Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ENTREGA > Urology > Flashcards

Urology Flashcards

1
Q

What is a cystogram?

A

Contrast study of the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are ureteral stents?

A

Plastic tubes placed via cystoscope into the ureters for stenting, identification, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a cystoscope?

A

Scope placed into the urethra and into the bladder to visualize the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a perc nephrostomy?

A

Catheter placed through the skin into the kidney pelvis to drain urine with distal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a retrograde pyelogram?

A

Dye injected into the ureter up into the kidney, and films taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a RUG?

A

Retrograde UrethroGram
Dye injected into the urethra and films taken.
Rules out urethral injury, usually in trauma patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a Gomco clamp?

A

Clamp used for circumcision.

Protects penis glans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a Bell clapper’s deformity?

A

Condition of congenital absence of gubernaculum attachment to scrotum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Fournier’s gangrene?

A

Extensive tissue necrosis/infection of the perineum in patients with diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a Foley catheter?

A

Straight bladder catheter placed through the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a Coude catheter?

A

Basically, a Foley catheter with hook on the end to get around a large prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a suprapubic catheter?

A

Bladder catheter place through the skin above the pubic symphasis into the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is posthitis?

A

Foreskin infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a hydrocele?

A

Clear fluid in the processus vaginalis membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a communicating hydrocele?

A

Hydrocele that communicates with peritoneal cavity and, thus, gets smaller and larger as fluid drains and then reaccumulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a non-communicating hydrocele?

A

Hydrocele that does not communicate with the peritoneal cavity.
Remains the same size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a varicocele?

A

Abnormal dilation of the pampiniform plexus to the spermatic vein in the spermatic cord.
Described as a “bag of worms”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a spermatocele?

A

Dilatation of epididymis or vas deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is epididymitis?

A

Infection of the epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Prehn’s sign?

A

Elevation of the painful testicle that reduces the pain of epididymitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a TRUS?

A

TransRectal UltraSound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a DRE?

A

Digital Rectal Examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is orchitis?

A

Inflammation/infection of the testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is pseudohermaphroditism?

A

Genetically one sex, partial or complete opposite-sex genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is urgency?

A

Overwhelming sensation to void immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is dysuria?

A

Painful urination (usually burning sensation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is frequency?

A

Urination more frequently than usual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is polyuria?

A

Urination in larger amounts than usual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is nocturia?

A

Awakening to urinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is hesitancy?

A

Delay in urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is pneumaturia?

A

Air passed with urine via the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is pyuria?

A

WBCs in urine (UTI: > 10 WBCs/HPF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

A

Undescended testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is an IVP?

A

IntraVenous Pyelogram:

Dye is injected into the vein, collects in the renal collecting system, and an x-ray is taken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is hematuria?

A

RBCs in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the space of Retzius?

A

Anatomic extraperitoneal space in front of the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is enuresis?

A

Involuntary urination while asleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is incontinence?

A

Involuntary urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a TURP?

A

TransUrethral Resection of the Prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is PVR?

A

PostVoid Residual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is priapism?

A

Prolonged, painful erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

Foreskin held (stuck) in the retracted position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is phimosis?

A

Inability to retract the foreskin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is balanitis?

A

Inflammation/infection of the glans penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is balanoposthitis?

A

Inflammation/infection of the glans and prepuce of the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a UTI?

A

Urinary Tract Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is Peyronie’s disease?

A

Abnormal fibrosis of the penis shaft, resulting in a bend upon erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is BPH?

A

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is epispadias?

A

Abnormal urethral opening on the dorsal surface of the penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is hypospadias?

A

Abnormal urethral opening on the ventral surface of the penis.
May occur in anterior, middle or posterior of penis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is erectile dysfunction?

A

Inability to achieve an erection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is sterility?

A

Inability to reproduce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is an appendix testis?

A

Common redundant testicular tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is VUR?

