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Histology > Unit one > Flashcards

Unit one Flashcards

1
Q

what is cytology

A

study of cells and their components

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2
Q

what are inclusions

A

parts of cells that change over time

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3
Q

cells are what

A

functional unit of life

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4
Q

whats an example of inclusion

A

granules

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5
Q

are organelles changing or permanent

A

permanent

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6
Q

function of epithelium

A

protection of structure

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7
Q

function of muscle

A

movement

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8
Q

function of nervous system

A

control

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9
Q

function of connective tissue

A

support and transport

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10
Q

what is histology

A

study of tissues

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11
Q

what are the 4 types of tissues

A

epithelium, muscular, nervous and connective

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12
Q

what is organology

A

study of organs

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13
Q

what are the steps in tissue preparation

A

fixation, dehydration, clearing, infiltration, embedding, sectioning, mounting, removal of paraffin or plastic, and staining

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14
Q

what happens during the step of fixation

A

preserves the structural organization, prevents digestion and protects from damage during subsequent stages

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15
Q

what agent is used during fixation

A

formalin

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16
Q

what happens during the stage of dehydration

A

removes the water, which eases the penetration of the tissue by clearing agents

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17
Q

what agent is used during dehydration

A

ethanol

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18
Q

can you place 100% ethanol into sample

A

no have to dilute from 70% then to 100%

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19
Q

what happens during the stage of clearing

A

prepares the tissue for infiltration by replacing water molecule with xylene

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20
Q

what happens during the stage of infilitration

A

prepares the cleared tissue for embedding by adding paraffin

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21
Q

what does paraffin do to tissue

A

replaces xylene and helps support of tissue

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22
Q

what happens during the stage of embedding

A

makes the tissue firm and prevents crushing during sectioning to allow for better manipulation of tissue, makes tissue sample bigger

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23
Q

what happens during the stage of sectioning

A

thin sections allows light or electrons to penetrate the specimen and form an image, use microtome to cut sample into thin cuts

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24
Q

what happens during the stage of mounting

A

eases handling and decreases the damage to the specimen during examination

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25
Q

what happens during the stage of removal of paraffin or plastic

A

most stains are water soluble and therefore need to put water back into tissue

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26
Q

what happens during the stage of staining

A

makes the specimen visible with stain, allows contrast between structures

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27
Q

what is the most common stain used

A

H and E, hematoxylin and eosin

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28
Q

basic dyes stain what

A

stains basophilic parts of cell

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29
Q

example of basophilic parts of cell

A

DNA, RNA, ribosomes

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30
Q

basic dyes mainly dye what organelle and what color

A

nuclei, blue and purple

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31
Q

acidic dyes stain what

A

stains acidophilic tissue parts

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32
Q

example of acidophilic parts of cell

A

mitochondria, secretory granules, collagen

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33
Q

acidic dyes mainly dye what organelle and what color

A

cytoplasm and red and pink

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34
Q

how does acidophilic dye work

A

looks for basic molecules to bind to and will attach to it

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35
Q

how do you make H and E staining

A

mix acidic and basic dye

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36
Q

lipid soluble dyes stain what

A

stains long chain hydrocarbons, fats and oils

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37
Q

what is special about lipid soluble dyes

A

can quantify based on cells surrounding each other, amount of dye in that cell determines how much lipid

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38
Q

multicomponent histochemical reactions stain what

A

stains complex carbohydrates and glycogen

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39
Q

what is the reaction of the multicomponent histochemical reaction stain

A

true chemical reaction occurs between the dye and the sugar molecule

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40
Q

what color is the multicomponent histochemical reaction

A

purple, more purple means more carb

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41
Q

what stain is a specialty stain

A

multicomponent histochemical reaction stain

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42
Q

heavy metal stains what

A

stains phospholipids and complex sugars

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43
Q

what component in heavy metal staining is most common

A

lead

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44
Q

what is resolution

A

the smallest distance that two objects can be seen as two objects

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45
Q

if you increase magnification what happens to resolution

A

decreases

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46
Q

if wavelength of light increases what happens to resolution

A

increases

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47
Q

what is the equation for resolution

A

.61 lambda/ (NAobj + NAcondensor)

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48
Q

what does NA mean

A

numerical aperature

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49
Q

how to determine NA

A

sin 1/2 theta light picked up by the lens x (refractive index of the medium)

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50
Q

if refractive index decreases what happens to NA

A

decreases

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51
Q

if refractive index decreases what happens to resolution

A

increases

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52
Q

if NA decreases what happens to resolution

A

increases

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53
Q

one angstrom is how many meters

A

10^-10 m

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54
Q

what is magnification

A

how large the image appears

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55
Q

how to determine magnification

A

objective lens magnification x ocular lens magnification

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56
Q

what is the plasma membrane

A

a barrier that surrounds the cytoplasm and marks the boundary of the cell

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57
Q

what are the three basic concepts about the plasma membrane

A

they are not homogenous, many membrane components are in a state of constant dynamic flux, membrane components are highly asymmetrical

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58
Q

plasma membrane has what appearance under the microscope

A

trilaminar

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59
Q

what components make up the plasma membrane

A

lipids and proteins

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60
Q

what is the percentage of lipids in the plasma membrane

A

40 to 80%

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61
Q

of the lipid present in the plasma membrane, how much is phopholipid

A

50%

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62
Q

what makes up a phospholipid

A

polar head and nonpolar tail

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63
Q

what makes up the polar head of a phospholipid

A

glycerol, phosphate, and nitrogen base

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64
Q

what makes up the nonpolar tail of a phospholipid

A

long chain fatty acids with saturated and unsaturated

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65
Q

what part of the phospholipid picks up the stain

A

the head

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66
Q

what type of staining pattern is created in a phospholipid bilayer

A

dark light pattern

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67
Q

what molecule helps stiffen the plasma membrane

A

cholesterol

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68
Q

fluid mosaic model contains

A

phospholipid bilayer, cholesterol, integral proteins, peripheral proteins

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69
Q

integral proteins are located where in the membrane

A

goes across the membrane, spanning both sides

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70
Q

purpose of integral proteins

A

form channels, pumps to move things in and out

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71
Q

cholesterol is mostly associated where in the plasma membrane

A

the tails

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72
Q

where are the peripheral membranes located

A

on the sides of the membrane but not inbewteen

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73
Q

how are peripheral proteins held in place on the membrane

A

nonpolar amino acids

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74
Q

purpose of peripheral membranes

A

used as receptors

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75
Q

what is exocytosis

A

move material outside of cell by using membrane bound vesicle fusing with cell membrane, then opens out and material leaves cell

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76
Q

what is endocytosis

A

bringing things into cell

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77
Q

what are the different types of endocytosis

A

pinocytosis, receptor mediated endocytosis, phagocytosis

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78
Q

what is pinocytosis

A

fluid into the cell

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79
Q

what is receptor mediated endocytosis

A

use of protein receptors to bring material into cell

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80
Q

what is phagocytosis

A

bring solids into the cell

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81
Q

what does a mitochondria look like

A

round or oval, .5-1 um wide and up to 10 um long

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82
Q

function of mitochondria

A

transform chemical energy into ATP

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83
Q

mitochondria are made up of

A

outer membrane, inner membrane, elementary particles, granules, circular DNA

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84
Q

describe outer membrane of mitochondria

A

contains porin protein which forms channels allowing material to enter in

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85
Q

describe inner membrane of mitochondria

A

made up of 75% proteins that are enzymes, contain cristae

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86
Q

what are cristae and their function

A

folds inside mitochondria, help increase surface area for more proteins and enzymes

