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A HEIM 230 > Unit 8 > Flashcards

Unit 8 Flashcards

1
Q

onc/o

A

tumors

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2
Q

infiltrative

A

tumor extends into adjacent healthy tissue

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3
Q

meta

A

beyond, change

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4
Q

Metastasis

A

tumor cells spread from one part or organ to another not directly connected with it

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5
Q

ana

A

backward

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6
Q

dedifferentiation / anaplasia

A

malignant cells go back to embryonic cells

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7
Q

encapsulated

A

benign tumors are

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8
Q

histogenesis

A

formation and differentiation of tissue from undifferentiated cells

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9
Q

adenomas

A

Benign tumors that arise from epithelial cells

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10
Q

adenocarcinoma

A

cancerous tumor of an epithelium that originates in glandular tissue

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11
Q

Sarcomas

A

originate in connective tissue

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12
Q

sarc/o

A

connective tissue

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13
Q

glioma

A

Cancer in the connective tissue in the brain

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14
Q

neuroblastoma

A

childhood cancer arising from immature tissues in the autonomic nervous system

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15
Q

mixed-tissue tumors

A

sites of development are kidneys, ovaries, and testes

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16
Q

apoptosis

A

cell death

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17
Q

carcinogenesis

A

development of cancer, from mutations

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18
Q

mut/a

A

genetic change

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19
Q

mutation

A

stimulate cell growth or block DNA repair lead to the formation of malignant tumors

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20
Q

types of carcinogen

A

radiation, oncogenic viruses, toxic chemicals

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21
Q

oncogenic viruses

A

RNA viruses / retroviruses and DNA viruses

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22
Q

oncogene

A

a piece of DNA whose activation is associated with the conversion of normal cells into cancerous cells

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23
Q

guaiac fecal occult blood test (gFOBT)

A

presence of fecal occult blood (FOB) can indicate colorectal cancer

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24
Q

estrogen (estradiol) receptor assay

A

pinpoints the tumor’s receptivity to estrogen

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25
Q

protein marker tests

A

measure tumor-generated proteins, or protein markers, which are present in the bloodstream

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26
Q

CA-125 test and the CEA test

A

detects carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

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27
Q

Acid phosphatase test and the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test

A

test for prostate cancer

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28
Q

Beta-hCG test, which is used to detect the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in serum

A

for testicular cancer

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29
Q

Alpha-fetoprotein test

A

for testicular and liver cancers

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30
Q

Cytogenetic analysis

A

for leukemia and other cancer

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31
Q

Immunohistochemistry (IHC)

A

localizes antigens or proteins in tissues using marked antibodies to assess the presence and amount of specific molecules in both normal and tumor cells

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32
Q

fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy

A

aspirating free cells from a fluid-filled cavity or from inside a solid tumor mass using a fine needle

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33
Q

thoracocentesis

A

surgical puncture with the insertion of a needle or catheter into the pleural space to obtain pleural fluid for analysis

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34
Q

liquid biopsy

A

looks for cancer cells or tumor cell DNA in a blood sample

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35
Q

Papanicolaou test

A

Pap smear (exfoliative cytology)

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36
Q

radionuclide scans

A

radioactive substances that are intravenously injected can detect tumors and metastases

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37
Q

bone scan

A

injecting a radioactive phosphate substance, called a radionuclide, to see areas of uptake

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38
Q

thallium-201

A

used to detect head and neck tumors

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39
Q

needle used in core-biopsy

A

large-bore

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40
Q

cachexia

A

most severe form of malnutrition associated with cancer

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41
Q

cac/o

A

bad

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42
Q

-hexia

A

state of condition

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43
Q

fungating tumors

A

mushrooming pattern of growth

colon

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44
Q

cystic tumors

A

mucinous or serous

ovaries

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45
Q

medullary tumor

A

large, soft, and fleshy

breast or thyroid gland

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46
Q

verrucous tumor

A

wartlike pattern

gingiva or cheek

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47
Q

polypoid

A

projection-like growths that extend outward from a base

sessile polypoid tumor extends from a broad base (sessile = having no stem). The pedunculated polypoid tumor

colon

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48
Q

inflammatory tumor

A

inflamed

tumor blocks the skin’s lymphatic drainage

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49
Q

necrotic tumor

A

contains dead tissue

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50
Q

ulcerating tumor

A

exhibits an exposed surface from the death of overlying tissue

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51
Q

dysplasia

A

abnormality in cellular development

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52
Q

Carcinoma in situ

A

tumor cells are cancerous but have not yet invaded adjacent structures

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53
Q

diffuse tumor growth

A

cancer has clearly spread evenly throughout the affected tissue

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54
Q

Alveolar tumor cells

A

form patterns that resemble small, microscopic sacs

muscle, bone, fat, and cartilage

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55
Q

epidermoid cells

A

respiratory tract

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56
Q

follicular tumor cells

A

thyroid gland cancer and can form glandular sacs of their own

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57
Q

Nodular cells

A

seen in malignant lymphomas when lymph node involvement is extensive

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58
Q

Papillary cells

A

fingerlike or nipplelike projections

bladder

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59
Q

pleomorphic

A

cellular level, a mixed-cell tumor

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60
Q

morph/o

A

shape/form

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61
Q

scirrhous tumor

A

densely packed and overgrown with fibrous tissue

breast and stomach cancers

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62
Q

scirrh/o

A

hard

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63
Q

Grading

A

based on the microscopic appearance of the tumor cells

looks for the degree of maturation or differentiation

grades 1-4

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64
Q

Staging

A

extent of metastasis

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65
Q

TNM

A

tumor, nodes, and metastases

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66
Q

Duke staging system

A

staging colon cancer and hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer (HNPCC)

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67
Q

excisional biopsy

A

removal of the tumor, along with a margin of normal tissue

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68
Q

incisional biopsy

A

removal of a piece of the tumor for diagnosis and may be followed by additional treatment to remove the bulk of the tumor

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69
Q

resection/exenteration

A

not only the removal of the tumor but also its original site and the surrounding tissue in the body space

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70
Q

En bloc resection

A

removal of the tumor along with a large area of the surrounding tissue and usually lymph node removal as well

ex: mastectomy, colectomy, and gastrectomy

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71
Q

cryosurgery

A

subfreezing temperature is used to destroy the malignant tumor

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72
Q

cauterization

A

destroys the tumor by burning it

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73
Q

fulguration

A

destroy abnormal tissue is with the use of electric sparks generated by a high-frequency current

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74
Q

debulking procedure

A

used if the tumor is attached to a vital organ and cannot be completely removed

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75
Q

Bone marrow transplant (BMT)

A

procedural intervention

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76
Q

radiation therapy (RT) / radiation oncology

A

delivering a maximum dose of ionizing radiation to tumor tissue

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77
Q

intraoperative radiation therapy (IORT)

A

RT used before or after surgery

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78
Q

fibrosis

A

increase in connective tissue in normal tissue caused by too much radiation

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79
Q

gray (Gy) (absorbed radiation dose)

A

unit of measurement for radiation

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80
Q

Pneumonitis

A

Inflammation in the lungs

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81
Q

Myelosuppression

A

Bone marrow depression

Anemia and Thrombocytopenia

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82
Q

Mucositis

A

Inflammation and ulceration of mucous membranes

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83
Q

Xerostomia

A

Dryness of the mouth

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84
Q

Alopecia

A

Partial or complete hair loss

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85
Q

Secondary tumors

A

New types of tumors originating at a site separate from the primary tumor

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86
Q

fractionation

A

radiation is delivered in small, repeated doses rather than in fewer large doses

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87
Q

brachytherapy

A

limits exposure by directly implanting seeds of radioactive material into a tumor (interstitial therapy) or into the cavity of a tumor (intercavitary therapy

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88
Q

external beam radiation (teletherapy)

A

applied to the tumor from a distant source outside the body—namely, a linear accelerator

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89
Q

radiocurable

A

completely eradicated (cured) by radiation therapy

lymphoma

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90
Q

Radiosensitive tumors

A

tumors in which radiation can cause the death of cells without serious damage to surrounding tissue

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91
Q

PSRS (gamma knife surgery)

A

proton stereotactic

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92
Q

radioresistant

A

require large doses of radiation to produce cell death

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93
Q

radiosensitizers

A

drugs that increase the tumor’s sensitivity to x-rays

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94
Q

Chemotherapy

A

uses drugs or chemicals to damage the DNA of cancer cells

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95
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

measure how quickly drugs disappear from the bloodstream and tissues and investigate drug routes

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96
Q

protocol

A

treatment plan

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97
Q

remission

A

partial or complete disappearance of the signs of the disease

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98
Q

NED

A

no evidence of disease

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99
Q

Alkylating agents

A

Attack DNA molecules, causing strand breaks

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100
Q

Antibiotics

A

Promote breakage of the DNA strands, preventing their replication

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101
Q

Antimetabolites

A

Inhibit synthesis of DNA components, or block DNA replication

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102
Q

Antimitotics

A

Block mitosis

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103
Q

Molecularly targeted therapy

A

Blocks the function of growth factors, their receptors, and signaling pathways in tumor cells

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104
Q

hormonal agents

A

Hormones attach to receptor proteins in target tissues and can have growth-inhibiting effects on certain types of cancer

leukemia and breast cancer

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105
Q

immunotherapy

A

use immune cells and antibodies to fight tumor cells.

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106
Q

chimeric antigen receptor T cell (CAR T) therapy

A

T cells are extracted from the patient’s blood and modified

acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) and chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL)

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107
Q

monoclonal antibodies

A

kill tumors by blocking growth receptors on the tumor cell surface

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108
Q

Clinical trials

A

research studies designed to test the risks and efficacy of new drugs

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109
Q

palliative care

A

relieve symptoms

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110
Q

Adjuvant chemotherapy

A

Adding drugs early in the course of treatment to hasten or assist primary treatment in attacking cancer cells

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111
Q

Undifferentiated

A

Lacking structures typical of mature cells

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112
Q

needle biopsy

A

aspiration of a core of tissue for microscopic examination

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113
Q

dysplastic

A

Abnormal but not clearly cancerous

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114
Q

follicul/o

A

Small glandular sacs

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115
Q

x-ray

A

electromagnetic radiation

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116
Q

properties of x-rays

A

Causes exposure of a photographic plate

Penetrates different substances to varying degrees

Travels in straight lines

Ionization

invisibility and scattering

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117
Q

radiolucent

A

Substances that are less dense and permit the passage of x-ray beams

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118
Q

-lucent

A

to shine

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119
Q

radiopaque

A

dense surfaces that absorb x-rays

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120
Q

opaque

A

obscure

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121
Q

film badge

A

monitoring device used to detect radiation exposure

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122
Q

Diagnostic radiography

A

visualization of the body’s structures using radiation from external sources

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123
Q

Digital radiography

A

digital x-ray sensors are used instead of traditional photographic film

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124
Q

Nuclear medicine

A

relies on radioactive substances that are placed within the body or added to laboratory specimens

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125
Q

Radiation therapy / oncology

A

treat cancer

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126
Q

AP

A

anteroposterior

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127
Q

PA

A

posteroanterior

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128
Q

LAT

A

lateral projection (one side to other)

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129
Q

oblique

A

patient at an angle

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130
Q

recumbent

A

lying down

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131
Q

decubitus (decub) position

A

patient lies on the right or left side

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132
Q

tom/o

A

to cut

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133
Q

MDCT

A

multidetector CT

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134
Q

contrast agent / contrast medium

A

substance, either radiopaque or radiolucent, that is introduced into the body to cause structures to appear lighter or darker

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135
Q

types of contrast agents

A

barium (Ba) sulfate, iodine, and nitrogen gas

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136
Q

barium swallow

A

upper GI tract

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137
Q

barium enema (BE)

A

rectal administration of barium sulfate for large intestine

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138
Q

DSA

A

digital subtraction angiography

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139
Q

Cholangiography

A

outline the major bile ducts with iodine

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140
Q

percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography.

A

iodine administered through skin or liver

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141
Q

pyelography (urograms)

A

renal pelvis and urinary tract with iodine

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142
Q

intravenous pyelogram (IVP)

A

iodine administered through vein

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143
Q

retrograde pyelogram

A

iodine administered through urethra and bladder

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144
Q

KUB

A

kidneys, ureters, bladder

no contrast

145
Q

Hysterosalpingography

A

uterus and fallopian tubes

146
Q

Myelography

A

image of spinal cord, injected in subarachnoid space

147
Q

Bronchography

A

bronchial tubes

148
Q

Hypersensitivity Reactions

A

can happen with contrast mediums

149
Q

interventional radiologist

A

physicians who perform minimally invasive procedures under CT guidance or fluoroscopy

150
Q

fluoroscopy

A

use of x-ray beams and a fluorescent screen to produce real-time video images

151
Q

digital image communication (DICOM)

A

standard protocol for transmitting between imaging devices

152
Q

PACS

A

picture archival and communication system

153
Q

sonographer

A

person who performs ultrasounds

154
Q

transducer

A

emits short pulses of high-frequency sound waves that are transmitted into the body

converts to image

155
Q

echo

A

repeated sound

156
Q

echocardiography

A

Diagnostic sonography of the heart and blood vessels

157
Q

Doppler ultrasound

A

allows visualization of a moving structure like blood flow

158
Q

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

uses radio waves and a magnetic field

159
Q

Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) and magnetic resonance venography (MRV)

A

valuable in detecting clots or other blood vessel

160
Q

functional MRI (fMRI)

A

detects blood flow in the brain to evaluate the effects of a stroke and other brain diseases

161
Q

tracer studies

A

Radionuclides (radioisotopes) are tags

162
Q

top/o

A

place

163
Q

is/o

A

same

164
Q

radionuclides emit

A

alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays (electromagnetic radiation)

165
Q

half-life of a radionuclide tells

A

how long the radioactivity it emits will be available for use in imaging

166
Q

radiopharmaceutical (labeled compound)

A

drug containing the radionuclide

167
Q

gamma camera / scintiscanner

A

detect gamma rays

168
Q

Scintigraphy

A

uses radiopharmaceuticals and gamma cameras to create images

169
Q

lymphoscintigraphy

A

injection of a radiotracer and is helpful in detecting lymphatic tumors and evaluating lymphedema

170
Q

ventilation-perfusion scanning (VPS)

A

radiopharmaceutical is inhaled (ventilation) to help show the gas exchange capacity of the lungs and is injected into a vein (perfusion) to trace its passage through the respiratory tract

creates V/Q scans

171
Q

radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU)

A

asses thyroid gland function

172
Q

Scintillation scanning

A

evaluate nodules of the thyroid gland

173
Q

positron emission tomography (PET)

A

glucose, positron, gamma rays used to produce image, shows metabolic activity

174
Q

Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)

A

injection of a more stable radioactive substance than the substance used in PET scanning and uses different detectors, 3D images

175
Q

multiple-gated acquisition (MUGA) scanning

A

electrocardiographic (ECG) leads are placed on the patient and coordinated with a computer and gamma camera, uses technetium-99m, shows heart function and motion

176
Q

myocardial perfusion imaging

A

combination of sestamibi and technetium-99m is used

177
Q

thallium (Tl) scans

A

Thallium is intravenously injected, and its absorption by the cardiac muscle is observed (good to be absorbed)

178
Q

In vitro

A

addition of a radioactive material to a blood or urine specimen after it has been collected

ex: Radioimmunoassay (RIA) studies

179
Q

ventilation studies

A

radiopharmaceutical is inhaled to obtain a lung scan

180
Q

most commonly used radionuclide in diagnostic imaging

A

Technetium-99m

181
Q

what do radiopharmaceutical drugs emit

A

gamma rays

182
Q

Computed tomography, CT

A

beams ionizing x-rays at multiple angles around a specific section of the body to detect disease

183
Q

pharmac/o

A

drugs

184
Q

vit/o

A

life

185
Q

myc/o

A

fungus, mold

186
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

study of the effects of drugs on the body

187
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

drug’s absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion over time

188
Q

Molecular pharmacology

A

study of how drugs interact with subcellular entities i.e. DNA

189
Q

chemical name

A

hemical formula that specifies the exact chemical makeup of the drug

190
Q

generic name

A

what we call the drug

191
Q

USP

A

United States Pharmacopeia

192
Q

parenteral administration

A

drug administered through syringe

193
Q

subcutaneous injection

A

small hypodermic needle is inserted into the subcutaneous tissue

194
Q

intradermal injection

A

made into the upper layers of the skin i.e. allergy testing

195
Q

intrathecal injection

A

delivered into the space underlying the membranes, or meninges, that surround the spinal cord and brain

196
Q

thec/o

A

sheath

197
Q

Topical administration

A

application of a drug via a spray, ointment, cream, or lotion

198
Q

Topical antiseptic

A

act against infection or sepsis

199
Q

antipruritic agents

A

act against itching, or pruritus

200
Q

schedule

A

the timing and frequency of its administration

201
Q

additive

A

combination of two or more drugs taken together is equal to the sum of the effects of each

202
Q

synergism / potentiation

A

combination of drugs working (erg/o) together (syn-) causes an effect that is greater than the sum of the individual effects if each were given alone

203
Q

toxicity

A

unwanted and potentially dangerous effects of some drugs

204
Q

Idiosyncrasy

A

unexpected and uncommon side effect that develops in an individual patient after the administration of a drug

205
Q

cras/o

A

mixture

206
Q

idi/o

A

peculiar, individual

207
Q

ana-

A

upward

208
Q

-phylaxis

A

protection

209
Q

-dote

A

what is given

210
Q

Iatrogenic

A

condition produced by a treatment itself or as a result of errors or individual sensitivity

211
Q

iatr/o

A

treatment

212
Q

Contraindications

A

factors in the patient’s condition that make the use of a drug dangerous and ill advised

213
Q

Analgesics

A

class of drug that relieves pain

types: necrotic, NSAIDS

214
Q

alges/o

A

sensitivity to pain

215
Q

antipyretic

A

drug that fights against fever

216
Q

Anesthetics

A

reduce or eliminate sensitivity to all kinds of sensation

local: works on region applied
general: all CNS

217
Q

antibiotic

A

used to fight live disease-producing organism

218
Q

-cidal

A

pertaining to killing

219
Q

-static

A

pertaining to stopping

220
Q

Anticoagulants

A

prevent clotting in conditions such as thrombosis and embolism or in the blood used in transfusions

ex: Heparin

221
Q

tPA

A

tissue-type plasminogen activator

222
Q

DOAC

A

direct oral anticoagulant, treats atrial fibrillation

223
Q

Antiplatelet

A

reducing the tendency of platelets to stick together

224
Q

anticonvulsant

A

reduce the frequency of convulsions in various types of seizure disorders

225
Q

Antidiabetic

A

used to treat diabetes mellitus

226
Q

Antihistamines

A

relieve the symptoms of anaphylaxis

227
Q

-amine

A

nitrogen containing compound

228
Q

emetic

A

agent is invaluable in inducing vomiting (emesis)

229
Q

Antiosteoporosis drugs

A

prevent abnormal loss of bone density and increase calcium deposition in bone

230
Q

antidepressant

A

relieve depression in a variety of ways: by elevating mood, increasing activity and alertness, and improving appetite and sleep patterns

231
Q

Digoxin

A

control arrhythmias by slowing the heart rate and is used to treat congestive heart failure by increasing the force of contraction of the heart

232
Q

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, also called ACE inhibitors

A

improve the heart’s performance and to reduce its workload, lower blood pressure

233
Q

angiotensin II receptor antagonists

A

for patients who do not tolerate ACE inhibitors, lower BP

234
Q

beta-blockers

A

decrease muscular tone in blood vessels (leading to vasodilation), slow the heart rate, decrease the output of the heart

hypertension and reduce heart attack

235
Q

calcium channel blockers, or antagonists

A

inhibit calcium to dilate the blood vessels, lowering blood pressure

236
Q

Cholesterol-reducing agents (statins), or HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

A

reduce cholesterol’s production in the liver

237
Q

cholestyramine

A

prevent cholesterol uptake

238
Q

diuretics

A

reduce blood volume by stimulating the kidney

239
Q

Bronchodilators

A

used to treat respiratory disorders such as emphysema, asthma, and infections such as pneumonia and bronchitis

240
Q

leukotriene modifiers

A

Prevents asthma attacks by keeping bronchoconstrictors from binding to respiratory tissue receptors

241
Q

androgens

A

used for male hormone replacement therapy; in women, they are helpful in treating endometriosis and breast cancer

242
Q

estrogens

A

used in replacement therapy to ease the symptoms of menopause and to prevent postmenopausal osteoporosis

243
Q

antiandrogen

A

treatment of prostate cancer

244
Q

tamoxifen

A

antiestrogen drug used to prevent the recurrence of breast cancer

245
Q

Aromatase inhibitors

A

reduce the amount of estrogen (estradiol) in the blood

246
Q

selective estrogen-receptor modulators or SERMs

A

treat postmenopausal osteoporosis and breast cancer

247
Q

Progestins

A

prescribed for abnormal uterine bleeding caused by hormonal imbalances

248
Q

calcitonin

A

treats osteoporosis by increasing blood calcium and promoting bone deposition

249
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

treat osteoporosis and stimulate new bone growth

250
Q

growth hormone release–inhibiting factor, or somatostatin

A

treat both acromegaly and gastrointestinal cancers

251
Q

antacids

A

neutralize the stomach’s hydrochloric acid

252
Q

cathartic agent

A

relieve constipation or to promote defecation

253
Q

Antinauseants / antiemetics

A

treat nausea

254
Q

antiulcer

A

treats ulcers

255
Q

sedatives and hypnotics

A

promote sleep, depress CNS

256
Q

tranquilizers

A

can control minor or major anxiety symptoms

benzodiazepine and phenothiazine

257
Q

stimulants

A

inhibit hyperactive behaviors, particularly in children

258
Q

Amphetamines

A

used to prevent narcolepsy, to suppress appetite, and also to calm hyperkinetic children

259
Q

TCA

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

260
Q

SSRIs

A

treat depression

261
Q

Antifungal

A

treat candidiasis of the vagina

262
Q

MAOI

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitor

treats depression

263
Q

Metformin (Glucophage)

A

treats type II diabetes

264
Q

Tetracyclines

A

antibacterial drug

265
Q

Benzodiazepine

A

Sedative-hypnotic and tranquilizer

266
Q

Which would be administered for chronic nerve pain following a shingles infection?

A

the anticonvulsant pregabalin (Lyrica)

267
Q

Amphetamines

A

stimulant

268
Q

psych/o

A

mind

269
Q

id

A

instinct

pleasure principle

270
Q

superego

A

internalized conscience

271
Q

ego

A

rational

reality principle

272
Q

defense mechanisms

A

unconscious reactions

repression

273
Q

anxi/o

A

uneasy, anxious, distressed

274
Q

-pathy

A

feelings

275
Q

dissociative disorder

A

the repression of emotional conflict occurs to such a degree that it brings on an altered state of consciousness or a state of confusion about one’s identity

276
Q

dissociative amnesia

A

sudden inability to recall important personal information

277
Q

Dissociative fugue

A

unexpected travel away from home or work with an inability to recall the past and often with the assumption of a new identity

278
Q

DSM-5-TR

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition, text revision

279
Q

Cluster A

A

odd or eccentric disorders

280
Q

Cluster B

A

dramatic and emotional disorders

281
Q

Cluster C

A

disorders characterized by anxiety and fear

282
Q

Cluster A disorders include

A

paranoid personality, schizoid personality, and schizotypal personality

283
Q

Cluster B disorders include

A

antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic

284
Q

Histrionic personality disorder

A

excessive emotionality and attention-seeking behaviors

285
Q

Cluster C disorders include

A

avoidant personality disorder, Dependent personality disorder, obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

286
Q

neurodevelopmental disorders

A

Delays in developing social and communication skills

ex: autism

287
Q

Interacting with a therapist as if the therapist were a significant figure from the past is called

A

Transference

288
Q

A pervasive developmental disorder characterized by inhibited social interaction and communication and by restricted, repetitive behavior is:

A

Autism spectrum disorder

289
Q

lack of loyalty to or concern for others and an inability to tolerate frustration

A

antisocial

290
Q

instability in interpersonal relationships and sense of self

A

Borderline

291
Q

With schizoid personality disorder, the patient is:

A

Emotionally cold and aloof

292
Q

psychosis

A

significantly unable to appraise the external world accurately

293
Q

hallucin/o

A

to wander in the mind

294
Q

schiz/o

A

split

295
Q

phren/o

A

mind

296
Q

key features of schizophrenia

A

delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking (speech), abnormal motor behavior (Catatonic behavior), negative symptoms (flatness and unwillingness)

297
Q

negative symptoms

A

behavior or feeling that is normally present but is absent or diminished in mental illness

298
Q

treatment of schizophrenia

A

antipsychotics / neuroleptic drugs

299
Q

-leptic

A

seize hold of

300
Q

tardive dyskinesia (TD)

A

abnormal condition characterized by involuntary, repetitive muscle movements

could develop from neuroleptic drugs

301
Q

neurocognitive disorders (NCDs)

A

disorders of cognition, the mental processes of thinking, perception, reasoning, and judgment

dementia and delirum

302
Q

Dementia

A

characterized by confusion, disorientation, deterioration of intellectual capacity, loss of function, and impairment of memory and judgment

303
Q

ADLs

A

activities of daily living

304
Q

Delirium

A

state of agitated excitement, confused and disorganized thinking, incoherent speech, difficulty paying attention, disorientation, and memory impairment

305
Q

acute psychotic reaction to the abrupt withdrawal of alcoholic beverages after long periods of heavy alcohol consumption

A

Delirium tremens (DT)

306
Q

IQ tests

A

intelligence quotient

307
Q

TAT

A

Thematic Apperception Test

308
Q

WAIS

A

Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

309
Q

WISC

A

Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children

310
Q

Graphomotor projection tests

A

draw a person

311
Q

Bender-Gestalt Test

A

screens for developmental challenges

312
Q

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

A

true/false self-report questionnaire that is used to evaluate personality

313
Q

Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

A

relatively short-term, focused therapy for depression, anxiety, anger, marital conflict, phobias, and substance abuse

a person’s own thoughts cause his or her feelings and behaviors

314
Q

insight-oriented psychotherapy / psychodynamic therapy

A

patient can have face-to-face discussions with a therapist on life problems and feelings

315
Q

generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

A

characterized by chronic anxiety, exaggerated worry, and tension, even when little or nothing is present to provoke it

316
Q

panic disorder

A

characterized by recurrent, unexpected panic attacks

317
Q

mental status examination

A

certain questions in a standardized way and responses are evaluated

318
Q

agoraphobia

A

fear is of places or situations

319
Q

agora

A

marketplace

320
Q

social anxiety disorder

A

person has a significant and persistent fear of doing something foolish, humiliating, or embarrassing while in the presence and under the scrutiny of others

321
Q

somatic symptom disorder, also called somatoform disorde

A

patient has physical symptoms that cannot be explained by an actual physical disorder

322
Q

conversion disorder

A

emotional conflict is repressed and changed into a loss or alteration of physical functioning

323
Q

benzodiazepines (BZDs)

A

slow down the transmission of nerve impulses to the brain, antianxiety

324
Q

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

A

prevent the neurotransmitter serotonin from being taken up into nerve endings, allowing it to remain longer in the space between nerve cells

antidepressant

325
Q

clonazepam (Klonopin)

A

benzodiazepines

326
Q

duloxetine (Cymbalta)

A

SNRI

327
Q

phenelzine (Nardil)

A

MAOI

328
Q

A personality test in which pictures are used as stimuli to make up a story is the

A

Thematic Apperception Test

329
Q

Anorexia nervosa

A

prolonged refusal to eat and a fear of becoming obese

330
Q

Bulimia

A

recurrent episodes of binge eating (rapid food consumption), often followed by purging

331
Q

psychoactive substances

A

affect CNS and mood

332
Q

in addition to opioids

A

morphine, codeine, and heroin

CNS depressants

333
Q

Cocaine

A

central nervous system stimulant, produces euphoria

334
Q

methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA), also known as ecstasy; phencyclidine (PCP), also known as angel dust; lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), and ayahuasca

A

Hallucinogenic drugs

335
Q

Mood

A

prolonged emotional state that dominates the personality and colors a person’s view of the world

336
Q

Dysphoria

A

sad, hopeless feeling characterized by depression

337
Q

-phoria

A

feeling

338
Q

affect

A

outward appearance of mood

339
Q

Hypomania

A

lesser mania

340
Q

Cyclothymia

A

mild form of bipolar disorder involving several recurring periods of depression and hypomania

341
Q

-tymia

A

mood

342
Q

Dysthymia

A

persistent depressive disorder, is a chronic psychiatric illness involving a low level of depression for a period of at least 2 years

343
Q

Major depressive disorder (MDD)

A

episodes of severe dysphoria

344
Q

ECT

A

electroconvulsive therapy

treatment of depression

345
Q

lithium

A

reduces mania

346
Q

-mania

A

obsession

347
Q

paraphilias

A

wherein sexual arousal occurs in response to objects or situations that are not normally considered erotic

348
Q

phil/o

A

attraction, love

349
Q

sexual aversion disorder

A

avoiding sex

350
Q

dyspareunia

A

genital pain associated with sexual intercourse

351
Q

Fetishistic Disorder

A

use of an inanimate object to arouse erotic feelings

352
Q

Voyeuristic Disorder

A

sexual excitement and gratification is attained by secretly watching people who are undressing, naked, or engaging in sexual activity

353
Q

Exhibitionistic disorder

A

compulsive need to expose one’s genitals to unsuspecting strangers

354
Q

Sexual sadism

A

infliction of physical or psychologic pain or humiliation on a consenting or nonconsenting partner to achieve sexual excitement

355
Q

sexual masochism

A

need to experience emotional or physical pain to become sexually aroused

356
Q

Physiologic dependence

A

connected to withdrawal

357
Q

Labile

A

unstable

358
Q

The Draw-a-Person test is an example of a

A

projection test

A HEIM 230 (8 decks)

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