A

VesicoUreteral Reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the layers of the scrotum?

A

(1) Skin, (2) Dartos fascia, (3) External spermatic fascia, (4) Cremaster muscle, (5) Internal spermatic fascia, (6) Parietal and Visceral layers of tunica vaginalis, (7) Tunica albuginea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of scrotal mass?

A

Cancer, torsion, epididymitis, hydrocele, spermatocele, varicocele, inguinal hernia, testicular appendage, swollen testicle after trauma, non-testicular tumor (e.g. rhabdomyosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma, liposarcoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the causes of hematuria?

A

Bladder cancer, trauma, UTI, cystitis from chemotherapy or radiation, stones, kidney lesion, BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the most common cause of severe gross hematuria without trauma, chemotherapy, or radiation?

A

Bladder cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for bladder outlet obstruction?

A

BPH, stone, foreign body, urethral stricture, urethral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for ureteral obstruction?

A

Stone, tumor, iatrogenic (suture), stricture, gravid uterus, radiation injury, retroperitoneal fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the differential diagnosis for kidney tumor?

A

Renal cell carcinoma, sarcoma, adenoma, angiomyolipoma, hemangiopericytoma, oncocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is renal cell carcinoma?

A

Most common solid renal tumor (90%).

Originates from proximal renal tubular epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the epidemiology of renal cell carcinoma?

A

Primarily a tumor of adults 40-60 years with 3:1 M:F ratio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What percentage of renal cell tumors are bilateral?

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the risk factors for renal cell carcinoma?

A

Male, smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, polycystic kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the symptoms of renal cell carcinoma?

A

Pain, hematuria, weight loss, flank mass, HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the classic triad of renal cell carcinoma?

A
  1. Flank pain
  2. Hematuria
  3. Palpable mass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How are most cases of renal cell carcinoma diagnosed?

A

Found incidentally on an imaging study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What radiologic test are performed for renal cell carcinoma?

A

IVP, Abdominal CT with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is stage I renal cell carcinoma?

A

Tumor < 2.5 cm no nodes, no metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is stage II renal cell carcinoma?

A

Tumor > 2.5 cm limited to kidney, no nodes no metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is stage III renal cell carcinoma?

A

Tumor extends into IVC or main renal vein.

Positive regional lymph nodes but < 2 cm in diameter and no metastases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is stage IV renal cell carcinoma?

A

Distant metastasis or positive lymph node > 2 cm in diameter, or tumor extends past Gerota’s fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the metastatic workup for renal cell carcinoma?

A

CXR, IVP, CT, LFTs, calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the sites of metastases for renal cell carcinoma?

A

Lung, liver, brain, bone.

Tumor thrombus entering renal vein or IVC is not uncommon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the unique route of spread with renal cell carcinoma?

A

Tumor thrombus in IVC lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the treatment of renal cell carcinoma?

A

Radical nephrectomy (excision of the kidney, adrenal gland, including Gerota’s fascia) for stages I-IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What gland is removed with a radical nephrectomy?

A

Adrenal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the unique treatment of metastatic spread of renal cell carcinoma?

A
  1. alpha-interferon

2. LAK cells (lymphokine-activated killer) and IL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is a syndrome of renal cell carcinoma and liver disease?

A

Stauffer’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the concern in an adult with new onset left varicocele?

A

Left renal cell carcinoma (the left gonadal vein drains into the left renal vein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the most common histology in bladder cancer?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma (90%).

Remaining cases are squamous or adenocarcinomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the risk factors for bladder cancer?

A

Smoking, industrial carcinogens (aromatic amines), schistosomiasis, truck drivers, petroleum workers, cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the symptoms of bladder cancer?

A

Hematuria +/- irritative symptoms, frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the classic presentation of bladder cancer?

A

Painless hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What tests are included in the workup for bladder cancer?

A

Urinanalysis and culture, IVP, cystoscopy with cytology and biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is stage 0 bladder cancer?

