagation speed than the first media.
a. a very similar
b. a higher
c. a lower
d. the exact same
b
______ refers to redirection of a portion of the US beam from a boundary.
a. rarefaction
b. refraction
c. reflection
d. absorption
c
You are scanning a thyroid gland with a 5 cm wide linear array transducer. You are unable to document the upper and lower poles in the same image to obtain a length measurement of the gland. Which of the following techniques would assist in documenting the entire thyroid gland on a single image?
a. electronic focusing
b. spatial compounding
c. panoramic imaging
d. 3D volume rendering
c
Range resolution of a pulsed wave system is determined by:
a. both the source and the medium
b. the sound source only
c. the medium only
d. the frequency and intensity of the beam
a
______ is defined as the ratio of two sound intensities
a. sensitivity
b. dynamic range
c. decibel
d. duty factor
c
Which of teh following is not part of the Sonographer responsibilities for an ultrasound exam?
a. offering advice on ways to alleviate symptoms until the doctor treats the problem
b. verifying the patient name and date of birth
c. explaining the exam and when to expect the results
d. explaining how to find the MRI department for their next exam
a
List the parts of the beam former in the order they function to produce and receive sound waves.
a. pulser, pulse delays, transmit/receive switch, analog to digital converter, echo delays, summer, amplifier
b. summer, pulse delays, echo delays, transmit/receive switch, amplifier, analog to digital converter, echo delays
c. pulse delays, pulse, transmit/receive switch, amplifier, echo delays, analog to digital converter, summer
d. pulser, pulse delays, transmit/receive switch, amplifier, analog to digital converter, echo delays, summer
d
Sound waves carry _____ along their path.
a. particles of the media
b. energy
c. electrons
d. electricity
b
The average speed of sound in soft tissue is:
a. 1580 m/s
b. 3300 m/s
c. 1540 m/s
d. 1540 cm/s
c
Refraction occurs when a sound wave passes through an interface between two media at an oblique angle. If the propagation speed in medium 2 is greater than in medium 1, the transmitted angle of the pulse will:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remains unchanged
d. change only if the interface is between air and tissue
a
Which of the following best describes the difference between 3D ultrasound imaging and 4D ultrasound imaging?
a. 4D imaging was developed to demonstrate structural anomalies of the fetus while 3D imaging was developed to demonstrate cardiac anomalies in pediatric patients
b. 4D imaging provides real time imaging of 3D images
c. 3D imaging was developed to demonstrate structural anomalies of the fetus while 4D imaging was developed to demonstrate cardia anomalies in pediatric patients
d. 4D imaging provides the ability to Doppler while imaging in 3D
b
The AIUM recommends that the thermal index for fetal imaging be maintained at a level at or below:
a. 2.0
b. 0.7
c. 1.5
d. 1.0
b
Ultrasound contrast creates a greater difference in ______ of the blood which makes it more reflective and easier to demonstrate on the image.
a. acoustic impedance
b. Doppler shift
c. refraction
d. stiffness
a
If a patient experiences significant orthopnea, how will this change how you perform an ultrasound exam?
a. the patient will need to be scanned in the prone position
b. the patient will need to be scanned in the standing position
c. the patient will need to be scanned in the semi-erect position
d. the patient will need to be scanned in the supine position
c
How long does it take for the ultrasound system to receive a reflection from a reflector that is at a depth of 5cm in soft tissue?
a. 0.5 seconds
b. 25 microseconds
c. 65 microseconds
d. 33 microseconds
c
Which of the following will reduce speckle artifact and improve the signal to noise ratio?
a. turning off harmonic imaging
b. increasing output power
c. turning off compound imaging
d. using a higher frequency transducer
d
If an ultrasound beam passes from soft tissue through a large fatty mass and then back into soft tissue, what will be displayed on the image?
a. echoes from tissues posterior to the mass will be displaced deeper on the image
b. echoes from tissues anterior to the mass will be displaced deeper on the image
c. echoes from tissues posterior to the mass will be displaced closer to the top of the image
d. echoes from tissues anterior to the mass will be displaced to the top of the image
a
As frequency increases, the amount of scatter _______
a. increases
b. does not change unless imaging depth changes
c. decreases
d. does not change unless pulse duration changes
a
A patient can revoke consent for an invasive procedure:
a. at any time prior to signing the informed consent form
b. at an time for any reason
c. at any time prior to the physician starting the procedure
d. at any time prior to the sterile field placement
b
What principle of sound allows for identification of stones in the gallbladder or calcified plaque in the carotid arteries?
a. rectification
b. interference
c. refraction
d. reflection
d
Which of the following is correct regarding the wavelength of a sound wave?
a. sound waves produced by a pulsed wave transducer have longer wavelengths than sound waves produced by a continuous wave transducer
b. sound waves produced by a continuous wave transducer have longer wavelengths than sound waves produced by a pulsed wave transducer
c. frequency and wavelength will remain constant as the beam travels through soft tissue and attenuation occurs
d. shorter wavelengths are preferred for better image resolution
d
What two things are necessary for refraction to occur?
a. perpendicular incidence of the beam and two media with different acoustic impedance
b. oblique incidence of the beam and two media with difference acoustic impedance
c. oblique incidence of the beam and two media with different propagation speeds
d. perpendicular incidence of the beam and two media with different propagation speeds
c
After a contrast exam, the sonographer should:
a. flush the IV access with a viscous antihistamine
b. flush the IV access with isopropyl alcohol
c. seal the unused contrast and record the date the bottle was opened
d. record the amount of contrast used on the exam
d
Axial resolution artifacts occur due to ______, while lateral resolution artifacts occur due to _____
a. short pulses, narrow beams
b. element damage, matching layer damage
c. long pulses, wide beams
d. matching layer damage, element damage
c
A high mechanical index is associated with:
a. high frequency, high amplitude sound waves
b. thermal tissue injury
c. thermal cellular injury
d. low frequency, high amplitude sound waves
d
Which of the following is not a measurement of sound characteristics, but a calculation performed by the ultrasound system?
a. blood flow velocity
b. time of flight
c. frequency shift
d. echo amplitude
a
Which of the following describes how the ultrasound transducer should be cleaned after an exam on a patient that has an oozing incision in the area that was scanned?
a. the face of the probe and the cord are thoroughly cleaned with betadine or rubbing alcohol
b. an exam should not be performed on a patient with an oozing wound
c. the probe should be sent to the biomedical department for thermal sterilization
d. the face of the probe and the cord are thoroughly cleaned and a high level disinfectant is used
d
If the incident beam angle is 25 degrees, what is the angle of reflection?
a. 25 degrees
b. 50 degrees
c. 65 degrees
d. 90 degrees
a
Proper ergonomic techniques for Sonography include:
a. sonographer wrist flexion/extension should be maximized
b. Standing is preferred position for Sonographers completing most ultrasound exams
c. Sonographer reach should be limited to 30 cm or less
d. Sonographer arm adduction should be limited to a small angle
c
Which of the following console controls allows for comparison of imaging of two different locations at the same time?
a. spatial compounding
b. dual screen
c. harmonic imaging
d. hybrid imaging
b
Put the following media in order from lowest to highest according to their acoustic impedance
bone air liver blood
a. liver, bone, air, blood
b. air, blood, liver, bone
c. bone, liver, blood, air
d. air, bone, liver, blood
b
When transporting a patient in a wheelechair with an IV bag:
a. you should stop the flow in the IV until after you complete the echo
b. you should place the IV bag on the patient’s lap for easier transport
c. you should always transport the IV bag above the level of the patient’s heart
d. you should always transport the IV bag at the level of the patient’s heart
c
Bandpass filtering is a function performed in the:
a. signal processor
b. beam former
c. pulser
d. image processor
a
When working in a hospital setting, what is the best way to verify a patient’s identity?
a. ask the patient to verify their name and room #
b. ask the patient to verify their date of birth
c. check the hospital issued ID bracelet
d. ask the patient to verify their MRN
c
If a sound beam moves from air into soft tissue at an incident angle of 60 degrees, what is the angle of reflection?
a. 60 degrees
b. 30 degress
c. 90 degrees
d. 140 degrees
a
The unit used for the attenuation coefficient is:
a. mW/cm squared
b. dB
c. dB/cm
d. dB/cm/MHz
c
Specular reflections have the greatest _____ of all of waves returned to the transducer.
a. amplitude
b. intensity
c. frequency
d. all of the above
d
When the Sonographer decreases the imaging depth the ______.
a. elevational resolution will improve
b. PRF will decrease
c. frame rate will decrease
d. PRF will increase
d
Which statement correctly described reflection?
a. the greater the difference in attenuation rate of the two media, the greater the amount of reflection at their interface
b. the greater the difference in acoustic impedance of the two media, the greater the amount of reflection at their interface
c. the greater the difference in propagation speed of the two media, the greater the amount of reflection at their interface
d. the greater the difference in the distance the sound travels in each media, the greater the amount of reflection at their interface
b
What is the first step in obtaining a 3D image?
a. select the region of interest
b. optimize the 2d IMAGE
c. ask the patient to hold their breath before starting the data acquisition
d. adjust the volume angle
b
If the frequency of the beam increases, the propagation speed in the media will _____.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. not change
d. depends on the media
c
How is density of a medium related to impedance within the medium?
a. higher densities = higher impedance
b. lower densities = higher impedance
c. these two characteristics of the media are unrelated to sound wave travel
d. higher densities = lower impedance
a
Which of the following media has the highest propagation speed?
a. blood
b. air
c. liver
d. bone
d
A 2D image is composed of:
a. voxels
b. bytes
c. pixels
d. bits
c
Demodulation is only necessary when:
a. a television monitor is used to display the image
b. the imaged is displayed in an LCD monitor
c. high frequency transducers are used
d. low frequency transducers are used d
a
How long does it take for sound to travel through soft tissue to a reflector that is 5 cm deep?
a. 0.5 seconds
b. 33 microseconds
c. 65 microseconds
d. 25 microseconds
b
As the frequency of a wave doubles, the wavelength ____
a. doubles
b. decreases by half
c. increases exponentially by a factor of 2
d. is unchanged
b
Volume averaging artifact causes:
a. degrated elevational resolution
b. improved contrast resolution
c. degraded contrast and spatial resolutionm
d. improved spatial resolution and degraded contrast resolution
c
The AIUM has stated that there have been no confirmed reports of thermal bioeffects to living mammals with ultrasound exposure. If the temperature rise in tissue is less than:
a. 98.6 degrees F
b. 2 degrees F
c. 1 degree K
d. 2 degrees C
d
Which of the following will maintain compliance with the ALARA principle?
a. reducing the number of images taken in standard protocol
b. reducing overall gain
c. reducing transducer frequency
d. minimizing the use of harmonic imaging
a
The ALARA principles describes:
a. the formula for calculation of the right atrial tissue
b. the recommendations for universal precaution use
c. the formula for using PISA to obtain MR grade
d. the rule of thumb for adjusting gain before output power to minimize ultrasound exposure
d
If a 3.5 MHz wave is transmitted through the media listed below, the longest wavelength will be seen in the wave moving through ______
a. bone
b. air
c. soft tissue
d. fat
a
_____ artifact is caused by refraction and results in subtle image degradation
a. scatter
b. misregistration
c. comet tail
d. multipath
d
You switch from a 5 MHz curved probe to a 2.5 MHz sector probe to image deeper in the abdomen. How is the wavelength affected by the change to the new probe?
a. has no effected when changing from curved to sector transducer
b. decreases by 50%
c. doubles
d. increases by a factor of 4
c
As you are performing an exam on an obese adult patient, you notice a 1.9 Thermal index. What should be done next?
a. reduce the output power and increase the gain compensation
b. take a break from scanning the patient for 30-60 seconds and then start again while monitoring the TI level
c. reduce the number of images obtained to significantly reduce exam time
d. stop the exam and the consult the radiologist regarding increased patient exposure
a
Temperature elevation in tissue is most prevalent with:
a. M-mode imaging
b. Rayleigh scattering
c. specular reflection
d. Color Doppler
b
The rectus abdominis muscles are associated with _____, while the diaphragm is associated with ______.
a. comet tail, ring down
b. refraction artifact, mirror image artifact
c. refractive shadowing, lobe artifact
d. shadowing, enhancement
b
______ occurs posterior to highly attenuating structures.
a. enhancement
b. misregistration
c. refraction
d. shadowing
d
A wave that oscillates at 40 cycles per second has a frequency of:
a. 4 MHz
b. 4 kHz
c. 40 kHz
d. 40 Hz
d
Slice thickness artifact can result in:
a. a duplicate copy of a structure placed on the image
b. the appearance of debris in an anechoic structure
c. decreased echogenicity of tissues behind an anechoic structure
d. increased echogenicity of tissues behind an anechoic structure
b
Attenuation increases with:
a. frequency and distance traveled
b. wavelength and propagation speed
c. propagation speed and intenisty
d. tissue compressability and viscosity
a
______ is an increase in the strength of returning echoes caused by interveneing structures of low attenuation.
a. Mirror image
b. shadwoing
c. reverberation
d. enhancement
d
Which of the following techniques uses the highest intensity beams?
a. Power Doppler
b. M mode
c. PW doppler
d. B mode
c
All of the following are used as contrast agents in the US except:
a. agitated iodine bubbles
b. agitated saline bubbles
c. perflurocarbon based contrast
d. gas filled bubbles
a
Which of the following is a violation of HIPAA policies?
a. discussing exam results with the patient
b. posting patient symptoms and demographics with an anonymous ultrasound image on social media
c. discussing exam results with the patients physician
d. sharing na anymyized image for an exam with your Sonograpy class
b
Tissue Doppler Imaging or TDI uses a low-pass filter instead of a high-pass filter to eliminate the signal from the blood to show color information when evaluating myocardial wall motion because:
a. myocardium produces a high-amplitude, low velocity signal
b. myocardium produces a low-amplitude, low velocity signal
c. myocardium produces a high-amplitude, high velocity signal
d. myocardium produces a low-amplitude, high velocity signal
a
If you are using a pulsed wave Doppler with a PRF of 3500 Hz, at what point will aliasing start to occur
a. 3.5 MHz
b. 3500 Hz
c. 1750 Hx
d. 7000 Hz
c
A transducer transmits a 4 MHz pulse into the body. The returning pulse is reflected back to the transducer at a frequency of 3.988 MHz. The returning pulse will be displayed where on the spectral Doppler image?
a. high above the baseline
b. above but near the baseline
c. below the baseline
d. there’s no way to tell
c
Low resistance flow demonstrates _______ diastolic flow.
increased
caused by sampling close to a very reflective structure and by using a Doppler angle near 90 degrees
mirror image artifact
How do you adjust your technique to reduce or eliminate cross talk on a Doppler tracing?
a. increase the PRF
b. use the same approach and incident angle but use a CW non-imaging probe
c. use a smaller sample size
d. turn down the Doppler gain
d
_______ the wall filter and rejections settings will increase the amount of low level Doppler shifts displayed on the tracing.
Decreasing
Venous flow is ____ velocity and demonstrates low level Doppler shifts.
low
In order to assess low velocity flow, which of the following operator adjustments should be made>
a. decrease wall filter and compression
b. increase scale setting
c. decrease compression
d. decrease the rejection and wall filter setting
d
The _______ displayed is due to motion of tissues surrounding the actual areas of flow.
color flash artifact/clutter
________, ________, and ______ are used to calculate the Doppler shift.
transducer frequency
speed of sound in soft tissue
cosine of the Doppler angle
Which of the following is a variable necessary to quantify the Doppler shift?
a. sine of the Doppler angle
b. transducer frequency
c. speed of sound in blood
d. all of the above are necessary for calculation of the Doppler shift
b
occurs with slow moving blood flow and the reflections from the slow moving red blood cells
Rouleax formation
Which of the following is related to the appearance of Rouleax formation on the image?
a. refraction
b. slow moving blood flow
c. laminar flow
d. specular reflection
b
The velocities used to calculate the RI are measured by placing the cursor at the true _________ and the ________.
peak systolic velocity
end diastolic velocity
occurs when you detect two separate flow patterns on the same tracing
beam width artifact
determine how much of the previous image data is carried over into the current image frame
persistence
increasing this settings makes the live image appear smoother and with improved color display
persistence
Color Doppler demonstrates the _________ velocity.
mean flow velocity
Which of the following is displayed with spectral Doppler, but not with Color Doppler?
a. aliasing
b. average flow velocity
c. flow direction
d. peak flow velocity
d
detecting Doppler shift at a specific depth
range resolution
_____ Doppler cannot provide range resolution
CW
Which statement regarding the differences between pulsed and continuous wave Doppler is correct?
a. CW Doppler requires one PE crystal, while PW Doppler uses two crystals
b. CW Doppler is limited in detection of a Doppler shift by the PRF of the system, but PW Doppler is not
c. CW Doppler tracings do not display a spectral window with any flow type
d. CW Doppler offers significantly improved range resolution
c
You are evaluating an obese patient with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm. While using color Doppler to assess flow within the aortic aneurysm, minimal flow is detected in the anechoic lumen. You decrease the color scale and increase the color gain but there is no improvement. Which of the following adjustments will improve the color display on this exam?
a. increase the color threshold
b. increase color sample size
c. decrease the color threshold
d. switch from a 4MHz curved array to a 4MHz linear array
a
Increasing the threshold would ______ the amount of color displaying in a slow flowing vessel.
increase
determines the limit of where color will be displayed on the 2D image
color threshold
the process performed to produce color Doppler information
autocorrelation
used to produce the spectral Doppler tracings
fast fourier transformer
used to determine the direction of blood flow
quadrature phase detection
The direction of the Doppler shift determines:
a. the peak velocity of the flow
b. the color Doppler hue
c. the average velocity of the flow
d. the color Doppler luminance
b
If the transmitted frequency is 5 MHz and the reflected frequency is 4.9975, how will the Doppler shift be displayed?
a. with a peak velocity of 25 m/s
b. on top of the baseline
c. unable to determine without a second relative Doppler shift for comparison
d. under the baseline
d
When the returned frequency is lower than the transmitted frequency, the flow is moving ______ the transdcuer
away from
When the returned frequency is higher than the transmitted frequency, the flow is moving _____ the transducer
higher
Acceleration time decreases as resistance _______
increases
The _____ the angle between the beam and the flow movement, the greater the error in the velocity calculation
larger
Anemia will ______ blood flow velocities detected on Doppler evaluation.
a. decrease
b. have no effect on venous
c. have no effect on arterial
d. increase
d
Which of the following will increase spectral broadening on the image?
a. increased PRF
b. increase sample volume size
c. increased wall filter
d. more laminar flow
b
occurs when there are many different flow velocities present in the sample
spectral broadening
The Doppler tracing of the flow in a vessel 1 cm distal to a stenosis will demonstrate ____ than at the stenosis.
a. greater resistance
b. more laminar flow
c. greater bandwidth
d. greater Doppler shift
c
Overgaining on an US exam can cause________
a. increased posterior shadowing
b. blood to appear anechoic
c. underestimation of arterial stenosis
d. overestimation of Doppler velocity
d
When resistance in the distal vascular bed decreases, what happens to the resistive index (RI)?
a. no change unless collateral vessels present
b. increases
c. decreases
d. no change
c
When resistance in the distal vascular bed decreases, the diastolic flow velocity ______
increases
Which of the following Doppler measurements requires the waveform to be traced from start of systole to the end of diastole?
a. resistive index
b. pulsatility index
c. S/D ratio
d. acceleration time
b
While scanning the carotid artery, you obtain a Doppler tracing and obtain the peak velocity. Before recording the image, you decrease the cursor angle from the last sample taken and record the new image. How will this change affect the peak velocity displayed from the new sample?
a. no change
b. increase
c. no change unless stenosis is present
d. decrease
d
Decreasing the cosine angle = ________ cosine value
increased
increased cosine value = _______ calculated velocity
decreased
Which of the following is a limitation of power Doppler?
a. has slower frame rates than color Doppler
b. only detects flow moving toward the probe
c. inability to display flow velocities less than 10 cm/s
d. inability to display flow velocities greater than 150 cm/s
a
Venous blood flow in the legs is propelled toward the heart by:
a. muscle contraction and respiration
b. cardiac pulsatility only
c. cardiac pulsatility, muscle contraction and respiration
d. respiration only
a
If the peak pressure gradient in a vessel is 36 mmHg, what is the velocity of the flow?
a. 1 cm/s
b. 3 m/s
c. 2 cm/s
d. 4 cm/s
b
used to calculate the peak pressure gradient
Bernoulli equation
The variance map uses the green and yellow colors to indicate _(______
turbulence
The _______ of the reflection on the Doppler tracing represents the number of red blood cells moving at each velocity displayed. It is directly related to the signal strength
brightness
In Doppler imaging, ________ is described as the time from pulse transmission to the time of the Doppler sample detecting the first shift
pulse repetition period
increased imaging depth = _______ PRPq
increased
The most accurate velocity is obtained with a ___ degree angle between the beam and the flow.
0
When evaluating a suspected arterial stenosis, a Doppler angle of ______ degrees will produce the most accurate flow velocity
a. 0
b. 30
c. 60
d. 90
a
_______ transducer frequency will improve color Doppler sensitivity and display on the image/
increases
Which of the following will increase the display of Color Doppler information on the image of a superficial mass?
a. decreased threshold
b. increased rejection
c. increased probe frequency
d. decreased sensitivity
c
perceived color used to demonstrate direction
color hue
brightness of the color displayed
luminance
The magnitude of the Doppler shift in color Doppler determines:
a. the color threshold
b. the color hue
c. the peak velocity of the flow displayed as color
d. the color luminance
d
Which of the following correctly describes a variance color map?
a. variance and velocity maps are easily differentiated when evaluating normal and abnormal flow velocities
b. flow that demonstrates a Reynolds number greater than 2000 on color Doppler will most likely be displayed as a green color with the variance map
c. variance color maps are only used in cardiac imaging
d. the variance map replaces the blue color used in the velocity map and normal flow is displayed as a bright green color
b
a dimensionless number expressing the balance of interial and viscous forces acting on the blood flowing
Reynolds number
measures energy variance and does not use the frequency shift to produce the display
Power Doppler
Which of the following correctly describes Power Doppler?
a. allows evaluation of approximate flow velocity
b. color display is not angle dependent
c. color is assigned based on the size of red blood cells moving in a location
d. much more sensitive to higher flow velocities than color Doppler
b
Persistence is also known as:
temporal compounding
used to improve signal to noise ratio on the image
persistence
With normal circulation, inspiration:
a. increases the arterial recoil during ventricular systole
b. should have no effect on venous blood flow patterns
c. decreases the venous return to the heart from the upper body
d. increases the venous return to the heart from the upper body
d
While scanning the carotid artery, you obtain a Doppler tracing. Before recording the image, you increase the cursor angle from the last sample taken and record the new image. How will this change affect the calculated velocity in the new sample?
a. no change unless stenosis is present
b. no change
c. decrease
d. increase
d
When the color scale is increased, what other setting automatically increases along with it?
a. wall filter
b. Doppler gain
c. persistence
d. color threshold
a
The size of the pulse packet indicates:
the number of ultrasound pulses per scan line
Increasing the number of pulses in a packet will _______ sensitivity
increase
Increasing the number of pulses in a packet will:
a. increase frame time
b. increase frame rate
c. increase color priority
d. decrease color sensitivity
a
Which of the following parameters is displayed on the y-axis on a Doppler tracing?
a. speed
b. motion
c. frequency shift
d. time
c
PSV - EDV/PSV
resistive index
If there is no diastolic flow demonstrated on a Doppler tracing, what will the resistive index be?
a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. unable to calculate the RI, not enough information given
d. 0
b
In order to obtain an accurate blood flow velocity calculation, the ______ must be known.
a. wall filter setting
b. angle between the vessel wall and the sound beam
c. angle between the flow and the sound beam
d. pulse repetition frequency
c
______ is the mathematical process used to perform spectral analysis for a Doppler system.
a. fast fourier transformer
b. autocorrelation
c. scan conversion
d. quadrature phase detection
a
_______ the sweep speed will decrease the amount of Doppler information displayed over a shorter time.
increasing
Increasing the _____ will aid in the ability to properly trace the contour of the Doppler waveform.
a. velocity scale
b. sweep speed
c. wall filter
d. baseline
b
Pressure is ______ at the stenotic site which causes an increased pressure gradient from proximal to the stenosis to the stenosis site.
lowest
According to the Bernoulli principle, where will you find the lowest pressure in a vessel with stenosis?
a. proximal to the stenosis
b. distal to the stenosis
c. at the site of the stenosis
d. in the collateral vessels
c
Increased frame rate will ________ temporal resolution.
improve
Which of the following will lead to more color displayed in real time in the abdominal aorta?
a. decrease color threshold
b. increase frame rate
c. increase sample size
d. decrease color gain
b
If the speed of sound in tissue increases, the Doppler Shift _______
decreases
What system control can reduce the appearance of clutter on a color Doppler image?
a. decreasing color priority
b. decreasing color scale
c. increasing persistence
d. increasing color threshold
a