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87
Q

what are the elementary particles in mitochondria

A

enzymes that form ATP and are attached to the inner membrane

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88
Q

what are the granules of the mitochondria and purpose

A

Ca, DNA, RNA, Mg and are co-enzymes

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89
Q

are mitochondria able to control their own cellular functions why

A

yes, contain their own DNA and are not controlled by the cell’s nucleus

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90
Q

mitochondria theory with DNA

A

through endocytosis, bacteria enters into mitochondria with circular DNA and mitochondria now contains double membrane structure that has circular DNA and can make ATP

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91
Q

what are the functions of ER

A

site of lipid and carb synthesis, protein segregation from the cytoplasm, initial post-translational changes

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92
Q

what is the percentage of the membranes in the cell that are the ER

A

50%

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93
Q

what is rough ER used for

A

protein synthesis

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94
Q

what are the purpose of tunnels of the ER

A

moves proteins/molecules to new areas more effectively

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95
Q

where are the ribosomes attached on the rough ER

A

on the surface

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96
Q

what is the purpose of the ribosomes in the RER

A

make the protein and then enters in RER for distribution

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97
Q

where is RER located in cell

A

either by itself or attached to nucleus

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98
Q

ribosomal free area in the RER is known as what and used for what

A

transitional zone for vesicle formation

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99
Q

where is smooth ER found

A

steroid producing cells

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100
Q

Purpose of smooth ER

A

breaks down glycogen, mostly found in liver

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101
Q

Smooth ER associated with

A

p450 enzyme detoxification system which is a major enzyme for detoxification with blood

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102
Q

the function of the golgi apparatus/ complex

A

to complete post-translational modification and packaging of the products of the cells (proteins primarily)

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103
Q

how many compartments are in a golgi

A

mostly 5

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104
Q

vesicles from the ER go to where in the golgi

A

cis face (forming face) and fuse into the first compartment

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105
Q

what happens in each compartment of the golgi

A

enzymes the convert one protein into another

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106
Q

how do proteins in the golgi move from one vesicle to another

A

by vesicles

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107
Q

what is the last compartment in the golgi that takes the last protein out in a vesicle

A

trans face (maturing face)

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108
Q

is the golgi non polarized or polarized

A

polarized

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109
Q

what occurs in a lysosome

A

intracellular digestion that occur in the cytoplasm

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110
Q

structure of lysosome

A

membrane vesicles with hydrolytic enzymes

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111
Q

lysosomes are formed from where

A

RER and golgi complex

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112
Q

primary lysosomes are what

A

storage vesicles for digestive enzymes, enzymes are not yet doing anything

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113
Q

secondary lysosomes are what

A

where the process of digestion occurs, they are active

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114
Q

what are residual bodies

A

lysosomes that contain indigestible material storage, lipofuscin granules

115
Q

how do residual bodies expel their contents to the environment

A

exocytosis

116
Q

what happens if residual bodies do not go through exocytosis

A

build up in cell, causing aging of the cell

117
Q

what is an autophagosome

A

when an organelle is no longer working, the organelle will be wrapped by ER, solid material in cell already

118
Q

how do lysosomes works

A

two vesicles will fuse creating a structure with two membranes, lysosome has enzymes and is now active, whatever is left over will create a residual body

119
Q

peroxisomes are also known as

A

microbodies

120
Q

what enzymes are in peroxisomes

A

D and L oxidase and hydroxacid oxidase

121
Q

function of peroxisomes

A

reducing oxygen and H2O2

122
Q

what are the byproducts from peroxisomes

A

H20 and O2

123
Q

what are ribosomes composed of

A

mRNA and 80 different proteins

124
Q

what are the ribosomes for prokaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts

A

70s

125
Q

what are the ribosomes found in eukaryotes

A

80s

126
Q

what creates ribosomes

A

nucleolus

127
Q

are ribosomes acidophilic or basophilic

A

basophilic

128
Q

what is the function of ribosomes

A

protein synthesis

129
Q

are ribosomes single structures are paired up with another organelle

A

both, single or attache to RER

130
Q

function of 60s ribosome

A

catalase enzyme is located for peptide bond formation

131
Q

function of 40s ribosome

A

binds mRNA

132
Q

microtubules are composed of

A

alpha and beta tubulin proteins

133
Q

tubulin look like

A

straws

134
Q

microtubules are made from

A

MTOC, microtubular organizing centers

135
Q

where are MTOC’s found

A

basal bodies, centrioles, and centromeres

136
Q

function of microtubules are based on

A

number of alpha and beta tubulin proteins

137
Q

how many subunits per microtubule

A

13

138
Q

centrioles are composed of

A

microtubule arranged in 9 pairs of triplets

139
Q

how are the triplets in centrioles held together

A

protein links

140
Q

the mirotubules in the centrioles share how many subunits

A

three

141
Q

centrioles are duplicated during what phase in mitosis

A

S phase of interphase

142
Q

function of centrioles

A

they are MTOC’s so they make more microtubules

143
Q

cilia and flagella are made up of

A

9 pairs of doublets around a central tubule containing two singlets

144
Q

9+2 is known as

A

axoneme

145
Q

what is the point of two singlets in cilia or flagella

A

add rigidity, central core of support

146
Q

function of cilia or flagella

A

movement

147
Q

the arms from a tubule in cilia and flagella are known as

A

dynein

148
Q

function of dynein arms

A

have ATPase associated with them, break down ATP

149
Q

the adjacent doublets in cilia and flagella are joined together by

A

nexins

150
Q

microfilaments are made up of

A

actin, G-actin (globular)

151
Q

where are microfilaments found

A

thin sheath beneath the cell membrane, near organelles

152
Q

a string of G actin is known as

A

F actin (filamentous)

153
Q

why are two strands of F actin spiraled around each other

A

add strength

154
Q

function of microfilaments

A

form the cleavage furrow during mitosis

155
Q

the nucleus has how many membranes

A

2, inner and outer

156
Q

function of nucleus

A

control of the processes of the cell

157
Q

the internal aspect of the membranes of the nucleus contains protein fibers known as

A

fibrous lamina

158
Q

nuclear pores are made of

A

a, b, and c lamins

159
Q

structure of nuclear pores

A

composed of 8 subunits called annular proteins covered by thin protein diaphragm

160
Q

what attaches to the outer membrane of the nucleus

A

polysomes

161
Q

what is the nucleolus rich in

A

rRNA and proteins

162
Q

what are the three regions of the nucleolus

A

pars fibrosa, pars granulosa and nuclear organizing DNA

163
Q

function of the pars fibrosa

A

ribosomes are made

164
Q

location of the pars fibrosa

A

outside of nucleolus

165
Q

function of pars granulosa

A

ribosomes are stored here

166
Q

location of the pars granulosa

A

inside of nucleolus

167
Q

function of nucleolar organizing DNA

A

codes for RNA

168
Q

location of nucleolar organizing DNA

A

inside fibrosa

169
Q

what are heterochromatin

A

nonfunctional chromatin

170
Q

what staining are heterochromatin

A

dark staining

171
Q

what are euchromatin

A

functional chromatin

172
Q

what staining are heterochromatin

A

light staining

173
Q

chromatin are wrapped around what protein

A

histones

174
Q

nucleosomes are what

A

chromatin wrapped around histones

175
Q

nucleosomes are held together by what

A

H1

176
Q

how many nucleosomes form a solenoid

A

six

177
Q

solenoids are folded into

A

loops

178
Q

the loops of solenoids are folded around

A

scaffolding proteins

179
Q

the loops of solenoids then form

A

chromosomes

180
Q

what are the three phases of interphase

A

G1, S and G2

181
Q

what occurs during G1

A

doing whatever a cell is suppose to do

182
Q

G1 haploid or diploid

A

diploid

183
Q

what occurs during S phase

A

chromatin material doubles

184
Q

1n, 2n or 4n at end of s phase

A

4n

185
Q

what occurs during G2

A

cell continues to grow, saving up ATP

186
Q

1n, 2n, or 4n during G2

A

4n

187
Q

at the end of G2, the cell can do what

A

undergo mitosis or go to G0 which is the holding stage (no dividing)

188
Q

purpose of mitosis

A

start with parent cell and create two identical daughter cells

189
Q

interphase, 1n, 2n or 4n

A

4n

190
Q

what occurs during interphase

A

nucleus with prominent and well developed nuclear membrane, centrioles duplicate, chromatin material present

191
Q

what occurs during prophase

A

chromatin material condense, nuclear membrane disappears, centrioles make microtubules (spindle fibers)

192
Q

prophase, 1n, 2n, or 4n

A

4n

193
Q

what occurs during metaphase

A

chromatin line up on equitorial plate, spindle fibers attach to centromeres

194
Q

centromeres can also make what

A

spindle fibers

195
Q

centromeres are

A

MTOC’s

196
Q

metaphase 1n, 2n, or 4n

A

4n

197
Q

what occurs during anaphase

A

chromatin material will separate, chromatin move toward centrioles

198
Q

what occurs during telophase

A

nucleus cytokinesis, chromatin relaxing and harder to see, nuclear membrane reappears

199
Q

telophase is 1n, 2n or 4n

A

2n

200
Q

what is cytokinesis

A

cell pinch together and pull apart forming two new cells, with half of organelles going to one cell and other half go to other

201
Q

pinching during cytokinesis occurs due to

A

microfilaments such as actin

202
Q

what are the three aspects when looking at slide of epithelium

A

number of layers, shape of cells, and specilizations

203
Q

simple epithelium

A

one layer

204
Q

stratified epithelium

A

more than one layer

205
Q

squamous

A

flat

206
Q

cuboidal

A

square

207
Q

columnar

A

tall

208
Q

when counting layers what is the reference point

A

basal lamina/ membrane

209
Q

function of basal lamina

A

anchors the epithelium

210
Q

what is the pattern of basal lamina

A

light, dark, light

211
Q

the light area of the basal lamina is called what

A

lamina lucida

212
Q

lamina lucida is made up of what protein

A

laminin

213
Q

the dark layer of the basal lamina is called

A

lamina densa

214
Q

the lamina densa is made up of

A

protein and proteoglycan

215
Q

the basal lamina forms what type of barrier

A

ionic

216
Q

what charge is allow to pass the basal lamina

A

negative charges

217
Q

a basement membrane contains how many basal lamina

A

2

218
Q

what do the nuclei look like in a simple squamous cell

A

elongated in shape along the horizontal line

219
Q

where in body do you see a simple squamous cell

A

blood vessels and lungs

220
Q

simple squamous cell is used for

A

move things across, diffusion

221
Q

what does the nucleus look like in simple cuboidal

A

round and in center of cell

222
Q

where do you see in body simple cuboidal

A

hormone producers, thyroid gland, and kidney ducts

223
Q

what specialization is with simple columnar

A

ciliated or not

224
Q

purpose of simple columnar

A

absorb material

225
Q

where to find non ciliated simple columnar

A

GI tract

226
Q

where to find ciliated simple columnar

A

female reproductive tract

227
Q

what is the reference point of shape of cell

A

look at lumen

228
Q

what specialization goes towards stratified squamous

A

keratin

229
Q

feature of keratinizied stratified squamous

A

no nucleus in cells by lumen

230
Q

where would you find keratinized stratified squamous

A

skin

231
Q

function of keratinized stratified squamous

A

protection, waterproof, helps protect from dehydration, shearing forces, UV radiation

232
Q

where is non keratinized stratified squamous

A

esophagus

233
Q

function of non keratinized stratified squamous

A

protection

234
Q

where is stratified cuboidal found in the body

A

ducts of glands such as sweat and salivary glands

235
Q

how many layers does stratified cuboidal have

A

only two

236
Q

function of cuboidal stratified

A

protection

237
Q

What is the rarest type of epithelium in the body

A

Stratified columnar

238
Q

Where do you see stratified columnar

A

Male reproductive system such as ductus deferens and seminal vesicle

239
Q

What is the specialization of stratified columnar

A

Ciliated or not

240
Q

Where is pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

Upper respiratory system such as trachea and bronchi

241
Q

What does the structure of pseudostratified columnar

A

Every cell is going to touch the basement membrane

242
Q

What specialization does pseudostratified columnar has

A

Cilia

243
Q

What type of cell can you cell in pseudostratified columnar

A

Goblet cells

244
Q

Where would you find transitional epithelium

A

Urinary bladder

245
Q

Purpose of transitional epithelium

A

Need to stretch without breaking their integrity

246
Q

What is a characteristic of transitional epithelium

A

Scalloped at the edges

247
Q

What are the four types of intercellular junctions

A

Tight junctions, zonula adherens, gap junctions, and desmosomes

248
Q

What proteins are always in between epithelium cells

A

Glycoproteins

249
Q

Purpose of glycoproteins for epithelial cells

A

They are sticky and hold the cells together

250
Q

What is a tight junction

A

When two epithelial cell membranes fuse together at various points

251
Q

Tight junctions prevent what

A

Material to pass between the cells

252
Q

How does material go through with tight junctions present

A

Fusion through the cell

253
Q

What is zonula adherens

A

Proteins coming out of cells like fingers and the proteins from one cell interact with a protein from another and fuse together

254
Q

What is the advantage of zonula adherens

A

Allow material to go in between the cells

255
Q

Purpose of gap cell

A

Move material from one epithelial cell to another through a tunnel when the cells are lined up, this also holds the cells together

256
Q

What is the protein in the gap junction

A

The tunnel is the protein

257
Q

What are desmosomes

A

Proteins that stick out of membrane providing more surface area for better interaction and stronger adhesion

258
Q

How does material move through cells with desmosomes

A

In between the proteins and the cells

259
Q

Hemidesmosomes attach where

A

Basement membrane

260
Q

Basement membrane is made up of

A

Proteins

261
Q

How do hemidesmosomes work

A

Protein paddles from desmosome interacts with protein in basement membrane

262
Q

The proteins from hemidesmosomes work like

A

Nails and hook the cells to the basement membrane

263
Q

Hemidesmosomes make up the first layer but what type of adhesion can the cell layer next use

A

Any of them

264
Q

What determines the adherence needed of the cell

A

Function of the cell

265
Q

What are glandular epithelium

A

Modified epithelium that secrete

266
Q

What is the system to identify glandular epithelium

A

How many modified cells, where to the secretions go, mechanism by which the cellular product leaves the cell

267
Q

How many modified glandular cells can be present

A

Unicellular or multicellular

268
Q

What are the two forms where secretions can go

A

Exocrine and endocrine

269
Q

What are exocrine glands

A

Empty into the lumen someplace in the body such as the stomach or trachea

270
Q

What are endocrine glands

A

Empty into the bloodstream and allow for movement throughout the body

271
Q

What are three mechanisms of glandular epithelium cells

A

Merocrine, holocrine, apocrine

272
Q

What is a merocrine

A

Granules approach surface and exocytosis their product

273
Q

What is an apocrine

A

Fragment the cell and everything above the fragment will shed including the organelles within the top fragment

274
Q

What is a holocrine

A

Throw the whole cell out in the lumen

275
Q

What is the most harsh mechanism of glandular epithelial cells

A

Holocrine due to having to regenerate the cell

276
Q

What is the most efficient mechanism of the glandular epithelial cell

A

Merocrine

277
Q

What are the two types of glandular patterns

A

Single vs multiple openings

278
Q

Structure of the microvilli

A

Extensions of the cell membrane containing cytoplasma and organelles, very short and numerous

279
Q

Purpose of microvilli

A

Increase surface area for better absorption

280
Q

Where to see microvilli

A

Intestine

281
Q

Purpose of cilia

A

Movement of things

282
Q

Where are cilia found

A

Respiratory system

283
Q

What make up cilia

A

Microtubules, 9 + 2,

MTOC

Histology (14 decks)

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