unit 5 big test Flashcards

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1
Q

what is cardiac output- definition and formula

A

how effectively the heart is pumping. stroke volume multiplied by HR

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2
Q

what does automaticity refer to

A

the ability to initiate signals

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3
Q

what does irritability refer to

A

the ability to respond to signals

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4
Q

what does conductivity refer to

A

the ability to pass on a signal

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5
Q

what is the path of electricity in the heart

A

the SA node, intraarterial tracts and Backman’s Bundle, internodal tracts, the AV node, the bundle of His, bundle branches, purkenji fibers

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6
Q

what brings the electrical impulse to the LA

A

Bachman’s bundle

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7
Q

what happens to the impulse at the AV node

A

it pauses, allowing the atria to empty

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8
Q

what is the inherent rate of the SA node

A

60-100

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9
Q

what is the inherent rate of the AV junction

A

40-60

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10
Q

what is the inherent rate of the purkenji fiberes

A

20-40

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11
Q

what does the P wave represent

A

atrial depolarization

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12
Q

what does the PR segment represent

A

atrial systole and the pause at the AV node

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13
Q

what does the PR interval represent. where do you measure it?

A

the whole atrial cycle except repolarization. measure from beginning of P to Q

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14
Q

what does the QRS complex represent

A

ventricular depolarization

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15
Q

what does the ST segment represent. where do you measure it

A

from the end of S to the beginning of T. it represents ventricular systole.

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16
Q

what does the QT interval represent

A

the complete ventricular cycle

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17
Q

what does the t wave represent

A

ventricular repolarization

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18
Q

what does the U wave represent

A

late repolarization, which is not usually seen

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19
Q

what does the Ta wave represent

A

atrial repolarization, not usually seen as it’s hidden in the QRS

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20
Q

what is the appropriate measurement for the PR interval

A

0.12-0.20 seconds

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21
Q

what is the appropriate measurement for the QT interval

A

0.36-0.44 seconds

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22
Q

how do you use the 6 second method

A

count number of QRS in six seconds and multiply by 10

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23
Q

how do you use the 1500 method

A

count the small boxes between QRS complexes and divide 1500 by the number you counted.

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24
Q

how do you use the 300 method

A

count the number of big boxes between QRS and divide 300 by the number of boxes

25
Q

what makes a rhythm regular

A

when the R-R interval varies by no more than 2 little boxes

26
Q

what happens if the sinus node fails

A

a lower pacemaker will take over at its slower inherent rate

27
Q

what controls conduction in sinus rhythms

A

the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

28
Q

symptoms of decrease cardiac output

A

pallor (paleness), dizziness (vertigo), chest pain (angina), SOB, confusion, decreased urine output, hypotension, diaphoresis

29
Q

what is atropine used for

A

accelerates HR in symptomatic bradycardia

30
Q

what are beta blockers used for

A

to block heart beats. slows the heart in symptomatic tachycardia.

31
Q

what is digitalis used for

A

to increase the strength of contraction (might also slow the heart)

32
Q

acetaminophen brand name

A

tylenol

33
Q

ibuprofen brand name

A

motrin

34
Q

what is the tendency of atrial rhythms

A

rapid rhythms that usurp the sinus

35
Q

where do impulses originate from in atrial rhythms

A

one or more irritable foci

36
Q

what shapes can P waves be in atrial rhythms

A

flat, pointy, notched, biphasic, hidden in T

37
Q

non conducted PACs lack what

A

PR intervals and QRS complexes

38
Q

what does a T wave that is suddenly different from previous ones indicate

A

it is probably hiding a P wave

39
Q

what are non conducted PACs

A

when the premature beat comes before ventricles have repolarized

40
Q

when is there an emergency in sinus arrest

A

a true pause you miss at least one QRS, emergency comes when the pause lasts greater than 6 seconds

41
Q

what is the affect of Afib on cardiac output

A

the atria will not contract, so you lose atrial kick (atrial systole), which is responsible for 15-30 of cardiac output

42
Q

where does conduction originate in junctional rhythms

A

close the the AV node and the bundle of His, but not in the node itself. they can originate in high, low, or mid AV junction.

43
Q

what does retrograde mean

A

the impulse in a junctional rhythm goes backwards to the atria

44
Q

why is P inverted in junctional rhythms

A

because electricity is moving up and to the right towards the atria, instead of down and to the left

45
Q

what does it mean if you have an early beat and you see no P wave

A

if there is no change in the previous T wave, it is a PJC. if the previous T wave looks different than the rest, it is a PAC

46
Q

junctional tachycardia with no visible P wave is called

A

SVT

47
Q

which rhythms are the most lethal

A

ventricular. almost all cause symptoms of decreased cardiac output, including cardiac arrest

48
Q

when viewing ventricular rhythms from lead 2, which way will the QRS face

A

down

49
Q

where do impulses originate in ventricular rhythms

A

in one or more irritable foci and travel slowly through the ventricular tissue

50
Q

what is the name for two PVCs in a row, PVC occurring every other beat, and PVCs occurring every 3rd beath

A

couplets, bigeminy, and trigeminy

51
Q

when are PVCs emergencies

A

when there are more than 6 in a minute, when they are multifocal (mirroring each other), and when R is on T

52
Q

bundle branch blocks

A

they cause a delay as the impulse travels through the block, causing a wide QRS. P wave will be present.

53
Q

what are pacemakers, what are they used for

A

devices that send electrical signals to cause depolarization. they are used to maintain a reasonable HR with bradycardia.

54
Q

what is the difference between a fixed rate and demand pacemaker

A

fixed rates are rarely used. they send signals at a specific interval regardless of the actual rhythm the patient has. demand pacemakers send a signal only if the rate drops below the threshold that is set.

55
Q

what is a captured versus not captured pacemaker spike

A

captured are spikes that are followed by a P or a QRS. not captured are not

56
Q

what do ST segment changes (elevation, depression) indicate

A

MI

57
Q

what do flat T waves indicate

A

hypokalemia

58
Q

what do peaked T waves indicate

A

hyperkalemia

59
Q

what do pathological Q waves indicate

A

MI