Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PENNY BOOK > URR ABD EXAM > Flashcards

URR ABD EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

Hematuria is defined as

A. the presence of urea in blood
B. The presence of white blood cells in urine
C. the presence of red blood cells in urine
D. the presence of red blood cells in blood

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of hepatic abscess causes a fever and leukopenia

A. amebic
B. pyogenic
C. echinococcal
D. fungal

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following statements regarding insulinomas is true

A. patients are usually hypoglycemic
B. most patients require an insulin pump to counteract the effects of the tumor on the serum glucose levels
C. Commonly associated with a peptic ulcer
D. They commonly occur in the head of the pancreas

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following sonographic characteristics is an expected finding in a patient with acute renal vein thrombosis

A. increased diastolic flow in the renal arteries
B. enlarged kidney with mottled echogenicity
C. high velocity, continuous venous flow within the kidney
D. prominent corticomedullary definition

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

While scanning the urinary bladder using color doppler, the left urinary jet is detected but is partially obstructed by a thin membrane that balloons into the bladder lumen. What is the finding displayed

A. uretreocele
B. PUV
C. urethrocele
D. UPJ obstruction

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding rectus sheath hematomas

A. linea alba stops the blood from spreading into the pelvis
B. arcuate line stops the blood from extending across the midline
C. an acute hematoma will appear hypreechoic compared to surrounding tissues
D. coumadin therapy is a common cause for hematoma formation

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 3cm hypoechoic mass is identified in the right testicle. The radiologist requests that you perform an abdominal US. What are you looking for

A. periaortic lymphadenopathy
B. other manifestations of MENS syndrome
C. associated crohn disease
D. renal vein tumor invasion

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a medication that can be used to treat patients with hypothyroidism

A. iron supplements
B. iodine supplements
C. levothyroxine
D. coumadin

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A 65 year old female presents for a neck ultrasound with a script that states hypophosphatemia and hypercalcemia. What do you expect to find on the exam

A. atrophied thyroid gland
B. papillary thyroid cancer
C. medullary thyroid cancer
D. enlarged parathyroid glands

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of aneurysm is most commonly associated with autosomal dominant polycystic kidneys disease

A. pseudoaneurysm
B. fusiform
C. saccular
D. berry

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following biliary abnormalities would be an acute complication caused by a bacterial infection of the gallbladder

A. strawberry gb
B. emphysematous cholecystitis
C. adenomyomatosis
D. porcelain gb

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A 35 yr old male patient presents for a RUQ ultrasound due to pain, increased alkaline phosphatase and conjugated bilirubin. You identify dilated intrahepatic ducts in both lobes of the liver, while the CBD and gallbladder appear within normal limits. Which of the following describes the cause for these findings

A. biliary atresia
B. stone in the common hepatic duct
C. stone on the left hepatic duct
D. stone in the right hepatic duct

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An average sized patient presents with a fever, acute RLQ pain and vomiting. The ER physician wants to rule out appendicitis in this patient. Which transducer would best be suited for the exam

A. 3MHz curvilinear
B. 5MHz linear
C. 5MHz curvilinear
D. 12MHz linear

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following structures can be used as an acoustic window when evaluating the pediatric mediastinum

A. thymus
B. thyroid
C. diaphragm
D. lung pleura

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is normally identified in the urine

A. minimal amount of red blood cells
B. creatinine
C. protein
D. glucose

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following renal disorders is usually detected in utero due to oligohydramnios

A. multicystic dysplastic kidney disease
B. horseshoe kidney
C. duplicated collecting system
D. ARPKD

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A portal vein diameter that is greater than or equal _____ indicated portal HTN

A. 8mm
B. 10mm
C. 13mm
D. 15mm

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

While scanning the LUQ you identify multiple dilated vessels at the hilum of the spleen. Which of the following describes the best way to identify a cause for the finding

A. check the splenic artery for stenosis
B. evaluate the porta hepatis for choledocholithiasis
C. evaluate the liver vasculature for signs of HTN
D. check the aorta for an aneurysm

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The normal thyroid gland is considered normal in size if the

A. width measurement is <3cm
B. volume is <30mL
C. AP measurement is <2cm
D. length measurement is <4cm

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following would be used to describe the normal sonographic appearance of the spleen

A. prominent internal vascularity
B. mottled appearance
C. heterogeneous echotexture
D. lobulated borders

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The left CCA is a branch of which artery

A. left subclavian artery
B. left vertebral artery
C. aortic arch
D. left innominate artery

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sjogren syndrome is an immune system disorder that commonly affects

A. the salivary glands
B. thyroid
C. bile ducts
D. adrenal glands

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The _____ separates the caudate lobe from the left lobe of the liver

A. ligamentum venosum
B. main lobar fissure
C. falciform ligament
D. ligamentum teres

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

All of the following are reasons for a patient to be NPO prior to an abdominal ultrasound, except

A. decrease gas in GI tract
B. decrease blood sugar for better pancreas visualization
C. allow gallbladder to fill with bile for better visualization
D. decrease peristalsis in GI tract

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Loculated ascites with echogenic debris and matted bowel loops are most suggestive of

A. budd chiari syndrome
B. congestive heart failure
C. peritoneal metastasis
D. portal hypertension

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following describes how to differentiate adenomyomatosis of the gallbladder from cholesterolosis of the gallbladder

A. adenomyomatosis is usually a diffuse process and cholesterolosis is a focal process
B. adenomyomatosis is usually focal process and cholesterolosis is a diffuse process
C. the polyps in adenomyomatosis do not exhibit the comet tail artifact by polyps with cholesterolosis do demonstrate the artifact
D. the polyps in cholesterolosis do not exhibit the comet tail artifact but polyps with adenomyomatosis do demonstrate the artifact

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is the doppler cursor placed in the aorta to obtain the velocity used in the renal aortic ratio

A. at the level of the renal artery origins
B. at the location of the highest recorded velocity
C. cm above the aortic bifurcation
D. just below the diaphragm

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A patient presents with new onset of jaundice 2 weeks after a liver transplant. This clinical finding is most suggestive of what complication

A. hepatic vein stenosis
B. portal vein stenosis
C. biliary stricture
D. hepatic artery stenosis

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

All of the following are clinical signs of congenital hip dysplasia, except

A. asymmetric skin folds of the hip and thigh
B. palpable clunking sound on physical exam
C. barlow sign
D. allis sign

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Increased thyroid volume is associated with

A. chronic hepatitis
B. thyroxine treatment
C. chronic renal failure
D. radioactive iodine treatment

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The splenic vein is located

A. posterior to the SMA
B. posterior to the portal vein
C. anterior to the pancreas
D. anterior to SMA

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What lab test is used to evaluate the exocrine function of a pancreas transplant

A. glucose levels
B. amylase levels
C. GFR
D. hematocrit levels

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A patient presents with congenital absence of the spleen, this condition is called

A. hamartoma
B. splenomegaly
C. asplenia
D. accessory spleen

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A 75 yr old female presents with RUQ pain. She was diagnosed with cirrhosis 4 years ago. Lab values demonstrate increased levels of AFP, ALP, AST and ALT. The US exam demonstrates a heterogeneous liver texture that is decresaed in size. The left lobe contains a new round hypoechoic mass with increased vascularity. These findings are most suggestive of

A. focal nodular hyperplasia
B. hepatocellular carcinoma
C. hydatid cyst
D. metastatic lesion

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A 4 yr old presents for a renal ultrasound with a suspected mass on the lateral aspect of the left kidney seen on a KUB x ray. The ultrasound reveals a focal outward thickening of the normal renal cortex near the mid pole of the kidney. Which of the following best describes the finding

A. duplicated collecting system
B. column of bertin
C. wilms tumor
D. dromedary hump

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The ______ region is defined by the orifices of the two ureters and the urethral outlet

A. dome
B. trigone
C. fundus
D. base

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

You are performing a renal doppler exam. What is the best patient position to visualize the full length of the left renal artery

A. supine, ipsilateral arm above head
B. supine, contralateral arm above head
C. LLD
D. RLD

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The _______ zone is the largest zone in the prostate

A. central
B. paraprostatic
C. transitional
D. peripheral

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If the entire image is too bright, what console adjustments should you make first

A. adjust the near field TGC
B. decrease the overall gain
C. adjust the far field TGC
D. decrease the output power

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A patient arrives with an order that reads R/O fliud in Morison pouch. Where do you need to scan to answer this question

A. all 4 quadrants
B. between the liver and right kidney
C. porta hepatis and GB fossa
D. splenic hilum

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following can lead to a false positive diagnosis of stones in the biliary system

A. decreased color doppler gain
B. improperly decreased TGC settings
C. rejection setting too high
D. shadowing from surgical clip in porta hepatis