A

Superficial, carcinoma in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is stage I bladder cancer?

A

Invades subepithelial connective tissue, no positive nodes, no metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is stage II bladder cancer?

A

Invades superficial or deep muscularis propria, no positive nodes, no metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is stage III bladder cancer?

A

Invades perivesical tissues, no positive nodes, no metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is stage IV bladder cancer?

A

Positive nodal spread with distant metastases and/or invades abdominal pelvic wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the treatment of stage 0 bladder cancer?

A

TURB and intravesical chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the treatment of stage I bladder cancer?

A

TURB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the treatment of stage II and III bladder cancer?

A

Radical cystectomy, lymph node dissection, removal of prostate/uterus/ovaries/anterior vaginal wall, and urinary diversion (e.g. ileal conduit) +/- chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the treatment of stage IV bladder cancer?

A

+/- cystectomy and systemic chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the indications for partial cystectomy?

A

Superficial, isolated tumor, apical with 3-cm margin from any orifices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is TURB?

A

TransUrethral Resection of the Bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

If after a TURB the tumor occurs, then what?

A

Repeat TURB and intravesical chemotherapy (mitomycin C) or bacillus Calmette-Guerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is and how does bacillus Calmette-Guerin work?

A

Attenuated TB vaccine.

Thought to work by immune response.

100
Q

What is the incidence of prostate cancer?

A

Most common GU cancer.

Most common carcinoma in men in the US.

101
Q

What is the epidemiology of prostate cancer?

A

Present in 33% of men 70-79 years and 66% of men 80-89 years; more common in African Americans

102
Q

What is the histology of prostate cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma (95%)

103
Q

What are the symptoms of prostate cancer?

A

Often asymptomatic.
Nodule found on routine DRE.
Usually begins in the periphery of the gland and moves centrally, thus obstructive symptoms occur late.

104
Q

What percentage of patients have metastasis of prostate cancer at diagnosis?

105
Q

What are the common sites of metastasis of prostate cancer?

A

Osteoblastic bony lesions, lung, liver, adrenal glands

106
Q

What provides lymphatic drainage of prostate?

A

Obturator and hypogastric nodes

107
Q

What is the significance of Batson’s plexus?

A

Spinal cord venous plexus.

Route of isolated skull/brain metastasis.

108
Q

What are the steps in early detection of prostate cancer?

A
  1. Prostate-specific antigen (most sensitive and specific marker)
  2. DRE
109
Q

When should men get a PSA-level check?

A

Controversial:

  1. All men > 50 years
  2. > 40 years if first-degree family history or African American
110
Q

What percentage of patients with prostate cancer will have an elevated PSA?

111
Q

What is the imaging test for prostate cancer?

112
Q

How is the diagnosis of prostate cancer made?

A

Transrectal biopsy

113
Q

What is the Gleason score?

A

Histologic grades 2-10:
Low score: well-differentiated
High score: poorly-differentiated

114
Q

What are the indications for transrectal biopsy with normal DRE?

A

PSA > 10 or abnormal TRUS

115
Q

What is stage I prostate cancer?

A

Tumor involves < 50% of 1 lobe, no nodes, no metastases, PSA < 10, Gleason < 7

116
Q

What is stage II prostate cancer?

A

Tumor within prostate, lobe < 50% but PSA > 10, or Gleason > 6, or > 50% of 1 lobe, no nodes, no metastases

117
Q

What is stage III prostate cancer?

A

Tumor through prostate capsule or into seminal vesicles, no nodes, no metastases

118
Q

What is stage IV prostate cancer?

A

Tumor extends into adjacent structures (other than seminal vesicles) or positive nodes or positive metastases

119
Q

What does radical prostatectomy remove?

A
  1. Prostate gland
  2. Seminal vesicles
  3. Ampullae of the vasa deferentia
120
Q

What is androgen ablation therapy?

A
  1. Bilateral ochiectomy or

2. LHRH agonists

121
Q

How do LHRH agonists work?

A

Decrease LH release from pituitary, which then decreases testosterone production in the testes

122
Q

What is the treatment for stage I prostate cancer?

A

Radical prostatectomy

123
Q

What is the treatment for stage II prostate cancer?

A

Radical prostatectomy +/- lymph node dissection

124
Q

What is the treatment for stage III prostate cancer?

A

Radiation therapy +/- androgen ablation

125
Q

What is the treatment for stage IV prostate cancer?

A

Androgen ablation, radiation therapy

126
Q

What is the medical treatment for systemic metastatic disease from prostate cancer?

A

Androgen ablation

127
Q

What is the option for treatment in the early stage prostate cancer patient > 70 years with comorbidity?

A

Radiation therapy

128
Q

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Disease of elderly men in which the prostate gradually enlarges, creating symptoms of urinary outflow obstruction

129
Q

What is the size of a normal prostate?

130
Q

Where does BPH occur?

A

Periurethrally

131
Q

What are the symptoms of BPH?

A

Obstructive-type symptoms (e.g. hesitancy, weak stream, nocturia, intermittency, UTI, urinary retention)

132
Q

How is the diagnosis of BPH made?

A

History, DRE, elevated PVR, UA, cystoscopy, U/S

133
Q

What lab tests should be performed for BPH?

A

UA, PSA, BUN, Cr

134
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of BPH?

A

Prostate cancer (biopsy); neurogenic bladder (history of neurologic disease); acute prostatitis (hot, tender gland); urethral stricture (RUG, history of STD); stone; UTI

135
Q

What are the treatment options for BPH?

A

alpha-1 blockade, antiandrogens, TURP, TUIP, open prostate resection, transurethral balloon dilation

136
Q

Why do alpha-adrenergic blockers work for BPH?

A

Relaxes sphincter and prostate capsule

137
Q

What is finasteride (Proscar)?

A

5-alpha-reductase inhibitor.
Blocks transformation of testosterone to DHT.
May shrink and slow progression of BPH.

138
Q

What is terazosin (Hytrin)?

A

alpha-blocker.

May increase urine outflow by relaxing prostatic smooth muscles

139
Q

What are the indications for surgery in BPH?

A

Urinary retention, hydronephrosis, UTIs, severe symptoms

140
Q

What is TUIP?

A

TransUrethral Incision of Prostate

141
Q

What percentage of tissue removed for BPH will have malignant tissue on histology?

142
Q

What are the possible complications of TURP?

A

Failure to void, bleeding, clot retention, UTI, incontinence

143
Q

What is the incidence of testicular cancer?

A

Rare; 2-3/100,000 men per year

144
Q

What is the most common solid tumor of men 20-40 years?

A

Testicular cancer

145
Q

What are the risk factors for testicular cancer?

A

Cryptorchidism

146
Q

Does orchiopexy as an adult remove the risk of testicular cancer?

147
Q

What are the symptoms of testicular cancer?

A

Painless mass, swelling, firmness of testicle

148
Q

What percentage of patients with testicular cancer present with an acute hydrocele?

149
Q

What percentage of patients with testicular cancer present with symptoms of metastatic disease (e.g. back pain, anorexia)?

150
Q

What are the classifications of testicular cancer?

A

Germ cell tumors (seminomatous, non-seminomatous, teratoma, mixed, choriocarcinoma); Non-germinal (Leydig cell, Sertoli cell, gonadoblastoma)

151
Q

What is the major classification of testicular cancer based on therapy?

A

Seminomatous and non-seminomatous

152
Q

What are the tumor markers for testicular tumors?

A
  1. B-HCG

2. AFP

153
Q

What are the tumor markers by tumor type?

A

B-HCG: choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma, seminomatous carcinoma
AFT: embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumors, non-seminomatous carcinoma

154
Q

What is the difference between seminomatous and non-seminomatous germ cell testicular tumor markers?

A

Non-seminomatous: 90% have positive AFP and/or B-HCG.

Seminomatous: 10% are AFP positive.

155
Q

Which testicular tumors almost never have an elevated AFP?

A

Choriocarcinoma and seminoma

156
Q

In which testicular tumor is B-HCG almost always found elevated?

A

Choriocarcinoma

157
Q

How often is B-HCG elevated in patients with pure seminoma?

158
Q

How often is B-HCG elevated with nonseminoma?

159
Q

What other testicular tumor markers may be elevated and useful for recurrence surveillance?

A

LDH, CEA, HCS, GGT, PLAP

160
Q

What are the steps in workup for testicular cancer?

A

PE, scrotal U/S, check tumor markers, CXR, CT

161
Q

What is stage I testicular cancer?

A

Any tumor size, no nodes, no metastases

162
Q

What is stage II testicular cancer?

A

Positive nodes, no metastases, any tumor

163
Q

What is stage III testicular cancer?

A

Distant metastases

164
Q

What is the initial treatment for all testicular tumors?

A

Inguinal orchiectomy (removal of testicle through a groin incision)

165
Q

What is the treatment of stage I and II seminoma?

A

Inguinal orchiectomy and radiation to retroperitoneal nodal basins

166
Q

What is the treatment of stage III seminoma?

A

Orchiectomy and chemotherapy

167
Q

What is the treatment of stage I and II nonseminoma?

A

Orchiectomy and retroperitoneal lymph node dissection vs. close followup for retroperitoneal nodal involvement

168
Q

What is the treatment of stage III nonseminoma?

A

Orchiectomy and chemotherapy

169
Q

What percentage of stage I seminomas are cured after treatment?

170
Q

Which type of testicular cancer is most radiosensitive?

171
Q

Why not remove testis with cancer through a scrotal incision?

A

Could result in tumor seeding of the scrotum

172
Q

What is the major side effect of retroperitoneal lymph node dissection?

A

Erectile dysfunction

173
Q

What is testicular torsion?

A

Twisting of the spermatic cord, resulting in venous outflow obstruction, and subsequent arterial occlusion, leading to infarction of the testicle

174
Q

What is the classic history of testicular torsion?

A

Acute onset of scrotal pain usually after vigorous activity or minor trauma

175
Q

What is a bell-clapper deformity?

A

Bilateral non-attachment of the testicles by the gubernaculum to the scrotum

176
Q

What are the symptoms of testicular torsion?

A

Pain in the scrotum, suprapubic pain

177
Q

What are the signs of testicular torsion?

A

Very tender, swollen, elevated testicle, non-illumination, absence of cremasteric reflex

178
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of testicular torsion?

A

Testicular trauma, inguinal hernia, epididymitis, appendage torsion

179
Q

How is the diagnosis of testicular torsion made?

A

Surgical exploration, U/S (solid mass) and Doppler flow study, cold Tc-99m scan

180
Q

What is the treatment for testicular torsion?

A

Surgical detorsion and bilateral orchiopexy to the scrotum

181
Q

How much time is available from the onset of symptoms to detorse the testicle?

A

< 6 hours will bring about the best results

182
Q

What are the chances of testicle salvage after 24 hours of torsion?

183
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of epididymitis?

A

Swollen, tender testicle, dysuria, scrotal pain, fever, chills, scrotal mass

184
Q

What is the cause of epididymitis?

A

Bacteria from the urethra

185
Q

What are the common pathogens of epididymitis in elderly patients and children?

186
Q

What are the common pathogens of epididymitis in young men?

A

Gonorrhea, chlamydia

187
Q

What is the major differential diagnosis for epididymitis?

A

Testicular torsion

188
Q

What is the workup for epididymitis?

A

U/A, urine culture, swab if STD suspected, +/- U/S with Doppler or nuclear study to rule out torsion

189
Q

What is the treatment for epididymitis?

A

Antibiotics

190
Q

What are the causes of priapism?

A 
Low flow (e.g. leukemia, drugs, sickle-cell disease, erectile dysfunction treatment gone wrong)
High flow (e.g. pudendal artery fistula, usually from trauma)
191
Q

What is the first-line treatment for priapism?

A
  1. Aspiration of blood from corporus cavernosum

2. alpha-adrenergic agent

192
Q

What are the 6 major causes of erectile dysfunction?

A
  1. Vascular (decreased blood flow or lead of blood from the corpus cavernosus)
  2. Endocrine (low T)
  3. Anatomic (structural abnormality of the erectile apparatus, e.g. Peyronie’s disease)
  4. Neurologic (damage to nerves, e.g. post-operative, IDDM)
  5. Medications (clonidine)
  6. Psychologic (performance anxiety)
193
Q

What lab tests should be performed for erectile dysfunction?

A

Fasting glucose (rule out diabetic neuropathy); serum testosterone; serum prolactin

194
Q

What is the incidence of calculus disease?

195
Q

What are the risk factors for calculus disease?

A

Poor fluid intake, IBD, hypercalcemia, renal tubular acidosis, small bowel bypass

196
Q

What are the 4 types of stones?

A
  1. Calcium oxalate/phosphate (secondary to hypercalcemia)
  2. Struvite, MgAmPh (infection stones; seen in UTI with urea-splitting bacteria; may cause staghorn calculi; high urine pH)
  3. Uric acid (stones are radiolucent, seen in gout, Lesch-Nyhan, chronic diarrhea, cancer, low urine pH)
  4. Cystine (genetic predisposition)
197
Q

What type of stones are not seen on AXR?

198
Q

What stone is associated with UTIs?

199
Q

What stones are seen in IBD and bowel bypass?

A

Calcium oxalate

200
Q

What are the symptoms of calculus disease?

A

Severe pain (patient cannot sit still); renal colic (typically pain in the kidney/ureter that radiates to the testis or penis); hematuria

201
Q

What are the classic findings with calculus disease?

A

Flank pain, stone on AXR, hematuria

202
Q

How is the diagnosis of calculus disease made?

A

KUB, IVP, U/A and culture, BUN/Cr, CBC

203
Q

What is the significance of hematuria and pyuria?

A

Stone with concomitant infection

204
Q

What is the treatment for calculus disease?

A

Narcotics for pain, vigorous hydration, observation.
Further options: ESWL (lithotripsy), ureteroscopy, percutaneous lithotripsy, open surgery, metabolic workup for recurrence

205
Q

What are the indications for intervention in calculus disease?

A

Urinary tract obstruction, persistant infection, impaired renal function

206
Q

What are the contraindications of outpatient treatment of calculus disease?

A

Pregnancy, diabetes, obstruction, severe dehydration, severe pain, urosepsis/fever, pyelonephritis, previous urologic surgery, only one functioning kidney

207
Q

What are the 3 common sites of obstruction in calculus disease?

A
  1. UPJ (UreteroPelvic Junction)
  2. UVJ (UreteroVesicular Junction)
  3. Intersection of the ureter and the iliac vessels
208
Q

What are the common types of incontinence?

A

Stress, overflow, urge

209
Q

What is stress incontinence?

A

Loss of urine associated with coughing, lifting, exercise, etc.
Seen most often in women, secondary to relaxation of pelvic floor following multiple deliveries.

210
Q

What is overflow incontinence?

A

Failure of the bladder to empty properly.

May be caused by bladder outlet obstruction (BPH or stricture) or detrusor hypotonicity.

211
Q

What is urge incontinence?

A

Loss of urine secondary to detrusor instability in patients with stroke, dementia, Parkinson’s disease, etc.

212
Q

What is mixed incontinence?

A

Stress and urge incontinence combined

213
Q

How is the diagnosis of incontinence made?

A

H&P, U/A, PVR, urodynamics, cystoscopy or VCUG may be necessary

214
Q

What is the Marshall test?

A

Women with stress incontinence placed in the lithotomy position with a full bladder leaks urine when asked to cough

215
Q

What is the treatment for stress incontinence?

A

Bladder neck suspension

216
Q

What is the treatment for urge incontinence?

A

Anticholinergics, alpha-agonists

217
Q

What is the treatment for overflow incontinence?

A

Self-catheterization, surgical relief of obstruction, alpha-blockers

218
Q

What is the etiology of UTI?

A

Ascending infection, instrumentation, coitus in females

219
Q

What are the 3 common pathogens in UTI?

A
  1. E. coli
  2. Proteus
  3. Klebsiella, Pseudomonas
220
Q

What are the predisposing factors for UTI?

A

Stones, obstruction, reflux, diabetes, pregnancy, indwelling catheter or stent

221
Q

What are the symptoms of UTI?

A

Lower UTI: frequency, urgency, dysuria, nocturia

Upper UTI: back or flank pain, fever, chills

222
Q

How is the diagnosis of UTI made?

A

Symptoms, U/A (> 10 WBCs/HPF)

223
Q

When should workup be performed for UTI?

A

After first infection in male patients (unless Foley in place).
After first pyelonephritis in prepubescent females.

224
Q

What is the treatment for UTI?

A

Lower: 1-4 days of oral antibiotics
Upper: 3-7 days of IV antibiotics

225
Q

Why should orchiopexy be performed?

A

Decrease the susceptibility to blunt trauma; increase the ease of followup exams

226
Q

What type of bony lesions is seen in metastatic prostate cancer?

A

Osteoblastic (radiopaque)

227
Q

What percentage of renal cell carcinoma show evidence of metastatic disease at presentation?

228
Q

What is the most common site of distant metastasis in renal cell carcinoma?

229
Q

What is the most common solid renal tumor in children?

A

Wilms’ tumor

230
Q

What are posterior urethral valves?

A

Most common obstructive urethral lesion in infants and newborns.
Occurs only in males, found at the distal prostatic urethra.

231
Q

What is the most common intraoperative bladder tumor?

A

Foley catheter

232
Q

What provides drainage of the left gonadal vein?

A

Left renal vein

233
Q

What provides drainage of the right gonadal vein?

234
Q

What are the signs of urethral injury in the trauma patient?

A

High-riding, ballottable prostate, blood at the urethral meatus, severe pelvic fracture, ecchymosis of scrotum

235
Q

What is the evaluation for urethral injury in the trauma patient?

236
Q

What is the evaluation for a transected ureter intraoperatively?

A

IV indigo carmine and then look for leak of blue urine in the operative field

237
Q

What aid is used to help identify the ureters in a previously radiated retroperitoneum?

A

Ureteral stents

238
Q

How can a small traumatic extraperitoneal bladder rupture be treated?

A

Foley catheter

239
Q

How should a traumatic intraperitoneal bladder rupture be treated?

A

Operative repair

240
Q

What percentage of patients with an injured ureter will have no blood on U/A?

241
Q

What is the classic history of papillary necrosis?

A

Patient with diabetes taking NSAIDs or patient with sickle cell trait

242
Q

What unique bleeding problem can be seen with prostate surgery?

A

Release of TPA and urokinase (treat with e-aminocaproic acid)

243
Q

What is the scrotal blue dot sign?

A

Torsed appendix testis

244
Q

What is Peyronie’s disease?

A

Curved penile orientation with erection due to fibrosis of corpora cavernosa

245
Q

What is a ureterocele?

A

Dilation of the ureter (treat with endoscopic incision or operative excision)

246
Q

What is “three-way” irrigating Foley catheter?

A

Foley catheter that irrigates and then drains

ENTREGA (40 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions