Unit 4 Flashcards

1
Q

encephal/o

A

brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

myel/o

A

spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

neur/o

A

nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PNS contains:

A

12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

vag/o

A

vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

plexus

A

large network of nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

somatic NS

A

voluntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

autonomic NS

A

involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

gli/o

A

glial cells (glee-al)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

glial cells

A

connective/supportive tissue that does not carry impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

neurilemma

A

outer membrane of Schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

-ferent

A

carry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

af-

A

to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

ef-

A

away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

types of neuroglia (glial cells)

A

astrocyte, oligodendrocyte, microglia, and ependymal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

microglia

A

phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

produce myelin to form myelin sheaths in the central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mening/o, meningi/o

A

meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

meninges

A

protective layers of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

dur/o

A

dura mater (may-ter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

three layers of the meninges

A

dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cerebr/o

A

cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cerebell/o

A

cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Major Divisions of the Brain

A

cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon, brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
gyri (jie-rie)
ridges/fold
26
corpus callosum
band of nerves at the base of the fissure
27
frontal lobe
voluntary control over muscles, personality, and reasoning and judgment
28
temporal lobe
hearing, taste, smell, and memory and learning
29
parietal lobe
language
30
occipital lobe
processing and interpretation of visual images
31
cerebellum
move in a balanced and coordinated manner
32
thalam/o
thalamus
33
thalamus
relay station
34
hypothalamus
integrates functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems and the processes of the endocrine system
35
pont/o
pons
36
medulla oblongata (mud-ella)
respiration, heart rate, constricting/dilation
37
pons
connection, nerves to eyes and face
38
midbrain
vision, hearing, motor control, alertness, body temperature
39
neuropathies
disease of peripheral nerves
40
radicul/o
nerve root
41
radiculopathy
a disease that affects the nerve root of spinal nerves
42
sciatica (sigh-a-ti-ca)
radiculopathy that affects the sciatic nerve root in the back
43
hydrocephalus (hydro-ceph-el-es)
fluid in the brain
44
Spina bifida
spinal column fails to close completely
45
Spina bifida cystica
spinal cord push through the defective closure of the cavity
46
spina bifida occulta
spinal cord does not protrude
47
meningocele
meninges of the spinal cord protrude
48
-cele
herniation
49
Encephalitis
inflammation of the brain, caused by HIV encephalopathy
50
Meningitis
inflammation of the meninges
51
Herpes zoster (shingles)
viral infection that affects the peripheral nerves
52
radiculitis
nerve root is inflamed, can cause loss of function
53
polyneuritis
inflammation of multiple related neurons
54
primary brain tumor
arises from tissue (meninges and neuroglia)
55
secondary brain tumor
cancer cells have spread from somewhere else
56
Types of gliomas
astrocytomas, oligodendrogliomas, glioblastoma multiforme
57
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) (Lou Gehrig)
progressive loss of motor neurons, involuntary movement and loss of thinking
58
Huntington disease (Huntington chorea)
genetically transmitted degenerative disorder
59
Parkinson disease
loss of neurons in the midbrain and inadequate production of the neurotransmitter dopamine, muscle tremor
60
Tourette syndrome
excess or hypersensitivity to dopamine, tics
61
dyskinesia
involuntary, and spasmodic movements
62
dys-
abnormal
63
kinesi/o, kines/o, -kinesia, -kinesis
movement
64
myasthenia gravis (MG)
chronic autoimmune disorder in which the motor neurons fail to transmit impulses to the muscles, blocked acetylcholine
65
Cerebral palsy (CP)
partial paralysis, starts at birth
66
bell palsy
paralysis of the seventh cranial nerve (facial nerve)
67
Alzheimer disease (AD)
gradual decline in mental ability
68
Epilepsy
group of disorders that involve an abnormal discharge of electrical activity from the nerve cells of the cerebral cortex
69
seizures
sudden uncontrolled bursts of activity from the neurons
70
Tonic-clonic seizures (sometimes referred to as ictal events)
generalized—sometimes violent—involuntary muscle contractions
71
Absence seizures
momentary alterations in consciousness, includes petit mal seizures in kids
72
Multiple sclerosis (MS)
progressive disorder in which the myelin sheath surrounding neurons in the brain and spinal cord is destroyed
73
-phasia
speech
74
aphasia
loss of ability to speak
75
cerebral aneurysm
blood building up in spaces around brain
76
concussion
violent shaking up or jarring of the brain
77
comatose
sleep that cannot be awoken
78
comat/o
deep sleep
79
anesthesia
no feeling or nerve sensation
80
esthesi/o, -esthesia
nerve sensation
81
contusion
bruising of brain tissue caused by movement of the brain inside the skull after blunt trauma
82
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA), stroke or Cercerebral infarction
normal supply of blood to the brain is interrupted
83
Thrombosis
clot, cause of stroke
84
Embolism
movement of a clot from a site outside of the brain, cause of stroke
85
cerebral hemorrhage
bleeding within the brain from a ruptured cerebral blood vessel, cause of stroke
86
hemiparesis and monoparesis
slight paralysis
87
transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) (ischemic strokes)
temporary *neurologic* disturbances by occlusion of blood vessels to the brain
88
caus/o
burning
89
migraine
unilateral vascular headache
90
aneurysm
localized weakness in a vessel wall that dilates and bursts
91
Analgesia/analgesic
insensitive to pain
92
Lumbar puncture (LP) / spinal tap
CSF is withdrawn from the spinal cavity using a needle directed into the subarachnoid space
93
electroencephalography (EEG)
recording of electrical activity in brain, diagnose seizures
94
cerebral angiography
motion pictures are taken of the brain's vascular system after contrast dye, stroke
95
Positron emission tomography (PET)
shows chemical activity of the brain, cancer or stroke
96
Doppler ultrasound
used to detect occlusions after stroke
97
stereotactic or stereotaxic radiosurgery
instrument that helps target the precise location of a tumor and then delivers a focused beam of radiation (a gamma knife) to destroy the abnormal growth
98
ventriculoperitoneal shunt
drains fluid from brain to abdomen
99
analgesics
drugs for pain
100
acyclovir
drugs for shingles
101
antiepileptic drugs
drugs for seizures
102
levodopa, dopamine therapy
drugs for Parkinson's (electrodes too)
103
interferon
drugs for multiple sclerosis
104
acetylcholine therapy
for myasthenia gravis
105
Computed tomography
multiple computerized images of the brain and spinal cord are taken while contrast material is allowed to leak through the blood-brain barrier from the vessels into the brain
106
optic/o, opt/o
vision
107
ocul/o, ophthalm/o, optic/o, opt/o
eye
108
blephar/o, palpebr/o
eyelids
109
conjunctiv/o
conjunctiva
110
conjunctiva
mucous membrane that lines the inner surface of the eyelids and the anterior part of the eye
111
lacrim/o, dacry/o
tears
112
meibomian glands (my-bo-me-an)
sebaceous gland at the rim of the eyelids, supplies meibum (prevents evaporation)
113
scler/o
hard
114
sclera
outer membrane that helps maintain the size and shape of the eyeball and attaches to the muscles that move the eye
115
corne/o, kerat/o
cornea
116
cornea
transparent structure light passes through
117
choroid layer
thin middle membrane with a rich supply of blood vessels
118
irid/o, ir/o
iris
119
cycl/o
ciliary body
120
cor/o, pupill/o
pupil
121
phac/o, phak/o
lens
122
lens
behind iris, supported by fibers arising from the ciliary body which can change lens shape
123
fundus
inner posterior surface of the eye, retina and optic disk and macula lutea
124
retin/o
retina
125
papill/o
optic disk
126
retina
contains rods and cones
127
cones
color and central vision
128
rods
dim light and for peripheral vision
129
fovea centralis
cones, clearest center of vision, macula
130
anterior chamber
anterior (contains aqueous humor) and posterior chambers (vitreous humor)
131
Refraction
bending of light rays as they pass through to the retina
132
accommodation
refractory adjustment of ciliary body to focus as an object draws near
133
optic chiasm
merging of optic nerves
134
Convergence
movement of the eyes in unison toward a common point of fixation
135
binocular vision
see one image with both eyes
136
visual acuity (VA) (ak-q-it-ee)
sharpness of visual perception
137
astigmatism
unfocused edges of images caused by irregularly curved cornea or lens
138
myopia
nearsightedness (can't see in distance) in front
139
hyperopia/ hypermetropia
farsightedness, behind
140
presbyopia
age-associated hyperopia, loss of elasticity
141
presby/o
old age
142
blepharitis
inflammation of eyelid
143
hordeolum / stye
bump caused by a bacterial infection of the sebaceous gland
144
chalazion
localized swelling, or granuloma, caused by chronic inflammation of the lid's sebaceous glands, small, hard, cystic mass
145
xanthelasma
raised yellowish plaque on the eyelid
146
blepharoptosis
drooping of eyelid caused by neuromuscular difficulties
147
Ectropion
outward sagging, or eversion, of the eyelid
148
entropion
inversion of the eyelid, could lead to abrasion
149
Diabetic retinopathy
complication of diabetes mellitus affecting the blood vessels of the retina, could have macular edema
150
age-related macular degeneration (AMD)
deterioration of the macula of the retina and the choroid layer of the eye
151
retinal detachment
separation in the layers of the retina, could have floaters and photopsia
152
glaucoma
outflow of the aqueous humor is blocked, causing an increase in intraocular pressure (IOP), results in damage to optic nerve and retina
153
Hemianopsia
loss of vision in opposite field
154
glauc/o
gray
155
VF
visual field
156
strabismus
lazy eye
157
esotropia
inward (eso-) deviation or turning (-tropia) of one eye
158
exotropia
one eye turns outward
159
hypertropia
one eye deviates upward
160
diplopia
double vision
161
amblyopia
partial loss of vision
162
dipl/o
double
163
ambly/o
dull, dim
164
Nystagmus (nis-stag-mis)
repetitive, rhythmic eye movements of one or both eyes and is usually caused by brain tumors or diseases of the inner ear
165
-tropia
turning
166
cataract
loss of transparency
167
dacryoadenitis
inflammation of lacrimal gland
168
dacryocystitis
inflammation of lacrimal sac
169
conjunctivitis
inflammation of the conjunctiva
170
xerophthalmia
dry eye
171
xer/o
dry
172
Snellen chart
measures visual sharpness
173
slit-lamp examination and ultrasonography
help see if retina is detaching
174
Ophthalmoscopy
visualization of changes to the optic disk, diagnose glaucoma
175
fluorescein angiography
view blood vessels, can diagnose Diabetic retinopathy
176
slit lamp
combines a microscope and a light source, allowing magnified examination of the interior of the eye, can diagnose Diabetic retinopathy, glaucoma, and retinal detachment
177
Optical coherence tomography (OCT)
produce cross-sectional view of retina
178
tonometer
measure intraocular pressure
179
gonioscope
assesses the angle of the anterior chamber
180
visual field test
measures peripheral vision
181
photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) and laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK)
excimer laser is used to reshape the cornea and thus correct the refractory error
182
laser photocoagulation
uses a precisely focused laser to seal leaky blood vessels and to prevent the growth of new ones, treats diabetic retinopathy
183
vitrectomy
saline solution replaces the vitreous humor in which blood, treats diabetic retinopathy
184
aspiration
removal of cataract lens, hollow needle is inserted to withdraw the lens tissue
185
phacoemulsification
ultrasonic vibration is used to break up the cataract lens
186
intracapsular extraction
entire lens removed
187
extracapsular extraction
some of lens left in place
188
intraocular lens (IOL)
implanted in the eye at the time of cataract removal
189
cryotherapy
freezer burn is used to create scar tissue that seals holes in the eye's innermost layer, treats retinal detachment
190
scleral buckling
placing a silicone band over the detached area, forcing the layers of the retina together
191
pneumatic retinopexy
gas bubble is injected into the vitreous chamber to put pressure on the area of retinal tear until the retina is reattached
192
miotics
eye drops improve drainage of aqueous humor and to decrease its production for glaucoma
193
trabeculectomy
filtering procedure to treat glaucoma
194
laser therapy
which works by creating a hole in the iris (iridotomy) to improve aqueous humor outflow
195
keratoplasty
replacement of cornea
196
enucleation
removal of the entire eyeball
197
ocular prosthesis
fake eye
198
ot/o, aur/o, auricul/o
ear
199
equilibrium
balance
200
acous/o, audi/o, and audit/o
hearing
201
auricul/o
auricle
202
cerumen
lubricates the ear and prevents the entry of foreign particles (earwax)
203
tympan/o, myring/o
tympanic membrane (eardrum)
204
ossicul/o
ossicles
205
staped/o
stapes
206
salping/o
eustachian tube
207
vestibul/o
vestibule
208
cochle/o
cochlea
209
endolymph
fluid in membranous labyrinth, surrounded by perilymph in bony labyrinth
210
organ of Corti
sensitive receptor whose hair cells relay sound waves to auditory nerve fibers
211
equilibrium structures involved
vestibule and the semicircular canals
212
Vestibule
central cavity of the labyrinth connecting the cochlea and semicircular canals
213
Oval window
membrane between the middle and inner ears
214
cochlea
picked up by the sensory hair cells, produce impulses that are transmitted by the auditory nerve fibers to the cerebral cortex
215
otitis media
infection of the middle ear
216
acute otitis media (AOM)
childhood disease associated with colds
217
cholesteatoma
cystic mass of the middle ear comprised of epithelial cells, sebum, and cholesterol
218
Sensorineural hearing loss
caused by disease or trauma to the inner ear or acoustic nerve
219
presbycusis
Degenerative changes in the inner ear, associated with old age resulting in hearing impairment
220
-cusis, -acusis
hearing
221
Otosclerosis
excess formation of bony tissue in the middle ear—particularly at the labyrinth—that attaches to and prevents movement of the stapes
222
ankylosis
stiffening, of the stapes prevents it from transmitting sound vibrations to the inner ear, producing a conductive hearing loss
223
Ménière disease
accumulation of endolymph in the membranous labyrinth, vertigo, Tinnitus
224
benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
paroxysmal (having a sudden onset with a short duration) episodes of vertigo
225
acoustic neuroma
benign tumor that develops from the acoustic nerve and grows in the auditory canal
226
Weber tuning fork test
tuning fork is placed on the midline of the skull, assesses bone conduction of sound
227
Rinne tuning fork test
tuning fork is alternately placed near the auditory canal and behind the ear on the mastoid bone
228
audiometry
method for measuring hearing acuity and to help establish the degree and severity of hearing loss
229
audiometer
electric device used to measure the sensitivity of hearing by delivering a series of acoustic tones that range from very low to very high frequencies
230
serous otitis media (SOM) or otitis media with effusion (OME)
accumulation of fluid of middle ear
231
Antibiotic therapy
treat serous otitis media
232
myringotomy
surgical incision of the eardrum to relieve the pressure and buildup of fluid, pressure-equalizing (PE) tube is placed in the eardrum to provide ventilation, used for acute otitis media
233
cochlear implant
converts the spoken word to electrical impulses that bypass the damaged cochlea to stimulate the auditory nerve
234
Conductive hearing loss
caused by conditions that interfere with the collection and transmission of sound waves through the outer and middle ear
235
eustachian tube
equalization of air pressure between middle ear and external atmospheric pressure