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A patient presents for an abdominal ultrasound for pain. The chart holds a recent x ray report that states there is a possible porcelain gb present. How will this abnormality appear on the ultrasound exam

A. the gb wall will demonstrate varied levels of linear calcification
B. the gb will be hydropic with a thickened wall and an increased risk of rupture
C. there is a single large stone present with a thickened gb wall
D. the gb will be completely packed full of small stones

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Serpiginous vessels are identified on the examinations of patients with

A. situs inversus and organ agenesis
B. renal artery and mesenteric artery stenosis
C. portal HTN or testicular varicoceles
D. renal or liver transplants

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The diameter of the ______ will be relatively unaffected by hepatic congestion

A. left hepatic vein
B. right hepatic vein
C. main portal vein
D. hepatic artery

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A 55 yr old male patient presents with a script that states pelvic ultrasound; post biopsy, gleason score of 8. What should you expect to find on the exam

A. lymphadenopathy and metastasis related to prostate cancer
B. inguinal hernia caused by recent bladder wall biopsy
C. bladder puncture caused by recent biopsy of the seminal vesicle
D. lymphadenopathy and metastasis related to TC bladder cancer

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What causes pseudopancreatitis

A. fatty liver
B. polycystic liver disease
C. hepatitis
D. cholecysitis

A

A

47
Q

A 6 month old female is referred for an abdominal ultrasound due to susected kasabach-merritt syndrome. What are you looking for on the exam

A. pancreatic divisum
B. absence of the biliary tree
C. liver or spleen hemangioma formation
D. ascited, pleural effusion and abscess formation in the abdominal wall

A

C

48
Q

You identify free fluid above the right diaphragm that contains internal debris and septations. The fluid collection has a honeycomb appearance. These findings are most suggestive of

A. transudative plueral effusion
B. pneumothorax
C. hemothorax
D. exudative pleural effusion

A

D

49
Q

Purple stretch marks (striae) on the lateral and lower abdomen can be a clinical sign of

A. addison disease
B. conn disease
C. adrenal hemorrhage
D. cushing syndrome

A

D

50
Q

Which of the following abnormalities is commonly associated with painless hematuria

A. ureteral calculi
B. tuberous sclerosis
C. ureteroccele
D. transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder

A

D

51
Q

In a patient with cirrhosis, the _____ lobe of the liver can enlarge to nearly half the size of the right lobe

A. left
B. caudate
C. quadrate
D. none of the above, the entire liver shrinks in size with cirrhosis

A

B

52
Q

_______ is one of the most common surgical procedure in the US and most patients are males, less than 1 yr old

A. herniorrhaphy
B. appendectomy
C. cholecystectomy
D. nephrectomy

A

A

53
Q

B-color can be helpful in the evaluation of

A. subtle differences in tissues
B. anechoic fluid/cysts
C. low velocity blood flow
D. high velocity blood flow

A

A

54
Q

The most common cause of acute scortal pain in postpubertal men is

A. hydrocele
B. torsion
C. acute epididymitis
D. orchitis

A

C

55
Q

A patient tells you that they have undergone the whipple procedure. What did they have done

A. thyroidectomy
B. liver resection
C. partial removal of the pancreas
D. renal transplant

A

C

56
Q

When evaluating a suspected testicular varicocele, what patient position will better demonstrate the abnormality

A. decubitus right
B. supine
C. standing
D. decubitus left

A

C

57
Q

Which of the following is required when performing liver elastography

A. patient should perform a neutral breath hold for a few seconds when recording measurements
B. the region of interest box should be placed on the liver tissue within 2cm of the skin surface
C. the region of interest box should be placed on the liver tissue within 2cm of the diaphragm
D. patient should perform the valsalva maneuver for a few seconds when recording measurements

A

A

58
Q

A small, hypoechoic testicular mass with a large calcification in a patient with gynecomastia is most likely a

A. seminoma
B. sertoli cell tumor
C. lymphoma
D. embryonal cell carcinoma

A

B

59
Q

This vessel arises from the anterior aorta and courses inferiorly, parallel to the aorta

A. splenic artery
B. superior mesenteric vein
C. common hepatic artery
D. superior mesenteric artery

A

D

60
Q

A patient presents for a RUQ ultrasound due to a positive casoni skin test. What are you looking for on the exam

A. metastasis in the liver
B. schistosomiasis
C. hydatid cyst
D. cirrhosis

A

C

61
Q

A patient with choledochal cysts has an increased risk of developing

A. polycystic liver disease
B. portal HTN
C. biliary atresia
D. cholangiocarcinoma

A

D

62
Q

If an abdominal aortic aneurysm is identified, what two other vessels should be evaluated for associated aneurysm formation

A. inferior and superior vena cava
B. common femoral and popliteal arteries
C. celiac axis and superior mesenteric aneurysm
D. bilateral renal arteries

A

B

63
Q

Which blood vessel is located lateral to the right lobe of the thyroid and demonstrates an anechoic circular shape in a transverse view of the mid thyroid

A. superior vena cava
B. right internal jugular vein
C. right common carotid artery
D. left common carotid artery

A

C

64
Q

What is the twinkle artifact

A. describes the color display seen as urine is entering the bladder during real time imaging
B. varied brightness of vascular calcifications causes a twinkling effect on 2D
C. mosaic color pattern displayed in a linear pattern posterior to a dense object, such as a renal stone
D. thin line of reverberation artifact that is caused by calcium deposits in the renal parenchyma

A

C

65
Q

Cirrhosis causes reduced serum albumin levels. What complication does this cause

A. increased ammonia production
B. recanalization of the umbilical vein
C. ascites and peripheral edema
D. jaundice

A

C

66
Q

sulfur colliod imaging is

A. a type of contrast used in CT imaging
B. a type of contrast used in MR imaging
C. used to evaluate suspected focal nodular hyperplasia
D. used to evaluate autosomal polycystic liver disease

A

C

67
Q

The SMA is identified to the right of the SMV in a patient with acute abdomen symptoms. What should you suspect

A. normal anatomy
B. intussusception
C. midgut malrotation
D. pyloric stenosis

A

C

68
Q

If gallstone impaction is suspected

A. ask the patient to stand during the exam and perform the valsalva maneuver to attempt to move the stone
B. scan the patient in multiple positions to attempt to move the stone
C. place the patient in the LLD position and tap the patient’s back between the scapulas with the base of your wrist to attempt to move the stone
D. place the patient in the LLD position and ask the patient to perfrm the valsalva maneuver to attempt to move the stone

A

B

69
Q

All of the following can cause artifactual debris within a simple cyst except

A. improper gain settings
B. superficial location of the cyst
C. increased rejection settings
D. small size of the cyst

A

C

70
Q

A non infectious cause of acalculous cholecystitis is _________ and an infection cause of acalculous cholecystitis is ________

A. viscous bile, mirizzi syndrome
B. human immunodeficiency virus, viscous bile
C. congestive heart failure, total parenteral nutrition
D. total parenteral nutrition, human immunodeficiency virus

A

D

71
Q

Hutch diverticula are identified in the

A. large bowel
B. small bowel
C. gallbladder
D. urinary bladder

A

D

72
Q

A patient presents with moderate RLQ pain and a low grade fever. An US exam of the area demonstrates a 7mm thick aperistaltic tube that is noncompressible. Which of the following best describes the findings

A. varicocele
B. crohn disease
C. intussusception
D. appendicitis

A

D

73
Q

Which testicular tumor is composed of bone, cartilage and smooth muscle fibers

A. choriocarcinoma
B. seminoma
C. teratoma
D. yolk sac tumor

A

C

74
Q

In patients with cirrhosis, what effect will deep inspiration have on the portal vein

A. there will be minimal change in the portal vein diameter
B. the portal vein diameter will increase by 50%
C. the portal vein diameter will double in size
D. the portal vein will collapse at the deepest point of inspiration

A

A

75
Q

Branches of which of the following vessels supply the pancreas with blood

A. SMA and right gastric artery
B. proper hepatic artery and SMA
C. gastroduodenal artery and proper hepatic artery
D. SMA and gastroduodenal artery

A

D

76
Q

Increased hematocrit levels are associated with which of the following

A. esophageal varices
B. hemorrhagic cyst of the liver
C. dehydration
D. sickle cell anemia

A

C

77
Q

A 65 yr old male patient presents with bilateral scrotal swelling and mild pain. The US exam demonstrates bilateral hypoechoic, solid masses within the testicular parenchyma. Which of the following is most likely diagnosis for the findings

A. lymphoma
B. choriocarcinoma
C. bilateral orchitis
D. bilateral seminoma

A

A

78
Q

Measurements of the bladder wall thickness should normally be no more than _____ when fully distended and no more than _____ when nearly empty

A. 3mm, 5mm
B. 5mm, 3mm
C. 5mm, 8mm
D. 0.5cm, 1.0cm

A

A

79
Q

What abnormality causes focal developmental lesions of the liver and is associated with congenital hepatic fibrosis, autosomal dominant polycystic disease and cholangiocarcinoma

A. biliary hamartomas
B. wilson disease
C. candidiasis
D. schistosomiasis

A

A

80
Q

What causes symptoms in a patient with carpal tunnel syndrome

A. impingement of the median nerve
B. impingement of the ulnar nerve
C. impingement of the radial nerve
D. impingement of the palmar arch

A

A

81
Q

Alcoholic cirrhosis demonstrates a severe increase in ______, while viral hepatitis demonstrates a severe increase in _______

A. AFP, alkaline phosphatase
B. alanine transaminase, aspartate transaaminase
C. aspartate transaminase, alanine transaminase
D. alkaline phosphatase, AFP

A

C

82
Q

What causes the hepatic vein flow to have a triphasic waveform

A. right atrial contraction and relaxation
B. portal HTN
C. hepatic congestion
D. left atrial contraction and relaxation

A

A

83
Q

Adrenal hemorrhage is most commonly seen in

A. newborns
B. juvenile patients with chromosomal defects
C. adults over 50 yrs
D. adults over 70 yrs

A

A

84
Q

The _____ zone is the prostate zone most commonly affected by BPH

A. transitional
B. paraprostatic
C. central
D. peripheral

A

A

85
Q

The _______ is a connective sheath that is connected to the large intestine that provides structure and support, along with encasing/protecting blood vessels

A. lesser omentum
B. mesentery
C. mesocolon
D. greater omentum

A

C

86
Q

A patient presents with a history of gaucher disease. What do you expect to see on the abdominal ultrasound exam

A. significant atherosclerosis in the aorta
B. numerous cysts within the mesentery
C. bilateral atrophied kidneys with increased echogenicity
D. massive splenomegaly

A

D

87
Q

The achilles’ tendon is normally less than ______ in diameter

A. 13mm
B. 4mm
C. 10mm
D. 7mm

A

D

88
Q

A patient presents for a 2 month follow up for liver transplant. Lab tests indicate abnormal LFTs, increased bilirubin and jaundice. The US exam demonstrates a new focal dilatation of the bile duct at the porta hepatis with mildly dilated intrahepatic ducts just inside the liver. The pancreas is normal. These findings are most consistent with

A. mass in the ampulla of vater
B. budd chiari syndrome
C. choledochal cyst
D. biliary stricture

A

D

89
Q

A patient presents for a renal ultrasound de to a history of tuberous sclerosis. What is the doctor looking for

A. renal failure
B. renal artery stenosis
C. hydronephrosis
D. angiomyolipomas

A

D

90
Q

The complications caused by a large gallstone in the duodenum obstructing the gastric outlet are collectively referred to as

A. bouveret syndrome
B. courvoisier syndrome
C. mirizzi syndrome
D. marfan syndrome

A

A

91
Q

A patient presents with a history of RUQ pain. He currently uses anabolic steriods. The exam demonstrates multiple irregular anechoic areas throughout the liver parenchyma. No internal flow is documented in these areas on color doppler evaluation. These findings are most suggestive of

A. hepatocellular carcinoma
B. peliosis hepatis
C. metastatic disease from colon primary
D. budd chiari syndrome

A

B

92
Q

Which of the following describes the proper technique for visualization of the bicep tendon

A. oblique probe position with the notch turned 60 degrees medially, placed on the anterior upper arm, just proximal to the elbow joint
B. scanning with the us beam as perpendicular to the tendon as possible to improve visualization
C. longitudinal probe position on the posterior upper arm, just proximal to the elbow joint
D. oblique probe position with the notch turned 30 degrees medially, placed on the posterior upper arm, just proximal to the elbow joint

A

B

93
Q

Which of the following statements describes the appearance of a testicular prosthetic on the US image

A. round structure with reflective borders and an anechoic lumen
B. solid, oblong structure with homogenous, hypoechoic texture compared to the native teste
C. homogenous, hypoechoic structure with sound attenuation posteriorly causing decreased visibility of the posterior borders of the prosthesis
D. solid, round structure with homogenous, hypoechoic texture compared to the native teste

A

A

94
Q

Obstruction of the CBD by a pancreatic head mass will lead to

A. contracted, small gb with dilated biliary tree
B. dilated gb and biliary tree
C. contracted, small gb with normal biliary tree
D. all of the above are potential findings

A

B

95
Q

The SMV

A. joins the SV posterior to the neck of the pancreas
B. joins the SV anterior to the neck of the pancreas
C. joins the portal vein to form the SV
D. lies to the left of the SMA

A

A

96
Q

Acetic acid injection, ethanol injection, and radiofrequency ablation are techniques used to treat

A. hepatocellular carcinoma
B. varicosities
C. polycystic liver disease
D. portal hypertension

A

A

97
Q

Which lobe of the liver receives blood from the left and right portal veins

A. posterior right lobe
B. caudate lobe
C. medial left lobe
D. anterior right lobe

A

B

98
Q

A patient presents for an abdominal US to further evaluate findings identified on a CT exam. The CT report indicates numerous cystic structures throughout the liver that communicate with the biliary tree. Which of the following could be used to describe the expected US diagnosis

A. polycystic liver disease
B. caroli disease or choledochal cysts
C. choledochal cysts or polycystic liver disease
D. wilson disease

A

B

99
Q

Plcaement of a linton or warren shunt is a method used to

A. reduce portal hypertension
B. streamline blood flow through a large aortic aneurysm
C. reroute blood flow around a large aortic aneurysm
D. relieve significant hydronephrosis

A

A

100
Q

What effect does polycythemia vera have on the sonographic appearance of the spleen

A. diffuse increase in echogenicity and hypervascularity
B. marked splenomegaly with normal echogenicity
C. multiple echogenic foci in an atrophied spleen
D. multiple hypoechoic masses less than 2cm in diameter

A

B

101
Q

Splenic vein thrombosis is a common finding in patients with

A. splenic hemangioma
B. chronic pancreatitis
C. splenic infarct
D. pancreatic divisum

A

B

102
Q

A liver ultrasound demonstrates a hyperechoic mass with smooth borders and posterior enhancement in the posterior right lobe. These findings are suggestive of

A. hepatic adenoma
B. cavernous hemangioma
C. hepatocellular carcinoma
D. focal fatty sparing

A

B

103
Q

Which of the following holds the psoas muscle

A. perirenal spaace
B. retrofascial space
C. anterior pararental space
D. none of the above

A

B

104
Q

The caudate lobe occupies much of the _____ surface of the liver

A. posterior inferior
B. posterior superior
C. anterior superior
D. anterior inferior

A

B

105
Q

When performing contrast enhanced ultrasound evaluation of the liver, when it the timer started for the procedure

A. when the contrast is first visualized in the areas of interest
B. at the start of the contrast injection
C. after the saline flush
D. at the start of the saline flush

A

D

106
Q

A small rounded prominence on the anteroinferior aspect of the normal caudate lobe is called

A. quadrate lobe
B. reidel lobe
C. elongated left lobe
D. distal papillary process

A

D

107
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the location of the right hepatic vein

A. courses inferiorly through the right intersegmental fissure
B. courses superiorly through the right intersegmental fissure
C. courses inferiorly through the falciform ligament
D. courses superiorly through the main lobar fissure

A

B

108
Q

Which two gut layers are normally hypoechoic on the ultrasound image

A. deep mucosa, muscularis propia
B. serosa, superficial mucosa
C. serosa, muscularis propia
D. submucosa, muscularis propia

A

A

109
Q

The renal cortex contains which of the following

A. loops of henle
B. calyces
C. pyramids
D. bowman capsule

A

D

110
Q

The paracolic gutters

A. trap fluid in the pelvic area
B. are divided by the linea alba
C. allow fluid to move between the abdomen and pelvis
D. trap fluid in the lateral abdomen

A

C

111
Q

The ligamentum venosum travels between

A. the main portal vein and the IVC
B. the left portal vein and the IVC
C. the right portal vein and the IVC
D. caudate lobe and the right lobe

A

B

112
Q

The ______ is formed at the junction of the vas deferens and seminal vesicles

A. afferent ducts
B. ejaculatory duct
C. efferent ducts
D. rete testes

A

B

113
Q

Calcitonin is produced by which of the following types of cells

A. parathyroid parafollicular
B. thyroid parafollicular
C. thyroid follicular
D. parathyroid follicular

A

B

PENNY BOOK (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions