Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A HEIM 230 > Unit 4 > Flashcards

Unit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

encephal/o

A

brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

myel/o

A

spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

neur/o

A

nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PNS contains:

A

12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

vag/o

A

vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

plexus

A

large network of nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

somatic NS

A

voluntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

autonomic NS

A

involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

gli/o

A

glial cells (glee-al)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

glial cells

A

connective/supportive tissue that does not carry impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

neurilemma

A

outer membrane of Schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

-ferent

A

carry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

af-

A

to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ef-

A

away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

types of neuroglia (glial cells)

A

astrocyte, oligodendrocyte, microglia, and ependymal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

microglia

A

phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

produce myelin to form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mening/o, meningi/o

A

meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

meninges

A

protective layers of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

dur/o

A

dura mater (may-ter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

three layers of the meninges

A

dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cerebr/o

A

cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cerebell/o

A

cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Major Divisions of the Brain

A

cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon, brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

gyri (jie-rie)

A

ridges/fold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

corpus callosum

A

band of nerves at the base of the fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

frontal lobe

A

voluntary control over muscles, personality, and reasoning and judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

temporal lobe

A

hearing, taste, smell, and memory and learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

parietal lobe

A

language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

occipital lobe

A

processing and interpretation of visual images

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

cerebellum

A

move in a balanced and coordinated manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

thalam/o

A

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

thalamus

A

relay station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

hypothalamus

A

integrates functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems and the processes of the endocrine system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

pont/o

A

pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

medulla oblongata (mud-ella)

A

respiration, heart rate, constricting/dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

pons

A

connection, nerves to eyes and face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

midbrain

A

vision, hearing, motor control, alertness, body temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

neuropathies

A

disease of peripheral nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

radicul/o

A

nerve root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

radiculopathy

A

a disease that affects the nerve root of spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

sciatica (sigh-a-ti-ca)

A

radiculopathy that affects the sciatic nerve root in the back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

hydrocephalus (hydro-ceph-el-es)

A

fluid in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Spina bifida

A

spinal column fails to close completely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Spina bifida cystica

A

spinal cord push through the defective closure of the cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

spina bifida occulta

A

spinal cord does not protrude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

meningocele

A

meninges of the spinal cord protrude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

-cele

A

herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Encephalitis

A

inflammation of the brain, caused by HIV encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Meningitis

A

inflammation of the meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Herpes zoster (shingles)

A

viral infection that affects the peripheral nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

radiculitis

A

nerve root is inflamed, can cause loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

polyneuritis

A

inflammation of multiple related neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

primary brain tumor

A

arises from tissue (meninges and neuroglia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

secondary brain tumor

A

cancer cells have spread from somewhere else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Types of gliomas

A

astrocytomas, oligodendrogliomas, glioblastoma multiforme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) (Lou Gehrig)

A

progressive loss of motor neurons, involuntary movement and loss of thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Huntington disease (Huntington chorea)

A

genetically transmitted degenerative disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Parkinson disease

A

loss of neurons in the midbrain and inadequate production of the neurotransmitter dopamine, muscle tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Tourette syndrome

A

excess or hypersensitivity to dopamine, tics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

dyskinesia

A

involuntary, and spasmodic movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

dys-

A

abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

kinesi/o, kines/o, -kinesia, -kinesis

A

movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

myasthenia gravis (MG)

A

chronic autoimmune disorder in which the motor neurons fail to transmit impulses to the muscles, blocked acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cerebral palsy (CP)

A

partial paralysis, starts at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

bell palsy

A

paralysis of the seventh cranial nerve (facial nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Alzheimer disease (AD)

A

gradual decline in mental ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Epilepsy

A

group of disorders that involve an abnormal discharge of electrical activity from the nerve cells of the cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

seizures

A

sudden uncontrolled bursts of activity from the neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Tonic-clonic seizures (sometimes referred to as ictal events)

A

generalized—sometimes violent—involuntary muscle contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Absence seizures

A

momentary alterations in consciousness, includes petit mal seizures in kids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

A

progressive disorder in which the myelin sheath surrounding neurons in the brain and spinal cord is destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

-phasia

A

speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

aphasia

A

loss of ability to speak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

cerebral aneurysm

A

blood building up in spaces around brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

concussion

A

violent shaking up or jarring of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

comatose

A

sleep that cannot be awoken

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

comat/o

A

deep sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

anesthesia

A

no feeling or nerve sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

esthesi/o, -esthesia

A

nerve sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

contusion

A

bruising of brain tissue caused by movement of the brain inside the skull after blunt trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Cerebrovascular accident (CVA), stroke or Cercerebral infarction

A

normal supply of blood to the brain is interrupted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Thrombosis

A

clot, cause of stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Embolism

A

movement of a clot from a site outside of the brain, cause of stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

cerebral hemorrhage

A

bleeding within the brain from a ruptured cerebral blood vessel, cause of stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

hemiparesis and monoparesis

A

slight paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) (ischemic strokes)

A

temporary neurologic disturbances by occlusion of blood vessels to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

caus/o

A

burning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

migraine

A

unilateral vascular headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

aneurysm

A

localized weakness in a vessel wall that dilates and bursts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Analgesia/analgesic

A

insensitive to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Lumbar puncture (LP) / spinal tap

A

CSF is withdrawn from the spinal cavity using a needle directed into the subarachnoid space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

electroencephalography (EEG)

A

recording of electrical activity in brain, diagnose seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

cerebral angiography

A

motion pictures are taken of the brain’s vascular system after contrast dye, stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Positron emission tomography (PET)

A

shows chemical activity of the brain, cancer or stroke

96
Q

Doppler ultrasound

A

used to detect occlusions after stroke

97
Q

stereotactic or stereotaxic radiosurgery

A

instrument that helps target the precise location of a tumor and then delivers a focused beam of radiation (a gamma knife) to destroy the abnormal growth

98
Q

ventriculoperitoneal shunt

A

drains fluid from brain to abdomen

99
Q

analgesics

A

drugs for pain

100
Q

acyclovir

A

drugs for shingles

101
Q

antiepileptic drugs

A

drugs for seizures

102
Q

levodopa, dopamine therapy

A

drugs for Parkinson’s (electrodes too)

103
Q

interferon

A

drugs for multiple sclerosis

104
Q

acetylcholine therapy

A

for myasthenia gravis

105
Q

Computed tomography

A

multiple computerized images of the brain and spinal cord are taken while contrast material is allowed to leak through the blood-brain barrier from the vessels into the brain

106
Q

optic/o, opt/o

A

vision

107
Q

ocul/o, ophthalm/o, optic/o, opt/o

A

eye

108
Q

blephar/o, palpebr/o

A

eyelids

109
Q

conjunctiv/o

A

conjunctiva

110
Q

conjunctiva

A

mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelids and the anterior part of the eye

111
Q

lacrim/o, dacry/o

A

tears

112
Q

meibomian glands (my-bo-me-an)

A

sebaceous gland at the rim of the eyelids, supplies meibum (prevents evaporation)

113
Q

scler/o

A

hard

114
Q

sclera

A

outer membrane that helps maintain the size and shape of the eyeball and attaches to the muscles that move the eye

115
Q

corne/o, kerat/o

A

cornea

116
Q

cornea

A

transparent structure light passes through

117
Q

choroid layer

A

thin middle membrane with a rich supply of blood vessels

118
Q

irid/o, ir/o

A

iris

119
Q

cycl/o

A

ciliary body

120
Q

cor/o, pupill/o

A

pupil

121
Q

phac/o, phak/o

A

lens

122
Q

lens

A

behind iris, supported by fibers arising from the ciliary body which can change lens shape

123
Q

fundus

A

inner posterior surface of the eye, retina and optic disk and macula lutea

124
Q

retin/o

A

retina

125
Q

papill/o

A

optic disk

126
Q

retina

A

contains rods and cones

127
Q

cones

A

color and central vision

128
Q

rods

A

dim light and for peripheral vision

129
Q

fovea centralis

A

cones, clearest center of vision, macula

130
Q

anterior chamber

A

anterior (contains aqueous humor) and posterior chambers (vitreous humor)

131
Q

Refraction

A

bending of light rays as they pass through to the retina

132
Q

accommodation

A

refractory adjustment of ciliary body to focus as an object draws near

133
Q

optic chiasm

A

merging of optic nerves

134
Q

Convergence

A

movement of the eyes in unison toward a common point of fixation

135
Q

binocular vision

A

see one image with both eyes

136
Q

visual acuity (VA) (ak-q-it-ee)

A

sharpness of visual perception

137
Q

astigmatism

A

unfocused edges of images caused by irregularly curved cornea or lens

138
Q

myopia

A

nearsightedness (can’t see in distance) in front

139
Q

hyperopia/ hypermetropia

A

farsightedness, behind

140
Q

presbyopia

A

age-associated hyperopia, loss of elasticity

141
Q

presby/o

A

old age

142
Q

blepharitis

A

inflammation of eyelid

143
Q

hordeolum / stye

A

bump caused by a bacterial infection of the sebaceous gland

144
Q

chalazion

A

localized swelling, or granuloma, caused by chronic inflammation of the lid’s sebaceous glands, small, hard, cystic mass

145
Q

xanthelasma

A

raised yellowish plaque on the eyelid

146
Q

blepharoptosis

A

drooping of eyelid caused by neuromuscular difficulties

147
Q

Ectropion

A

outward sagging, or eversion, of the eyelid

148
Q

entropion

A

inversion of the eyelid, could lead to abrasion

149
Q

Diabetic retinopathy

A

complication of diabetes mellitus affecting the blood vessels of the retina, could have macular edema

150
Q

age-related macular degeneration (AMD)

A

deterioration of the macula of the retina and the choroid layer of the eye

151
Q

retinal detachment

A

separation in the layers of the retina, could have floaters and photopsia

152
Q

glaucoma

A

outflow of the aqueous humor is blocked, causing an increase in intraocular pressure (IOP), results in damage to optic nerve and retina

153
Q

Hemianopsia

A

loss of vision in opposite field

154
Q

glauc/o

A

gray

155
Q

VF

A

visual field

156
Q

strabismus

A

lazy eye

157
Q

esotropia

A

inward (eso-) deviation or turning (-tropia) of one eye

158
Q

exotropia

A

one eye turns outward

159
Q

hypertropia

A

one eye deviates upward

160
Q

diplopia

A

double vision

161
Q

amblyopia

A

partial loss of vision

162
Q

dipl/o

A

double

163
Q

ambly/o

A

dull, dim

164
Q

Nystagmus (nis-stag-mis)

A

repetitive, rhythmic eye movements of one or both eyes and is usually caused by brain tumors or diseases of the inner ear

165
Q

-tropia

A

turning

166
Q

cataract

A

loss of transparency

167
Q

dacryoadenitis

A

inflammation of lacrimal gland

168
Q

dacryocystitis

A

inflammation of lacrimal sac

169
Q

conjunctivitis

A

inflammation of the conjunctiva

170
Q

xerophthalmia

A

dry eye

171
Q

xer/o

A

dry

172
Q

Snellen chart

A

measures visual sharpness

173
Q

slit-lamp examination and ultrasonography

A

help see if retina is detaching

174
Q

Ophthalmoscopy

A

visualization of changes to the optic disk, diagnose glaucoma

175
Q

fluorescein angiography

A

view blood vessels, can diagnose Diabetic retinopathy

176
Q

slit lamp

A

combines a microscope and a light source, allowing magnified examination of the interior of the eye, can diagnose Diabetic retinopathy, glaucoma, and retinal detachment

177
Q

Optical coherence tomography (OCT)

A

produce cross-sectional view of retina

178
Q

tonometer

A

measure intraocular pressure

179
Q

gonioscope

A

assesses the angle of the anterior chamber

180
Q

visual field test

A

measures peripheral vision

181
Q

photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) and laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK)

A

excimer laser is used to reshape the cornea and thus correct the refractory error

182
Q

laser photocoagulation

A

uses a precisely focused laser to seal leaky blood vessels and to prevent the growth of new ones, treats diabetic retinopathy

183
Q

vitrectomy

A

saline solution replaces the vitreous humor in which blood, treats diabetic retinopathy

184
Q

aspiration

A

removal of cataract lens, hollow needle is inserted to withdraw the lens tissue

185
Q

phacoemulsification

A

ultrasonic vibration is used to break up the cataract lens

186
Q

intracapsular extraction

A

entire lens removed

187
Q

extracapsular extraction

A

some of lens left in place

188
Q

intraocular lens (IOL)

A

implanted in the eye at the time of cataract removal

189
Q

cryotherapy

A

freezer burn is used to create scar tissue that seals holes in the eye’s innermost layer, treats retinal detachment

190
Q

scleral buckling

A

placing a silicone band over the detached area, forcing the layers of the retina together

191
Q

pneumatic retinopexy

A

gas bubble is injected into the vitreous chamber to put pressure on the area of retinal tear until the retina is reattached

192
Q

miotics

A

eye drops improve drainage of aqueous humor and to decrease its production for glaucoma

193
Q

trabeculectomy

A

filtering procedure to treat glaucoma

194
Q

laser therapy

A

which works by creating a hole in the iris (iridotomy) to improve aqueous humor outflow

195
Q

keratoplasty

A

replacement of cornea

196
Q

enucleation

A

removal of the entire eyeball

197
Q

ocular prosthesis

A

fake eye

198
Q

ot/o, aur/o, auricul/o

A

ear

199
Q

equilibrium

A

balance

200
Q

acous/o, audi/o, and audit/o

A

hearing

201
Q

auricul/o

A

auricle

202
Q

cerumen

A

lubricates the ear and prevents the entry of foreign particles (earwax)

203
Q

tympan/o, myring/o

A

tympanic membrane (eardrum)

204
Q

ossicul/o

A

ossicles

205
Q

staped/o

A

stapes

206
Q

salping/o

A

eustachian tube

207
Q

vestibul/o

A

vestibule

208
Q

cochle/o

A

cochlea

209
Q

endolymph

A

fluid in membranous labyrinth, surrounded by perilymph in bony labyrinth

210
Q

organ of Corti

A

sensitive receptor whose hair cells relay sound waves to auditory nerve fibers

211
Q

equilibrium structures involved

A

vestibule and the semicircular canals

212
Q

Vestibule

A

central cavity of the labyrinth connecting the cochlea and semicircular canals

213
Q

Oval window

A

membrane between the middle and inner ears

214
Q

cochlea

A

picked up by the sensory hair cells, produce impulses that are transmitted by the auditory nerve fibers to the cerebral cortex

215
Q

otitis media

A

infection of the middle ear

216
Q

acute otitis media (AOM)

A

childhood disease associated with colds

217
Q

cholesteatoma

A

cystic mass of the middle ear comprised of epithelial cells, sebum, and cholesterol

218
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss

A

caused by disease or trauma to the inner ear or acoustic nerve

219
Q

presbycusis

A

Degenerative changes in the inner ear, associated with old age resulting in hearing impairment

220
Q

-cusis, -acusis

A

hearing

221
Q

Otosclerosis

A

excess formation of bony tissue in the middle ear—particularly at the labyrinth—that attaches to and prevents movement of the stapes

222
Q

ankylosis

A

stiffening, of the stapes prevents it from transmitting sound vibrations to the inner ear, producing a conductive hearing loss

223
Q

Ménière disease

A

accumulation of endolymph in the membranous labyrinth, vertigo, Tinnitus

224
Q

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

A

paroxysmal (having a sudden onset with a short duration) episodes of vertigo

225
Q

acoustic neuroma

A

benign tumor that develops from the acoustic nerve and grows in the auditory canal

226
Q

Weber tuning fork test

A

tuning fork is placed on the midline of the skull, assesses bone conduction of sound

227
Q

Rinne tuning fork test

A

tuning fork is alternately placed near the auditory canal and behind the ear on the mastoid bone

228
Q

audiometry

A

method for measuring hearing acuity and to help establish the degree and severity of hearing loss

229
Q

audiometer

A

electric device used to measure the sensitivity of hearing by delivering a series of acoustic tones that range from very low to very high frequencies

230
Q

serous otitis media (SOM) or otitis media with effusion (OME)

A

accumulation of fluid of middle ear

231
Q

Antibiotic therapy

A

treat serous otitis media

232
Q

myringotomy

A

surgical incision of the eardrum to relieve the pressure and buildup of fluid, pressure-equalizing (PE) tube is placed in the eardrum to provide ventilation, used for acute otitis media

233
Q

cochlear implant

A

converts the spoken word to electrical impulses that bypass the damaged cochlea to stimulate the auditory nerve

234
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

caused by conditions that interfere with the collection and transmission of sound waves through the outer and middle ear

235
Q

eustachian tube

A

equalization of air pressure between middle ear and external atmospheric pressure

A HEIM 230 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions