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Anatomy I (Fall) > Unit 3 (Hind limb vas/nerves and head/nervous system) > Flashcards

Unit 3 (Hind limb vas/nerves and head/nervous system) Flashcards

1
Q

Where does the external iliac artery arise from the aorta?

A

Level of the 6th or 7th lumbar vertebrae.

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2
Q

Vascular lacuna

A

The point at which the external iliac crosses the abdominal wall and becomes the femoral artery (medial circumflex femoral a. also passes here)
Located in the aponeurosis of the external abdominal oblique (also called the inguinal ligament).

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3
Q

Caudal gluteal artery

A

Larger of two terminal branches of the internal iliac a. (other is internal pudendal)
Gives off cranial gluteal artery and iliolumbar artery.

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4
Q

Cranial gluteal artery

A

From the caudal gluteal artery.

Supplies the middle and deep gluteal mm.

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5
Q

Iliolumbar artery

A

From the caudal gluteal artery.

Supplies the psoas major, iliopsoas, sartorius, tensor fasciae latae, and middle gluteal mm.

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6
Q

Deep femoral

A

Only branch of the external iliac

To the pudendoepigastic trunk and the medial circumflex femoral a.

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7
Q

Pudendoepigastric trunk

A

Gives rise to the caudal epigastric artery and the the external pudendal artery.

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8
Q

Caudal epigastric artery

A

Branch of the deep femoral
Supplies the ventral surface of the abdominal wall.
Mainly rectus abdominis and oblique, transversus abdominalis.

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9
Q

External pudendal artery

A

Passes through the inguinal canal and supplies the external prepuce.

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10
Q

What muscles bound the femoral triangle?

A

Sartorius
Vastus medialis/rectus femoris
Pectineus/adductor

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11
Q

Medial circumflex femoral artery

A

Continuation of the deep femoral and leaves the abdomen in the vascular lacuna.
Deep branch
Transverse branch

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12
Q

Deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral a.

A

Smaller of the two branches.

Supplies adductor and vastus medialis mm.

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13
Q

Transverse branch of the medial circumflex femoral a.

A

Larger of the two branches.

Supplies semimembranosus m.

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14
Q

Femoral artery

A 
Continuation of the external iliac a. 
Branches: 
Superficial circumflex iliac a. 
Lateral circumflex femoral a. 
Proximal caudal femoral a. 
Saphenous a. 
Descending genicular a. 
Middle caudal femoral a. 
Distal caudal femoral a. 
Terminates in the popliteal artery.
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15
Q

Superficial circumflex iliac. a.

A

Supplies sartorius, tensor fasciae latae, and the rectus femoris.

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16
Q

Lateral circumflex iliac a.

A

Supplies all four head of the quadriceps, tensor fasciae latae, superficial and middle gluteals, and the hip joint.

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17
Q

Proximal caudal femoral a.

A

Supplies pectineus, adductor, and gracilis.

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18
Q

Saphenous a.

A

Medial side of the leg only.
Supplies the skin on the medial side of the stifle.
Terminates in a cranial and caudal branch.

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19
Q

Descending genicular a.

A

Supplies the medial stifle

Arises at approximately the same level of the saphenous and the middle caudal femoral a.

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20
Q

Middle caudal femoral a.

A

Supplies adductor and semimembranosus mm.

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21
Q

Distal caudal femoral a.

A

Supplies biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, gastrocnemius, and the digital flexors.

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22
Q

Popliteal a.

A

Termination of the femoral a.
Supplies the stifle, gastrocnemius, and popliteus mm.
Terminates as the cranial and caudal tibial aa.

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23
Q

Lateral saphenous vein

A

Not paired with an artery
Used for venipuncture in the dog.
Terminates in the distal caudal femoral vein .

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24
Q

Cranial branch of the saphenous artery.

A

Supplies flexor surface of the tarsus and terminates in the dorsal common digital arteries.

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25
Q

Caudal branch of the saphenous artery

A

Supplies tarsus and the deep structures of the metatarsus. Terminates in the deep plantar arch supplying the plantar metatarsals.

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26
Q

Cranial tibial artery

A

Underneath the cranial tibial m.

Supplies the fibulas longus, the long digital extensor, and cranial tibial mm.

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27
Q

Lumbosacral plexus

A

Diffuse and consists of the ventral branches of lumbar and sacral spinal nerves (mainly somatic nerves)
Nerves L1 - S3 can contribute
L1-L3 innervate mainly abdominal wall
L4-S3 innervate the hindlimb.

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28
Q

Obturator nerve

A

Runs through the obturator sulcus of the obturator foramen.

Innervates: adductor muscles of the limb (external obturator, pectineus, gracilis, and the adductor).

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29
Q

Femoral nerve

A

Emerges from the iliopsoas muscle and follows the femoral a.
Supplies iliopsoas and the quadriceps mm.

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30
Q

Saphenous nerve

A

Branches off the femoral nerve inside the ilopsoas. Innervates the sartorius, medial side of the leg and paw.

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31
Q

Cranial gluteal nerve

A

Branch from the lumbosacral trunk.

Runs with the cranial gluteal artery to innervate the tensor fasciae late, middle, and deep gluteal mm.

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32
Q

Caudal gluteal nerve

A

Branch from the lumbosacral trunk.

Runs with the caudal gluteal artery to innervate the superficial gluteal m.

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33
Q

Pudendal nerve

A 
In the ischiorectal fossa
Branches: 
Caudal rectal n. 
Perineal nn. 
Dorsal nerve of the penis/clitoris
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34
Q

Caudal cutaneous femoral nerve

A

Runs just superficially to the pudendal nerve.

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35
Q

Caudal rectal nerve

A

Innervates the external anal sphincter

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36
Q

Perineal nerves

A

Innervates the skin of the anus, perineum, muscles of the penis, vestibule, and vulva, and the scrotum or labia. Multiple heading caudally from the pudendal nerve.

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37
Q

Dorsal nerve of the penis

A

Medial nerve off the pudendal nerve.

Sensory to skin of the glans

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38
Q

Dorsal nerve of the clitoris

A

Medial nerve off the pudendal nerve.

Sensory to the clitoris.

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39
Q

Lumbosacral trunk

A

Origin of the sciatic, caudal gluteal, and cranial gluteal nerves near the ischiatic notch.
From the 6th/7th lumbar spinal nerves.

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40
Q

Sciatic nerve

A

Branch from the lumbosacral trunk.
Innervates the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, internal obturator, gemelli, and quadratus femoris mm. with small branches as it passes.
Terminates in the common fibular and tibial nerves.

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41
Q

What is another name for the common fibular nerve?

A

Common peroneal nerve.

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42
Q

Common fibular nerve

A

Smaller branch of the sciatic
Deep and superficial branches
Eventually forms common digital nerves that innervate the paw.

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43
Q

Superficial fibular nerve

A

Caudal branch off the common.

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44
Q

Deep fibular nerve

A

Cranial branch off the common.

Innervates the cranial tibial, long digital extensor, and fibularus longus.

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45
Q

Dorsal pedal artery

A

Branch off of the cranial tibial artery.

Supplies the tarsus and terminates at the arcuate artery at the tarsometatarsal joint.

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46
Q

Arcuate artery

A

Gives off dorsal metatarsal arteries and runs through the ligaments of the foot to the plantar side.

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47
Q

Perforating branch of the arcuate artery

A

Branch that supplies the plantar side of the paw.

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48
Q

Tibial nerve

A

Larger branch of the sciatic nerve.
Passes between the two heads of the gastrocnemius m.
Supplies the extensors of the tarsus/flexors of digits, the gastrocnemius, the stifle, the popliteus, the superficial digital flexor, and both digital deep flexor mm.
Terminates in the medial and lateral plantar nerves.

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49
Q

Tarsal tunnel

A

Formed by the space between the sustentaculum tali, calcanean tuber, and flexor retinaculum.
Contains the tendon of the lateral digital flexor and its synovial sheath, medial and lateral plantar nerves, and the caudal branch of the saphenous a.

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50
Q

Medial and lateral plantar nerves

A

Off the tibial nerve, main innervation to the plantar surface of the hind paw.

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51
Q

Skull

A

Both bony and cartilaginous elements.

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52
Q

Cranium

A

Elements of the skull that surround the brain.

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53
Q

Calvaria

A

Elements of the skull that make up the roof (usually referred to as the dorsal cranium).

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54
Q

Parietal bone

A

Backmost bone of the dorsal skull.

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55
Q

Frontal bone

A

Middle bone of the dorsal skull between the zygomatic arches.

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56
Q

External sagittal crest

A

Formed on the midline of the skull by the parietal and interparietal bones.
Joins with the nuchal crest at the external occipital protuberance.
Lacking in bracheocephalic dog.

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57
Q

Interparietal bone

A

Unpaired bone
Appears to be a bony process off of the occipital bone (fuses prenatally), running between the median fusion of the parietal bone.

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58
Q

Temporal lines

A

Replaces the external sagittal crest in bracheocephalic dogs, running sagittally to the sagittal crest.
Meet the nuchal crest at two individual external occipital protuberances.

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59
Q

Nuchal crest

A

Transverse ridge that marks the transition between the caudal and dorsal surfaces of the skull.

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60
Q

Temporal bones

A 
Lateral to the parietal bone. 
Made up of: 
Squamous part (Zygomatic process)
Tympanic part (tympanic bulla)
Petrous part (inner ear labyrinths, promontory, mastoid process)
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61
Q

Basisphenoid

A

Forms the middle of the ventral part of the cranium between the occipital and pre sphenoid parts.
Two wings on the lateral side of the skull, bear the alar canal.

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62
Q

Presphenoid

A

Forms a small medial spine on the ventral part of the cranium rostral to the basisphenoid bone.
Small wing on the lateral side of the skull that bears the optic foramen.

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63
Q

Nasal bone

A

Rostral dorsal bone. Paired.

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64
Q

Maxilla

A

rostral lateral bone bearing the cheek teeth. Part of the dorsum of the skull and the hard palate.

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65
Q

Incisive bone

A

Most rostral tip of the skull, ventral and dorsal. Bears the upper incisors.
Long nasal process to articulate with the maxilla.

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66
Q

Nasal aperture

A

Opening of the two nostrils between the nasal and incisive bones. More round in brachiocephalic breeds.

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67
Q

Orbit

A

Cavity in which the eye is situated, continuous with the zygomatic arch in the skull. Surrounded by orbital margin, orbital ligament, zygomatic salivary gland, pterygoid muscle, and temporal muscle.

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68
Q

Orbital margin

A 
Bony part of the orbit 
Formed by: 
Maxillary bone 
Frontal bone
Lacrimal bone
Zygomatic bone
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69
Q

Orbital ligament

A

Closes the orbit in life

Superficial to the lacrimal gland.

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70
Q

Zygomatic arch

A 
Formed by: 
Zygomatic process of the maxilla
Zygomatic bone
Zygomatic process of the temporal bone
Origin of the masseter muscle
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71
Q

Pterygopalatine fossa

A

Located ventral to the orbit

Formed by the maxilla, palatine bone, and the zygomatic bone.

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72
Q

Optic canal

A

Passes through the presphenoid bone.

Bears: optic nerve

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73
Q

Orbital fissure

A

Formed by the articulation between the basisphenoid and presphenoid bones
Bears: oculomotor, trochlear, abducent, and ophthalmic nerves plus some vessels.

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74
Q

Rostral alar foramen

A

Passes through the basisphenoid bone
Rostral entrance into the alar canal
Bears: maxillary artery and maxillary nerve

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75
Q

Temporal fossa

A

Convex space on the parietal and temporal bones that is bounded by the sagittal line, nuchal crest, and the zygomatic process.

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76
Q

Caudal palatine foramen

A

Ventral foramen on the rostral part of the pterygopalantine fossa.
Bears the major palatine artery, vein, and nerve moving into the palatine canal to the hard palate.

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77
Q

Sphenopalatine foramen

A

Dorsal foramen on the rostral part of the pterygopalantine fossa.
Bears the sphenopalatine artery and vein and the caudal nasal nerve into the nasal cavity.

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78
Q

Maxillary foramen

A

Caudal opening of the infraorbital canal, found in the rostral portion of the zygomatic arch.
Bears the infraorbital artery, vein, and nerve

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79
Q

Alveolar canals

A

Found around the maxillary foramen for small nerves to the molars.

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80
Q

Fossa for the lacrimal sac

A

Dorsal to the maxillary foramen in the ventral part of the orbit.
Continues into the nasolacrimal canal.

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81
Q

Infraorbital foramen

A

Rostral opening of the infraorbital canal.

Dorsal to the 3rd premolar tooth.

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82
Q

Alveolar juga

A

Lateral elevations of the maxilla bone to allow space for the roots of the cheek teeth.

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83
Q

Paracondylar process

A

Ventral projection of the occipital bone lateral to the occipital condyles.
Articulates with the lateral part of the tympanic bulla.
Origin of the digastricus muscle.

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84
Q

Occipital bone

A 
Forms the caudal part of the skull
Four parts from prenatal bone fusion
Basiocciptal bone
Paired exoccipitals (bear the condyles)
Supraoccipital bone
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85
Q

Tympanic bulla

A

Encloses the middle ear cavity and its ossicles.

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86
Q

Ear ossicles

A

Incus, Stapes, and Malleus

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87
Q

External acoustic meatus

A

Open portion on the lateral side of the tympanic bulla through which the promontory can be seen. Covered by tympanic membrane in life which is then surrounded by the annular cartilage of the external ear around the periphery.

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88
Q

Promontory

A

Barral shaped eminence on the ventral surface of the tympanic bulla.
Contains the vestibular and cochlear windows.

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89
Q

Cochlear window

A

End of the “barrel” of the promontory.

Closed in life by a membrane.

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90
Q

Vestibular window

A

On the dorsal side of the “barrel” of the promontory.

Contains the footplate of the stapes

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91
Q

Incus

A

One of three ear ossicles

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92
Q

Malleus

A

One of three ear ossicles

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93
Q

Stapes

A

One of three ear ossicles

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94
Q

Mastoid process

A

Only external part of the petrosal part of the temporal bone. Lies lateral to the paracondylar process.

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95
Q

Oval foramen

A

Entrance from the cranial cavity to the lateral side of the skull.
Bears the mandibular nerve from the trigeminal nerve.

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96
Q

Foramen lacerum

A

Rostromedial edge of the tympanic bulla.
Bears a loop of the internal carotid artery that courses rostrally through the carotid canal and entered the cavernous sinus on the floor of the cranial cavity.

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97
Q

Musculotubal canal

A

Lateral to the foramen lacerum and less visible.

Bears the auditory tube that connects the oral and nasal cavities

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98
Q

Tympano-occiptial fissure

A

Opening between the occipital bone and the tympanic part of the temporal bone.
Two parts: petro-occipital canal (ventral petrosal venous sinus) and carotid canal (internal carotid artery)

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99
Q

Hypoglossal canal

A

Caudomedial to the tympano-occiptal fissure

Bears the hypoglossal nerve

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100
Q

Caudal alar foramen

A

Caudal opening of the alar canal in the basisphenoid bone.

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101
Q

Round foramen

A

Opening from the cranial cavity into the alar canal. Bears the maxillary nerve from the trigeminal nerve. This will exit from the rostral alar foramen. 1

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102
Q

Mandibular fossa

A

Depression for articulation of the condylar process of the mandible on the zygomatic process of the temporal bone.

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103
Q

Retroarticular process

A

Caudal wall of the medial aspect of the mandibular fossa

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104
Q

Retroarticular foramen

A

Caudal to the retroarticular process

Bears the emissary vein

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105
Q

Stylomastoid foramen

A

Between the tympanic bulla and the mastoid process.

Bears the facial nerve

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106
Q

Interalveolar septae

A

Separate the alveoli of adjacent teeth

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107
Q

Interradicular septae

A

Separate the alveoli of teeth with multiple roots

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108
Q

Hard palate

A

Formed from the ventral horizontal parts of the incisive, maxilla, and palatine bones.

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109
Q

Palatine fissure

A

Two large holes in the incisive bone near the incisors.

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110
Q

Major palatine foramen

A

Medial to the fourth cheek tooth.

Bears branches of the major palatine artery, vein, and nerve.

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111
Q

Minor palatine foramina

A

Caudal to the major palatine foramen.

Bears branches of the major palatine artery, vein, and nerve.

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112
Q

Choanae

A

Openings of the right and left nasal cavities into the nasopharynx. Located at the caudal end of the hard palate where the vomer articulates with the palatine bones.

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113
Q

Basioccipital bone

A

Base of the caudal part of the foramen magnum and caudal part of the ventral surface of the cranium.

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114
Q

Foramen magnum

A

Large foramen that bears the medulla of the brain stem (continues as the spinal cord) and is surrounded by the occipital condyles.

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115
Q

Mandible

A

Compose the inferior jaw.
Join at the intermandibular articulation.
Has a body and ramus.

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116
Q

Body of the mandible

A

Horizontal part of the mandible.

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117
Q

Ramus of the mandible

A

Vertical part of the mandible.

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118
Q

Alveolar border of the mandible

A

Dorsal part of the mandible that bears the alveoli of the inferior teeth.

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119
Q

Masseteric fossa

A

Triangular fossa on the lateral side of the mandibular ramus.
Insertion for the masseter muscle.

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120
Q

Coronoid process of the mandible

A

Most dorsal part of the mandibular ramus.

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121
Q

Mandibular foramen

A

Caudal opening of the mandibular canal on the medial side of the mandible.

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122
Q

Mandibular canal

A

Bears the inferior alveolar artery and vein and inferior alveolar nerve

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123
Q

Mental foramina

A

Usually three, the rostral openings of the mandibular canal.
Allows the inferior alveolar nerve to innervate the chin and lower lip.

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124
Q

Condylar process of the mandible

A

Middle part of the mandibular ramus that articulates with the mandibular fossa as the temporomandibular joint.

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125
Q

Temporomandibular joint

A

Between the condylar process of the mandible and the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone.

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126
Q

Mandibular notch

A

Between the coronoid and condylar processes. U-shaped depression.
Bear the motor branches of the mandibular nerve that innervate the masseter muscle.

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127
Q

Angular process of the mandible

A

Most ventral part of the mandibular ramus.
Insertion for the temporal muscle.
Hooked in the dog.
Insertion of the pterygoid muscle on the medial side.

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128
Q

Bones of the hyoid apparatus

A 
Tympanohyoid cartilage
Stylohyoid
Epihyoid 
Ceratohyoid
Basihyoid
Thyrohyoid
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129
Q

What is the molar/premolar status of the inferior and superior carnassials?

A 
Superior = last premolar
Inferior = first molar
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130
Q

Parts of the tooth

A

Crown, root, and neck

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131
Q

Cheek teeth

A

Molars and premolars

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132
Q

Dental formula of the adult dog

A 
I 3/3
C 1/1
P 4/4
M 2/3
Total = 42 with 10/11
All = half, left or right
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133
Q

Dental formula of the young dog with milk teeth

A

I 3/3
C 1/1
P 3/3
Totatl = 28 with 7/7

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134
Q

Premolar carrying space

A

Between the premolars when the mouth is closed.

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135
Q

Surfaces of the teeth

A

Vestibular surface = lateral tooth surface
Lingual surface = inferior medial tooth surface
Palantine surface = superior medial tooth surface
Mesial contact surface: rostral side of the tooth
Distal surface: caudal side of the tooth
Occlusal/masticating suface: top of the tooth

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136
Q

Cribriform plate

A

Caudal wall of the ethmoid bone, rostral boundary of the cranial cavity.
Transmit blood vessels to the brain and olfactory nerves to the olfactory bulbs.
Holes = olfactory foramina

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137
Q

Rostral cranial fossa

A

Rostral to the optic canal.

Contains the olfactory bulbs of the brain and the rostral part of the frontal lobes.

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138
Q

Middle cranial fossa

A

Between the optic canal and the petrosal crest.
Contains most of the paired foramina of the cranial cavity. Rostral to caudal is:
Optic canal
Orbital fissure
Round foramen
Oval foramen
Contains the parietal and temporal lobes of the cerebrum.

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139
Q

Caudal cranial fossa

A

Between the petrosal crest and the foramen magnum.

Contains the cerebellum, the pons, and the medulla.

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140
Q

Ethmoid bone

A

Cribriform plate and the attached ethmoid labyrinth as well as the bony portion of the nasal septum and the orbital laminae.

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141
Q

Sella turcica

A

“Turkish saddle” composed of the hypophyseal fossa and the dorsum sellae.

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142
Q

Hypophyseal fossa

A

Small depression rostral to the dorsum sellae that contains the pituitary gland.

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143
Q

Dorsum sellae

A

Unpaired quadrilateral process in the middle cranial fossa.

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144
Q

Canal for the trigeminal nerve

A

In the tip of the petrosal process of the temporal bone
Trigeminal nerve will pass through this before breaking into three parts to pass through the foramina in the middle cranial fossa.

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145
Q

Internal acoustic meatus

A

Caudal to the canal for the trigeminal nerve

Contains the facial and vestibulocochlear nerve

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146
Q

Cerebellar fossa

A

Dorsocaudal to the internal acoustic meatus

Contains a small lateral portion of the cerebellum.

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147
Q

Jugular foramen

A

Between the petrosal temporal and the occipital bones inside the cranial cavity
Opens to the tympano-occipital fissure.
Contains the glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory cranial nerves and the sigmoid venous sinus.

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148
Q

Hypoglossal canal

A

Contains the hypoglossal nerve

Caudal to the jugular foramen and medial to the condyloid canal.

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149
Q

Tentorium osseum

A

Rostroventral projection of the caudal wall of the cranial cavity and bears the tentorium cerebelli.

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150
Q

Tentorium cerebelli

A

Connection of dural membrane between the petrosal processes and the tantrum osseum.
Separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum

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151
Q

Nasopharynx

A

Cavity just rostral to the chonae

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152
Q

Conchae

A

Turbinates, bony scrolls inside the nasal cavity. In life are covered by epithelium.

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153
Q

Dorsal nasal concha

A

Most dorsal scroll off of the cribriform plate. Extends as the shelf attached along the medial surface of the nasal bone.

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154
Q

Ventral nasal concha

A

Attach to a crest on the medal surface of the maxilla. In the middle of the nasal cavity but never contacts the median nasal septum.

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155
Q

Ethmoidal labyrinth

A

Attached to the cribriform plate. Very delicate and compose the fundus of the nasal cavity.

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156
Q

Ectoturbinates

A

Extension of the ethmoidal labyrinth into the rostral portion of the frontal sinus

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157
Q

Endoturbinates

A

Extension of the ethmoidal labyrinth to the vomer (which separates the labyrinth from the nasopharynx) and the presphenoid.

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158
Q

Nasal septum

A

Separates the right and left nasal cavities. Septal cartilage in the rostral 2/3, osseous part formed by the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, septal processes of the frontal and nasal bones, and the sagittal potion of the vomer.

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159
Q

Septal cartilage

A

The cartilaginous portion of the nasal septum in the rostral 2/3. Articulates with cartilage at the nares that prevent collapse of the nostrils. Ventrally, fits into a groove formed by the vomer.

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160
Q

Dorsal nasal meatus

A

One of four passages through the concha. Between the nasal bone and the dorsal nasal concha.

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161
Q

Middle nasal meatus

A

One of four passages through the concha. Between the dorsal nasal concha and the ventral nasal concha.

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162
Q

Ventral nasal meatus

A

One of four passages through the concha. Between the ventral nasal concha and the hard palate.

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163
Q

Common nasal meatus

A

One of four passages through the concha. Vertical space on each side of the nasal septum where a nasal feeding tube may be passed.

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164
Q

Lateral frontal sinus

A

Largest of the sinuses and the only that has clinical relevance.
Occupies the zygomatic process and then extends caudally. Often has partial bony separations. Reaches from midline to the temporal line.

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165
Q

Rostral frontal sinus

A

Small between the median plane and the orbit.

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166
Q

Medial frontal sinus

A

Small between the median plane, rostral frontal sinus, and lateral frontal sinus.

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167
Q

Maxillary recess

A

Communicates with the nasal cavity with an opening through the rostral roots of the fourth superior premolar (carnassial). Continues caudally to the last molar tooth.

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168
Q

Lateral nasal gland

A

Occupies the rostral part of the maxillary recess. Duct opens into the dorsal vestibule. Secretions to prevent desiccation caused by nasal panting.

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169
Q

Articular disc of the temporomandibular joint

A

Thin cartilagenous disc that separates the articular surfaces of the temporal bone and mandible. Divides the joint capsule into two compartments.

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170
Q

Philtrum

A

The median grew separating the right and left parts of the superior lip. Incorrect fusion can cause a cleft lip here in fetal development.

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171
Q

Vestibule

A

The space in between the lips and the teeth/gums

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172
Q

Platysma

A

Attachments: dorsal median raphe of the neck and angle of the mouth.
Radiates into the orbicularis oris.
“Smiling” or panting muscle

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173
Q

Orbicularis oris

A

Extends from one lip to the other around the angle of the mouth.
Connects at the median plane in the incisor region at the median plane of each jaw.

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174
Q

Buccinator muscle

A

Thin wide muscle that forms the foundation of each cheek.

Attachments: alveolar margins of the mandible and maxilla and the buccal mucosa.

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175
Q

Other name for lips

A

Inferior and superior labia oris

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176
Q

Other name for cheeks

A

Buccae

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177
Q

Levator nasolabialis

A

Flat muscle attaching to the maxillary bone and edge of superior lip and nares.
Action: dilates the nostril and raises the superior lip.

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178
Q

Superior and inferior palpebrae

A

Top and bottom eyelids

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179
Q

Palpebral fissure

A

Gap between the eyelids

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180
Q

Medial and lateral palpebral commissures

A

Joining of the eyelids on either side of the palpebral fissure. Each attached by ligaments to the adjacent bone.

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181
Q

Medial and lateral palpebral ligaments

A

Attach the medial and lateral palpebral commissures to the adjacent bone. Medial is well developed and attaches to the frontal bone. Lateral is poorly developed and attaches to the zygomatic bone.

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182
Q

Palpebral conjunctiva

A

Mucous membrane on the inner surface of the eyelid.

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183
Q

Bulbar conjunctiva

A

Mucous membrane continuous with the palpebral conjunctiva on the globe of the eye

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184
Q

Fornix

A

Pocket formed between the bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva.

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185
Q

Conjunctival sac

A

Potential cavity formed by the fornix between the palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva

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186
Q

Lacrimal caruncle

A

Triangular prominence of finely furred skin at the medial commissure of the eye.

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187
Q

Lacrimal punctum

A

Beginning of the dorsal and ventral lacrimal ducts, a few millimeters from the medial commissure.

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188
Q

Lacrimal gland

A

Located ventral to the zygomatic process.
Secretes serous fluid through duct openings into the dorsolateral part of the conjunctival sac.
Goblet cells and tarsal glands also aid in forming tear secretion.

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189
Q

Lacrimal canaliculi

A

Collection of serous fluid from the lacrimal gland after it has passed over the cornea and was collected by the lacrimal puncta.

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190
Q

Lacrimal sac

A

Collection of the serous fluid from the lacrimal canaliculi.

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191
Q

Nasolacrimal duct

A

Moves the fluid from the lacrimal sac to the ventral nasal meatus where evaporation takes place.
Opens on the ventral aspect of the alar fold in the nose.

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192
Q

Plica semilunaris

A

Third eyelid
Concave fold of palpebral conjunctiva and cartilage protruding from the medial angle of the eye.
Surrounding by the superficial gland of the third eyelid and some lymphoid tissue.

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193
Q

Superficial gland of the third eyelid

A

Fat and glandular tissue surrounding the cartilage in the plica semilunaris. Secretes serous solution.

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194
Q

Orbicularis oculi

A

Lies in the eyelids.

Attached medially to the medial palpebral ligament.

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195
Q

Retractor anguli oculi lateralis

A

Covers the lateral palpebral ligament.

Closes the palpebral fissure

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196
Q

Levator palpebrae superioris

A

Arises deep within the orbit

Elevates the superior lid.

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197
Q

Rostral auricular muscles

A

Lie on the forehead caudal to the orbit and converge towards the auricular cartilage. Meet on the midline.

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198
Q

Scutiform cartilage

A

Boot-shaped cartilagenous plate in the muscles rostral and medial to the external ear. Isolated.

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199
Q

Caudal auricular muscles

A

Arise from the median raphe of the neck and attach directly to the auricular cartilage.

200
Q

Oral cavity

A

Divided into the vestibule and the oral cavity proper.

201
Q

Ducts of the zygomatic gland

A

Open into the vestibule lateral ago the last superior molar

202
Q

Palatoglossal arch

A

Fold of tissue that extends from the body of the tongue to the beginning of the soft palate.

203
Q

Mimetic muscles

A

Muscles of facial expression - many small superficial muscles of the face all innervated by the facial nerve.

204
Q

Parts of the tongue

A

Root (caudal third)
Body (rostral to the body but still connected by the frenulum)
Apex (free extremity)

205
Q

Filiform papillae

A

Found on the body and apex of the tongue

Tips directed caudally

206
Q

Conical papillae

A

Replace the filiform papillae at the root of the tongue - one pointed tip.

207
Q

Fungiform papillae

A

Smooth, rounded surfaces, fewer in number within both the filiform and conical papillae. Taste buds.

208
Q

Foliate papillae

A

Lateral margins of the root of the tongue rostral to the palatoglossal arch. Taste buds.

209
Q

Vallate papillae

A

Located at the junction of the body and root of the tongue.

4-6 in the dog arranged in the form of a V with apex directed caudally. Taste buds.

210
Q

Lingual frenulum

A

Ventral fold of mucosa that attaches the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity.

211
Q

Sublingual caruncle

A

Slightly raised part of the mucosa lateral to the rostral part of the frenulum and protrudes from the floor of the oral cavity.

212
Q

Sublingual fold

A

Extends caudally from the caruncle.

213
Q

Mandibular duct

A

Found in the sublingual fold.

Separate or common opening with the mandibular duct on the sublingual caruncle.

214
Q

Major sublingual duct

A

Found in the sublingual fold. Separate or common opening with the mandibular duct on the sublingual caruncle.

215
Q

Lyssa

A

Fusiform fibrous spicule that lies in the ventral part of the apex of the tongue.

216
Q

Mandibular salivary gland

A

Large round gland on the side of the head between the maxillary and linguofacial veins. Covered by a thick capsule.

217
Q

Sublingual gland

A

Caudal also included in the capsule of the mandibular salivary gland.

218
Q

Parotid salivary gland

A

Lies between the mandibular gland and the ear. Roughly V-shaped.

219
Q

Parotid lymph node

A

Small lymph node rostral to the parotid salivary gland.

220
Q

Parotid duct

A

Formed by 2-3 covering radicles leaving the rostral border of the gland.
Runs across the masseter, leaving a groove on the muscle. Opens into the vestibule on a small papilla at the level of the caudal margin of the superior carnassial.

221
Q

Zygomatic salivary gland

A

Medial to the zygomatic bone between the eyeball and the pterygoid muscle.

222
Q

Incisive papilla

A

Small eminence located just caudal to the central incisor teeth.

223
Q

Incisive duct

A

Fissure on either side of the incisive papilla that opens into the ventral nasal meatus.

224
Q

Vomeronasal organ

A

Extends caudally from the incisive duct. Olfactory receptor for sexual stimuli or kin recognition. Very small and on the sagittal plane - does not exceed 1 mm thick and 2-3 cm long.

225
Q

Oropharynx

A

Extends from the palatoglossal arches to the caudal border of the soft palate. Contains the palatine tonsil.

226
Q

Palatine tonsil

A

Located caudal to the palatoglossal arches. Attached laterally to the palatine fossa.

227
Q

Semilunar fold

A

Medial wall of the palatine fossa that folds over the palatine tonsil.

228
Q

Nasopharynx

A

Extends from the chonae to the caudal end of the soft palate.

229
Q

Palatopharyngeal arch

A

Folds that extend from the caudal end of the soft palate to the dorsolateral wall of the nasopharynx. Marks the end of the nasopharynx.

230
Q

Auditory tube

A

Slitlike opening in the lateral wall of the nasopharynx dorsal to the soft palate.

231
Q

Laryngopharynx

A

Dorsal to the larynx. From the palatopharyngeal arches to the beginning of the esophagus. Not a clear distinction between the oropharynx and the laryngopharyx.

232
Q

Pharyngoesophageal limen

A

Annular constriction of soft tissue at the level of the cricoid cartilage, marking the beginning of the esophagus.

233
Q

Pharyngeal muscles (8)

A 
Cricopharyngeus
Thyropharyngeus
Hyopharyngeus
Palatopharyngeus
Pteryopharyngeus
Stylopharyngeus
Levator veli palatini
Tensor veli palatini
234
Q

Cartilages of the larynx

A

Epiglottic
Thyroid
Artenoid
Cricoid

235
Q

Epiglottic cartilage

A

Unpaired. Most cranial of the laryngeal cartilages.
Lingual surface attached to the basihyoid bone.
Lateral margin attached by mucosa to the cuneiform process of the arytenoid process.
Attaches to the body of the thyroid process caudally.

236
Q

Epiglottic fold

A

Formed from the mucosa between the the cuneiform process of the arytenoid cartilage to the lateral margin of the epiglottic cartilage.

237
Q

Thyroid cartilage

A

Unpaired. Deep trough that surrounds the ventrolateral aspects of the other cartilages cranially.

238
Q

Rostral cornu of the thyroid cartilage

A

Articulation with the thyrohyoid bone.

239
Q

Caudal cornu of the thyroid cartilage

A

Articulation with the caudal aspect of the cricoid cartilage

240
Q

Caudal thyroid incisure

A

Notch on the ventral side of the thyroid cartilage that holds the cricothyroid ligament.

241
Q

Cricothyroid ligament

A

Connects the caudal border of the thyroid cartilage to the cranial border of the cricoid cartilage.

242
Q

Cricoid cartilage

A

Unpaired. A complete ring on the ventral aspect of the larynx. Has a lamina (wide dorsal plate) and a narrow ventral arch. Has a caudolateral facet for articulation with the thyroid cartilage and a craniolateral facet for articulation with the with corniculate process of the arytenoid cartilage.

243
Q

Arytenoid cartilage

A

Paired. Mainly within the cricoid cartilage.

244
Q

Muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage

A

Lateral. Attaches to laryngeal musculature.

245
Q

Vocal process of the arytenoid cartilage

A

Ventral. Attaches to the vocal fold.

246
Q

Corniculate process of the arytenoid cartilage

A

Dorsal, articulates with the cricoid cartilage.

247
Q

Cuneiform process of the arytenoid cartilage

A

Cranial. Attachement for the vestibular fold.

248
Q

Vestibular fold

A

Attached between the cuneiform process of the arytenoid cartilage and the thyroid cartilage. Rostral fold of the laryngeal ventricle.

249
Q

Vocal fold

A

Attached between the vocal process of the arytenoid cartilage and the midventral part of the thyroid cartilage. Caudal fold of the laryngeal ventricle.

250
Q

Laryngeal ventricle

A

Diverticulum of the laryngeal mucosa bounded by the vocal and vestibular folds. Important in phonation.

251
Q

Pharynx

A

Open spaces formed in the caudal part of the head from nose and mouth to larynx.

252
Q

Larynx

A

Structure formed by the four laryngeal cartilages.

253
Q

Glottis

A

Structure formed by the vocal folds, vocal processes of the arytenoid cartilages, and the rima glottidis.

254
Q

Rima glottidis

A

Narrow passageway through the glottis. Size and shape modulated by muscular activity.

255
Q

Cricothyroid muscle

A

Lies ventral to the insertion of the sternothyroideus over the cricoid cartilage and trachea. Indirectly tenses the vocal cords (increases pitch) by drawing the ventral parts of the cricoid and thyroid cartilages together.
Innervated by the cranial laryngeal nerve, a branch of the vagus.
Only laryngeal muscle seen best on the lateral side of the head.

256
Q

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

A

Dorsolateral surface of the cricoid to the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage. Rotates the arytenoid so that the vocal process moves laterally and opens the glottis. This is accomplished by pulling the muscular process caudomedially. Very important during heavy breathing.
Innervated by the caudal laryngeal nerve (off the recurrent laryngeal n.)
Dysfunction can cause exercise intolerance, “roaring,” laryngeal paralysis.

257
Q

Cricoarytenoideus lateralis

A

Lateral surface of the cricoid cartilage to the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage between the cricoarytenoidus dorsalis and the vocalis. Acts to close the glottis by pulling the muscular process ventrally and thus moving the vocal process medially.
Innervated by the caudal laryngeal nerve (off the recurrent laryngeal n.)
Disfunction causes increased likelihood of coughing/gagging/choking or aspiration pneumonia.

258
Q

Thyroarytenoideus

A

Gives rise to the vocals medially and the ventricular rostrally. Internal midline of the thyroid cartilage to arytenoid cartilage. Relaxes the vocal fold (deepens pitch) and constricts the glottis.
Innervated by the caudal laryngeal nerve (off the recurrent laryngeal n.)

259
Q

Vocalis

A

Medial division of the thyroarytenoideus, from internal midline of the thyroid cartilage to vocal process of the arytenoid cartilage.

260
Q

Vocal ligament

A

Attached to the rostral border of the vocalis to attach it to the vocal process of the arytenoid cartilage.

261
Q

Laryngeal muscles (4)

A

Cricothyroideus
Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis
Cricoarytenoideus lateralis
Thryoartenoideus

262
Q

Auricular cartilage

A

aka pinna

One cartilage that is funnel shaped and forms the entirety of the external ear.

263
Q

Tragus

A

Rostral boundary of the ear canal, think quadrangular plate.

264
Q

Marginal cutaneous sac

A

aka cutaneous marginal pouch

Indentation/incisure at the lateral portion of the helix of the pinna.

265
Q

Annular cartilage

A

Circular ring of cartilage that connects the auricular cartilage to the external acoustic meatus, helping form the ear canal.

266
Q

Temporalis muscle

A

Attachments: Temporal fossa to coronoid process of the mandible.
Action: Close the jaw
Innervation: Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)

267
Q

Masseter muscle

A

Attachments: Zygomatic arch and masseteric fossa on the ventrolateral surface of the mandible. Fibers blend with the fibers of the temporals muscle in deep portion. Covered by a large aponeurosis.
Action: Close the jaw
Innervation: Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)

268
Q

Zygomatic salivary gland

A

Found directly ventral to the eye underneath the zygomatic arch. Gland opens into the vestibule by one main and several minor ducts lateral to the last superior molar tooth.

269
Q

Medial and lateral pterygoid muscles

A

Hard to distinguish from one another - medial pterygoid is most of the muscle mass while lateral pterygoid is smaller.
Attachments: pterygopalatine fossa to medial surface and caudal margin of the ramus of the mandible and the angular process of the mandible. Can be felt from the medial side under the oropharynx.
Action: Close the jaw
Innervation: Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)

270
Q

Digastricus

A

Origin found under the mandibular and parotid salivary glands.
Attachments: paracondylar process of the occiptal bone to body of the mandible.
Action: Open the jaw
Rostral portion innervation: Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Caudal portion innervation: Facial nerve (CN VII)
Rostral separated from caudal portion by a tendinous intersection that crosses the muscle belly.

271
Q

Styloglossus

A

Attachments: Stylohyoid bone rostroventral to the palatine tonsil and inserts in the middle of the tongue.
Action: Retract and elevate the tongue.
Innervation: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

272
Q

Hyoglossus

A

Attachments: Thyrohyoid and basohyoid bones to the root of the tongue.
Action: Retract and depress the tongue.
Innervation: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

273
Q

Genioglossus

A

Attachments: Intermandibular articulation and joins its fellow on the median plane. Found on the medial side inside the tongue.
Action: Caudal fibers protrude the tongue and its rostral ones retract the apex.
Innervation: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

274
Q

Sternohyoideus

A

Attachments: Sternum and first costal cartilage to the basiohyoid bone.
Action: Draw the larynx caudally.
Innervation: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) and ventral branches of cervical spinal nerves.

275
Q

Thyrohyoideus

A

Attachments: Short muscle rostral to the origin of the sternothyroideus. Thyroid cartilage of the larynx to thyrohyoid bone.
Innervation: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) and ventarl branches of the cervical spinal nerves.

276
Q

Mylohyoideus

A

Attachments: Transverse fibers between the base of the mandibles from the medial surface of the body of the mandible to its fellow muscle on the midventral raphe. Inserts caudally on the basihyoid.
Action: Forms a sling that aids in the support of the tongue.
Innervation: Mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)

277
Q

Geniohyoideus

A

Attachments: Lies deep to the mylohyoid. Arises at the intermandibular articulation and inserts on the basiohyoid.
Action: Draws the hyoid apparatus and larynx rostrally.
Innervation: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

278
Q

Name the arteries (in order) that supply the distal part of the hind limb

A

External iliac artery -> femoral a. -> popliteal a. -> cranial tibial -> dorsal pedal -> perforating branch of the arcuate artery.

279
Q

What two main arteries supply the proximal part of the hind limb?

A

External Iliac artery and Internal Iliac artery

280
Q

What two main arteries supply the hind paw?

A

Cranial tibial and saphenous arteries.

281
Q

Which is larger, the perforating or arcuate artery of the hind paw?

A

Perforating artery.

282
Q

What cranial nerves comprise the part of the lumbosacral plexus that innervates the hindlimb?

A

L4-S3

283
Q

What nerve innervates the hamstrings?

A 
Sciatic nerve
(Hamstrings = biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus)
284
Q

What nerve innervates the external anal sphincter? What may cause this nerve to stop working and what will happen if this occurs?

A

Caudal rectal nerve (off of the pudendal nerve)
Perianal hernia, chronic anal sac disease or pelvic damage can cause nerve damage, and loss of this can cause loss of voluntary control of defecation.

285
Q

What nerve innervates the extensors of the hock/flexors of the digits?

A

Tibial nerve

286
Q

What does damage to the tibial nerve look like in the patient?

A

Sinking of the hock because it cannot be kept in extension.

287
Q

What nerve innervates the flexors of the hock/extensors of the digits?

A

Deep peroneal/deep fibular nerve

288
Q

What nerve innervates the extensors of the stifle?

A

Femoral nerve

289
Q

What nerve innervates the adductors of the hindlimb?

A

Obturator nerve
Also prevents abduction
Loss is most obvious on a slippery surface.

290
Q

At what vertebrae does the spinal cord end?

A

Around L6/L7 between the wings of the ilium, then continues as the caudal equina running through the verterbral canal.

291
Q

Where do the nerves of the caudal equina exit the vertebral column?

A

At the vertebrae that they are named for, even if their origin is much more cranial within the spinal cord.

292
Q

What is the importance of the many foramina of the skull?

A

Blood must get in

Nerves must come out

293
Q

Which cranial nerves have parasympathetic components?

A

III, VII, IX, and X only

294
Q

What are the names of the two types of dental nomenclature?

A

Anatomical shorthand system

Modified Triadan system (more common in clinics)

295
Q

What is the dental formula of the adult feline?

A

3/3 I, 1/1 C, 3/2 P, 1/1 M

296
Q

What is the dental formula of the kitten?

A

3/3 I , 1/1C, 3/2 P

297
Q

What are the quadrants of the modified Triadan system?

A 
Moves in a clockwise (from the vet's perspective) direction around the mouth. 
1 = Upper right
2= Upper left
3= Lower left
4= Lower right
298
Q

Describe how the anatomical shorthand system works to identify a specific tooth

A

Type of tooth is ID’d by I, C, P, or M

Number is placed on top or bottom and on either the right or left to indicate the position of the tooth.

299
Q

What is the pathway of the sympathetic innervation of the head?

A

Approx T1 -> cervicothoracic ganglion -> middle cervical ganglion -> vagosympathetic trunk -> cranial cervical ganglion -> smooth muscle of the pupil and blood vessels, sweat, and mucosal glands of the head.

300
Q

Why is the visualization of the eardrum in the dog so difficult?

A

Ear canal turns over 90 degrees from the external ear to the tympanic bulla. Have to point the otoscope medially.

301
Q

Where is a nasogastric tube passed?

A

Through the common nasal meatus which is very simple rostrally and more complex/smaller caudally.

302
Q

Why do we get stuffy noses with a cold?

A

The caudal turbinates have incredibly complex blood sinuses. An increase in blood flow from inflammation during a viral infection will cause a restriction in space = part of a stuffy nose.

303
Q

Why do dogs get watery eyes with nasal swelling?

A

The nasolacrimal canal is very small in the dog so nasal or ocular swelling will usually occlude the canal. This will mean that tears will spill out of the eye rather than moving into the nasal cavity to evaporate.

304
Q

What are the general actions the pharyngeal musculature?

A

Relaxation: increase the size of the lumen
Contraction: decrease the size of the lumen
Important in both swallowing and vocalization.

305
Q

Where does the soft palate sit relative to the epiglottis in the living dog?

A

Soft palate is generally ventral to the epiglottis. (In fixed specimens they are usually contacting one another). Held in place by musculature.

306
Q

What causes reverse sneezing?

A

In brachyocephalic dogs the soft palate is disproportionately long compared to the face. It can then become flipped over (becomes dorsal to) the larynx causing sneezing/coughing/gagging as the dog tries to fix the situation.

307
Q

What must happen in order for the dog to pant?

A

Must dilate the pharynx to allow mouth breathing and so completely relax the pharyngeal muscles.

308
Q

What types of joints form between the laryngeal cartilages and the hyoid bones?

A

Synovial joints

309
Q

Wattles

A

Cheek fleshy material of the chicken. Color can be used to judge overall health (pink vs. pale or jaundiced).

310
Q

Comb points

A

Fleshy material on the top of the head of the chicken. Color can be used to judge health like the wattles.

311
Q

Pterylae

A

Feathered portion of bird skin

312
Q

Apterylae

A

Non-feathered portion of bird skin (feather tracts)

313
Q

What kind of keratin is found in birds/reptiles?

A

Beta-keratin

314
Q

Patagium

A

The skin that stretches between the humerus and radius/ulna in the wing of the bird.

315
Q

Urophygeal gland

A

Oil gland on the rump that helps birds with preening and waterproofing.

316
Q

Are cream or brown feathers darker?

A

Darker feathers are stronger due to the melanins in the tissue.

317
Q

What are the three elements that cause feather coloring?

A

Melanins, carotenoids, and porphyrins.

318
Q

What are iridescent feathers an example of?

A

Structural colors.

319
Q

Strut framework

A

Element of avian hollow bones that keeps them strong as the bone becomes stronger for flight.

320
Q

Medullary bone

A

Laid down as PULLET in young female birds. Still hollow but in the larger bones as a calcium for females during egg production. Can eventually become depleted leading to soft-shelled eggs.

321
Q

How many cervical vertebrae do birds have?

A

Variable number - swans have up to 22.

322
Q

What 6 specialized reduced bones do birds have?

A 
Keel
Synsacrum
Carpometacarpus
Tibiotarsus
Tarsometatarsus
Reduced digits
323
Q

What is the movement of a bird’s maxillary bone called?

A

Cranial kinesis

324
Q

Furcula

A

aka the wishbone

Fused clavicles of birds

325
Q

Avian pectoral muscles

A

For a down-stroke in flight.
Superficial to supracoracoideus.
Attachments: Keel and ventral humerus (cranial to scapula).

326
Q

Avian Supracoracoideus

A

For an up-stroke in flight.
Deep to pectorals
Attachments: keel and dorsal humerus (caudal to scapula).

327
Q

Why don’t birds fall off their perches as they sleep?

A

The tendons of the hock flexors are very long so as the bird kneels they tighten and flex the toes. This also helps them when carrying food after hunting.

328
Q

What is the stroke pattern of avian respiration?

A
  1. To abdominal air sacs
  2. Through rigid lungs
  3. To cervical air sacs
  4. Out through trachea
329
Q

What three holes do you find in the oral cavity?

A

Choana (top of the bill)
Glottis (bottom)
Esophagus

330
Q

Bird mechanical papillae

A

Cause the food to move down the esophagus rather than back up it.

331
Q

What causes the noises caused by very noisy birds?

A

Highly elongated trachea

332
Q

What allows birds to sing dual-tone songs?

A

The syrinx, which allows different notes to be produced at the same times.

333
Q

How does the avian heart deviate from the mammalian heart?

A

Much thinner R ventricle
Very pointed heart
R atrioventricular valve is muscular rather than fibrous and so can be affected by myocarditis.

334
Q

What is the shell gland of the bird analogous too?

A

The uterus

335
Q

What veins are accessible for venipuncture in the bird

A

R. jugular vein
Metatarsal vein
Cutaneous ulnar or Basilic vein

336
Q

What organ is found in young birds and then fades in the adult?

A

The Bursa of Fabricius where B-lymphocytes develop. Found near the cloaca.

337
Q

What accounts for the variability of normal bird stools?

A

Cecal droppings

Paired and very long on either side of the colon.

338
Q

What organ in mammals is missing in avians?

A

The urinary bladder

Urates directly into the GI tract.

339
Q

What is the problem with giving IM injections into the leg of a bird?

A

Birds have a portal renal system as well as a hepatic renal system and so drugs are often cleared before becoming systematic. This is why the pectoral muscles are generally used for IM injection in birds.

340
Q

Periorbita

A

The cone-shaped connective tissue that encloses the eyeball and its muscles, vessels, and nerves. Continuous with the periosteum of the orbit and the face and continuous with the dura intracranially.

341
Q

Lacrimal gland

A

Small flat gland lying deep (medial) to the orbital ligament.. Creates 2/3 of the aqueous layer of the tear film.

342
Q

Levator palpebrae superioris

A

Narrow, superficial muscle that runs from the apex of the orbit and over the dorsal rectus and then becomes a flat tendon in the upper eyelid. Innervated by the oculomotor nerve (CN III).

343
Q

How many extrinsic muscles of the eye?

A

7
Retractor bulbi
Two obliquus muscles (dorsal/ventral)
Four rectus muscles (dorsal/ventral/medial/lateral)

344
Q

Describe the arrangement of the extrinsic muscles of the eye.

A

4 fascicles of the retractor bulbi in the center
Surrounded by the four rectus muscles
Obliquus muscles attach at the sclera over the ventral and dorsal rectus muscles.

345
Q

What extrinsic muscles of the eye does CN III innervate?

A 
Oculomotor: 
Dorsal rectus
Medial rectus
Ventral rectus
Ventral oblique
346
Q

What extrinsic muscles of the eye does CN VI innervate?

A

Abducens:
Retractor bulbi
lateral rectus

347
Q

What extrinsic muscles of the eye does CN IV innervate?

A

Trochlear:

Dorsal oblique

348
Q

Trochlea

A

Cartilagenous plaque attached at the level of the medial angle of they eye to the wall of the orbit. Holds the tendon of the dorsal oblique muscle.

349
Q

Superficial gland of the third eyelid

A

At the bottom of the third eyelid. Produces 1/3 of the aqueous layer of the tear film. Do not confuse with the lymphatic nodules that are on the visceral side of the third eyelid.

350
Q

External fibrous coat of the eye

A

Composed of the cornea, sclera, and limbus.
Complete
Derived from neural crest cells.

351
Q

Cornea

A

Anterior 1/4 of the eye. Clear portion through which the iris and pupil are seen.

352
Q

Sclera

A

Posterior 3/4 of the eye. “White” of the eye. Covered by the bulbar conjunctiva anteriorly. Attachments of the extrinsic muscles of the eye, penetration of vessels, and exit of the optic nerve posteriorly.

353
Q

Limbus

A

The slightly thickened joining point of the sclera and the cornea.

354
Q

Middle vascular coat of the eye

A

Aka uvea.
The iris, choroid, and ciliary body.
Incomplete.
Derived from neural crest cells.

355
Q

Iris

A

Pigmented diaphragm surrounding the pupil. Has both circular and radial smooth muscle.

356
Q

Pupil

A

Opening in the center of the iris.

357
Q

Choroid

A

Posterior portion of the vascular coat firmly attached to the sclera (middle coat of the fundus). Continuous with the ciliary body anteriorly. Consists of the tapetum lucid and the nontapetal area (nontapetal nigrum).
Provides the majority of the blood flow to the globe.

358
Q

Ora serrata

A

Junction of the choroid and the ciliary body. Usually seen as an undulating line in the retina.

359
Q

Fundus of the eye

A

Posterior or deep portion of the eyeball that is seen with the ophthalmoscope during an eye exam.

360
Q

Tapetum lucidum

A

Specialized layer of cells in the choroid that is multicolored and reflects light rays. Reflection causes light rays to trigger the rods and cones of the retina twice and so may be important for vision in low light.

361
Q

Ciliary body

A

Between the iris and the choroid. Numerous muscle bundles that function in the regulation of the shape of lens.

362
Q

Ciliary processes

A

From the ciliary body. Surround but do not attach to the lens of the eye. Consist of several hundred pigmented folds (help give the iris its color) that alternate in length and enlarge as they approach the lens. Contraction of the processes pulls on zonular fibers and makes the lens more spherical to accommodate for near vision.

363
Q

Zonule

A

The suspensory apparatus of the lens. Composed of numerous zonular fibers.

364
Q

Zonular fibers

A

Fine strands that pass from the ora serrata along the ciliary processes and attach to the equator of the lens. Contraction of the ciliary processes pulls on zonular fibers and makes the lens more spherical to accommodate for near vision.

365
Q

Lens

A

Transparent and elastic roundish structure through which light passes.

366
Q

Chambers of the eye

A

Anterior chamber: between the cornea and the iris, filled with aqueous humor.
Posterior chamber: between the iris and the lens, filled with aqueous humor.
Vitreous chamber: posterior to the lens, filled with vitreous humor.

367
Q

Vitreous humor

A

Jelly-like proteinous substances which fills the vitreous chamber. Used often in necropsies because there may be electrolytes remaining in this, often a sterile chamber.

368
Q

Aqueous humor

A

Continually produced by the the ciliary epithelium that covers the ciliary processes. Circulates through the posterior chamber and then into the anterior chambers. Then drained through the trabecular meshwork at the iridocorneal angle into the venous scleral sinus.

369
Q

Iridocorneal angle

A

Angle that contains a trabecular meshwork through which the aqueous humor drains.

370
Q

Scleral sinus

A

Venous sinus into which the aqueous humor drains.

371
Q

Pectinate ligament

A

The meshwork in the iridocorneal angle.

Holes in the meshwork are called the spaces of Fontana.

372
Q

What causes glaucoma?

A

Failure in the drainage of the aqueous humor of the eye, especially if the meshwork (spaces of Fontana) of the pectinate ligament becomes blocked.

373
Q

Internal (nervous) coat of the eye

A

Retina and associated vessels and nerves.
Incomplete
Formed from a direct outgrowth of the brain.

374
Q

Retina

A

Pars optica retinae
Pars ciliaris retinae
Pars iridica retinae

375
Q

Pars optica retinae

A

Covers the fundus. Portion of the retina that contains the light sensitive rods and cones, the bipolar cells, and the ganglion cells. Appears as a gray-white layer that peels away from the choroid in the preserved specimen.

376
Q

Pars ciliaris retinae

A

Non-light receptive portion of the retina over the ciliary body. Two layers thick and forms the blood-aqueous barrier through which aqueous fluid is secreted into the posterior chamber.

377
Q

Pars iridica retinae

A

Portion of the retina over the posterior section of the iris. Double cell layer of the retina with one layer consisting of pigment cells (help give iris its color) and a second layer of myoepithelial cells.

378
Q

Dilator pupillae

A

Myoepithelial cells of the pars iridica retinae.

379
Q

Optic disk

A

Point at which the the optic nerves enters the posterior part of the globe. Many retinal vessels also enter here. Near or slightly inferior to the tapetum lucidum.

380
Q

External jugular vein

A

Formed by the anastamosis of the linguofacial vein and the and the maxillary veins, with the mandibular salivary gland between the two veins.

381
Q

Lingual vein

A

First large tributary that enters the linguofacial vein. Different radiating veins drain blood from the tongue, laryrnx, and pharynx.

382
Q

Liguofacial vein

A

Tributary of the cephalic vein.

Has several small mandibular lymph nodes along it that are rostroventral to the mandibular salivary gland.

383
Q

Facial vein

A

Other tributary of the liguofacial vein. Drains the dorsal surface of the muzzle
Branches: dorsal nasal
angularis oculi

384
Q

Dorsal nasal vein

A

Branch of the facial vein that runs caudally from the nares.

385
Q

Angularis oculi vein

A

Branch of the facial vein that runs rostrally from the medial aspect of the orbit where it is continuous with the ophthalmic plexus in the periorbita.

386
Q

Deep facial vein

A

Another communication between the ophthalmic plexus and the facial vein. Ventral to the zygomatic bone.

387
Q

Maxillary vein

A

Second component of the external jugular vein.

Drains the ear, orbit, palate, nasal cavity, cheek, mandible, and cranial cavity.

388
Q

Facial nerve

A

CN VII
GSE: Innervates all of the superficial muscle of the head and face as well as the caudal belly of the digastricus and the platysma of the neck, eyelids.
SVA: Carries taste sensation from the rostral 2/3 of the tongue
GVE: parasympathetic input to the lacrimal, sublingual, and mandibular salivary glands as well as the glands of the nasal and oral cavity
Enters the petrosal part of the temporal bone through the internal acoustic meatus and them exits the eli; at the stylomastoid foramen and breaks into branches.
Major branches: auriculopalpebral, dorsal an ventral buccal branches.

389
Q

Auriculopalebral nerve

A

Arises from the facial nerve ventral to the external acoustic meatus.

390
Q

Rostral auricular branches of the auriculopalebral nerve

A

Braches that run through the parotid gland and are distributed to the rostral auricular muscles.

391
Q

Palpebral branches of the auriculopalebral nerve

A

Branch that supplies the orbicular oculi (responsible for closing the eyelid).

392
Q

Buccal branches of the facial nerve

A

Branches that run across the masseter muscle to the cheek, superior and inferior lips, and lateral surface of the nose. Ventral and dorsal branches, named in relation to the parotid duct.

393
Q

Auriculotemporal nerve

A

Branch of the mandibular nerve (from CN V trigeminal) from between the caudal border of the masseter and external acoustic meatus.
Sensory branches to the skin of the external ear, temporal, zygomatic, and masseteric regions.

394
Q

Thyroid gland

A 
Two lobes (maybe connected by an isthmus) lateral to the first five rings of the trachea. 
Supplied by the caudal thyroid artery and the cranial thyroid artery.
395
Q

External parathyroid gland

A

Small lightly colored spherical body.
Most commonly found in the fascia near the cranial pole of the thyroid gland.
Supplied by the cranial thyroid artery.

396
Q

Internal parathyroid gland

A

Small lightly colored spherical body.
Usually within the capsule of the thyroid on the medial side of the structure.
Supplied by the cranial thyroid artery.

397
Q

Cervical portion of the esophagus

A

From the laryngopharynx (starting at the pharyngoesophageal limen) to the thoracic inlet.

398
Q

Tracheal cartilages

A

Approximately 35 in the dog, C-shaped, open dorsally and this opening is covered by the trachealis muscle.

399
Q

Common carotid artery

A

Within the carotid sheath. Branches of this artery will supply all the major structures of the head.

400
Q

Caudal thyroid artery

A

Variable origin from a major arterial vessel at the thoracic inlet. Runs cranially on the trachea to the caudal pole of the thyroid gland.
Supplies: trachea, esophagus, and thyroid gland.

401
Q

Cranial thyroid artery

A

From common carotid artery. Runs ventrocaudally.
Supplies thyroid and parathyroid glands, pharyngeal muscles, laryngeal muscles and mucosa, cervical parts of the trachea and esophagus, and portions of the sternocephalicus and mastoid part of the cleidocephalicus.

402
Q

Medial reteropharyngeal lymph node

A

Large lymph node near the larynx.
Drains the tonsils, tongue, nasal cavity, pharynx, salivary glands, external ear, larynx, and the esophagus.
Tracheal trunk on each side arises from this lymph node.

403
Q

Internal carotid artery

A

Runs more cranially than the external carotid artery.
No branches off this artery but runs into the carotid canal within the tympanooccipital fissure.
Forms the cerebral arterial circle that supplies the brain.

404
Q

Carotid sinus

A

Sac-like structure formed by the branching point of the internal and external carotid arteries. Baroreceptor. The carotid body (chemoreceptor) lies within the carotid sinus.

405
Q

External carotid artery

A

Runs more caudally than the internal carotid artery.
Numerous branches supply other structures of the head:

Terminates by branching into the superficial temporal artery and the maxillary artery just rostrally to the auricular cartilage.

406
Q

Superficial temporal artery

A

The smaller terminal branch of the external carotid artery.
Supplies the parotid gland, the masseter (via the masseteric artery which can be mistaken for the maxillary), the temporal muscle, the rostral auricular muscles, and the eyelids.

407
Q

Maxillary artery

A

The larger terminal branch of the external carotid artery.
Disappears deep to the masseter muscle.
Associated with a number of cranial nerves.
Courses towards the alar canal.
Branches:
(caudal deep temporal artery, middle meningial artery, and external ophthalmic artery)
Minor palatine artery
Descending palatine artery
Terminates as the infraorbital artery.

408
Q

Occipital artery

A

Leaves the external carotid cranially just after the internal carotid.
Supplies the muscles on the caudal aspect of the skull and the meninges.

409
Q

Cranial laryngeal artery

A

Small ventral branch of the external carotid with a sharp curve that supplies the sternomastoideus, pharyngeal muscles, and laryngeal muscles and mucosa.

410
Q

Lingual artery

A

Large ventral branch of the external carotid that courses rostrally to supply the tonsil and the tongue.
Closely associated with the hypoglossal nerve.

411
Q

Facial artery

A

Large rostroventral branch of the external carotid that leaves just rostral to the lingual artery.
Supplies the lips and nose.
The sublingual artery branches off this artery.

412
Q

Sublingual artery

A

Branch off of the facial artery that supplies the digastric muscle and the tongue.
Closely associated with the mylohyoid nerve.

413
Q

Caudal auricular artery

A

Dorsal branch off of the external carotid artery which generally arises under the base of the ear and parotid gland.
Lateral, intermediate, and medial branches that course distally on the convex surface of the external ear.

414
Q

CN V Mandibular branch

A

Branch of the Trigeminal nerve
Leaves the skull through the oval foramen
Branches arise over the pterygoid muscles : pterygoid, deep temporal, and masseteric nerves that contain somatic motor neurons (GSEs) to innervate the mm. of mastication.
To mylohyoid nerve, inferior alveolar nerve, lingual nerve, and auriculotemporal nerve.

415
Q

Lingual nerve

A

Sensory
Largest and most rostral branch of the mandibular nerve
Somatosensory to the rostral 2/3 of the tongue (GSA). Does not provide any taste sensation.

416
Q

Inferior alveolar nerve

A

Middle branches of the mandibular nerve.
Enters the mandibular foramen on the medial side of the ramus of the mandible and then runs through the mandibular canal to supply sensory nerves to the teeth.
Mental branches from the mental foramina are terminal branches of this nerve.
Runs with the inferior alveolar artery

417
Q

Mylohyoid nerve

A

Most caudal branch of the mandibular nerve.
Both motor and sensory. Runs around the caudal aspect of the mandible to the medial side and is motor to the digastric / mylohyoid and sensory to the skin between the mandibles.

418
Q

Auriculotemporal nerve

A

Sensory
Leavers the mandibular nerve at the oval foramen and courses caudally.
Emerges between the base of the auricular cartilage and the masseter muscle.
Supplies the ear and the lateral aspect of the head.

419
Q

External ethmoidal artery

A

Branch of the maxillary artery (from the external ophthalmic artery that supplies the eye).
Passes and turns sharply dorsal to the extrinsic musculature of the eye, then enters an ethmoidal foramen into the cranial cavity and passes through the cribriform plate to supply the ethmoid labyrinth and nasal septum.

420
Q

Descending palatine artery

A

Common trunk from the maxillary artery that will branch into the major palatine artery (caudal) and the sphenopalantine (cranial).

421
Q

Minor palatine artery

A

Very small ventral branch off the maxillary artery just caudal to the descending palatine artery.
Distributed to the hard and soft palates.
Often run into during bleeds in dental work.

422
Q

Major palatine artery

A

From the descending palatine artery - caudal branch.

Enters the caudal palatine foramen and thought the major palatine canal to supply the hard palate.

423
Q

Sphenopalatine artery

A

From the descending palatine artery - cranial branch.

Through the sphenopalatine foramen to supply the interior of the nasal cavity.

424
Q

Infraorbital artery

A

The continuation of the maxillary artery.
Supplies the malar a. to the eyelids, dental branches to the caudal cheek teeth, then runs through the maxillary foramen and supplies more dental branches to supply the premolars, canines, and incisors.
Terminates as the lateral and rostral dorsal nasal arteries that supply the nose and upper lip.

425
Q

Inferior alveolar artery

A

Runs with the inferior alveolar nerve
Supplies the roots of the teeth in the lower jaw.
Branches = mental branches that supply the skin.

426
Q

Olfactory nerve

A

CN I
SVA: sensory from the olfactory epithelium in both the nasal cavity and vomeronasal organ. In reality numerous olfactory axons passing through the olfactory foramina.

427
Q

Optic nerve

A

CN II
SSA: from the retina to the CNS. Enters the skull via the optic canal in the presphenoid bone. Lies medial to the lateral rectus and fasicle of the retractor bulbi. Covered here by an extension of the meninges.

428
Q

Oculomotor nerve

A

CN III
GSE: Innervation of the structures of the orbit/adnexa including the ventral, medial, and dorsal recti, the ventral oblique, and the levator palpebrae superioris muscle.
GVE Parasympathetic: innervation to the ciliary muscle and sphincter (constrictor) pupillae muscle.
Exits the skull via the orbital fissure.
Can be seen as the much smaller nerve ventrolateral to the optic nerve.

429
Q

Ciliary ganglion

A

VERY small round expansion of the distal trunk of the oculomotor nerve. Collection of postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies supplying the sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscles. One of the few parasympathetic ganglia that can be seen outside of the tissue innervated, and functions to regulate the size of the pupil.

430
Q

Trochlear nerve

A

CN IV
GSE: to dorsal oblique muscle (caudal belly).
Travels through the orbital fissure.
Cannot be seen in our dissections.

431
Q

Trigeminal nerve

A

CN V
GSA from all regions of the face, rostral part of the auricle, rostral portion of the tongue, and external acoustic meatus.
Ophthalmic, mandibular, and maxillary divisions.

432
Q

Ophthalmic nerve

A

CN V branch
Cannot see on our specimens
Through the orbital fissure
Sensory information from the region of the forehead, the medial regions of the superior and inferior eyelids, the cornea and the rest of the globe, some of the nasal mucosa. The branches divide within the periorbita.
Branches are the frontal, nasociliary, and lacrimal nerves.

433
Q

Frontal nerve

A

A branch off of the ophthalmic nerve that travels rostrally with the infratrochlear nerve. Innervates the medial surface of the eyelids.

434
Q

Infratrochlear nerve

A

A branch off of the ophthalmic nerve nerve that travels rostrally with the frontal nerve. Innervates the medial surface of the eyelids.

435
Q

Ethmoidal nerve

A

Branch of the ophthalmic nerve that passes through the ethmoidal foramen with the ethmoidal artery and through the cribriform plate to innervate the nasal muscosa and skin of the nose.

436
Q

Maxillary nerve

A

CN V branch
Travels through the round foramen and then the rostral alar foramen, accompanied by the maxillary artery.
Sensory from the nose, upper lip, lateral regions of the eyelids, superior dental arch, some of the nasal cavity, the hard and soft palates, and the lateral region of the face over the maxilla and zygomatic bones.

437
Q

Zygomatic nerve

A

Branch of the maxillary nerve. Enters the periorbita and divides into two branches that pass rostrally on the inner surface of the lateral part to innervate the lacrimal gland and lateral portions of the eyelids.

438
Q

Pteryopalatine ganglion

A

Flat neuronal cluster on the dorsolateral surface of the medial pterygoid cluster next to the pteryopalatine nerve.
Collection of postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies of CN VII whose axons travel with branches of the maxillary nerve to innervate the lacrimal glands and the mucosa of the nasal cavity and palate.

439
Q

Pteryopalatine nerve

A

Branch of the maxillary nerve
Common nerve trunk crossing the surface of the medial pterygoid in the pteryopalatine fossa next to the pteryopalatine ganglion.
Formed by the palatine nerves and the caudal nasal nerves

440
Q

Minor palatine nerve

A

Forms part of the pterypalatine nerve and ganglion. Innervates the palate.

441
Q

Major palatine nerve

A

Forms part of the pterypalatine nerve and ganglion.

Innervates the palate.

442
Q

Caudal nasal nerves

A

Forms part of the pterypalatine nerve and ganglion.

Innervates the nasal mucosa.

443
Q

Infraorbital nerve

A

Branch of the maxillary nerve
Large rostral continuation of the nerve that passes through the maxillary foramen and the infraorbital foramen with the infraorbital artery.
Innervates the skin and adjacent structures of the superior lip and nose.
Branches into superior alveolar.

444
Q

Superior alveolar nerves/branches

A

Branches of the infraorbital nerve that stay within the maxilla and supply the superior cheek teeth.

445
Q

Abducent nerve

A

CN VI
GSE: lateral rectus and retractor bulbi
Emerges from the orbital fissure
Can see well on the medial side of the lateral rectus.

446
Q

Vestibulocochlear nerve

A

CN VIII

SSA related to hearing and balance from the inner ear to the brainstem via the internal acoustic meatus

447
Q

Cranial cervical ganglion

A

Cranial terminal point of the vagosympathetic trunk and most cranial sympathetic ganglion.
Vagus nerve and many sympathetic and motor axons innervating the pharynx branch off here. Nerves also distributed to the vessels, glands, and smooth muscles of the head.

448
Q

Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

CN IX
Divides into pharyngeal and lingual branches
SVA - taste from the caudal 1/3 of the tongue
GVA - from caudal 1/3 of the tongue, pharynx, and carotid sinus.
GVE - parotid and zygomatic salivary glands
GSE - pharyngeal muscles
Use the external carotid artery and the cranial cervical ganglion as landmarks to ID the glossopharyngeal which is between them.
Exits via the tympanooccipital fissure and jugular foramen

449
Q

Vagus nerve

A

CN X
GVA - abdominal and thoracic viscera
SVA - taste information from around the epiglottis
GVE - parasympathetic innervation to thoracic and abdominal viscera
GSE - skeletal muscle of the pharynx, esophagus, and larynx
Exits the skull via the tympanooccipital fissure with cranial nerves IX and XI.

450
Q

Proximal ganglion of the vagus

A

Lies in the jugular foramen and cannot be seen in our specimen.

451
Q

Distal ganglion of the vagus

A

Enlargement of the vagus near the split of the vagosympathetic trunk, outside the tympanooccipital fissure. Collection of visceral afferent cell bodies similar to a dorsal root ganglion adjacent to the spinal cord.

452
Q

Pharyngeal plexus

A

The network of branches from the glossopharyngeal nerve that run to the pharynx and the tongue along with fibers from the vagus and postganglionic sympathetic axons. Also innervates the cranial esophagus.

453
Q

Cranial laryngeal nerve

A

Found near the distal ganglion of the vagus and courses along the lateral border of the larynx. Dives between pharyngeal muscles to innervate the cricothyroid muscle and some of the laryngeal mucosa.

454
Q

Accessory nerve

A

CN XI
GSE - sternocephalicus, brachiocephalicus, omomtransversarius, and trapezius, and also helps to contribute to the innervation of the laryngeal muscles (by joining with the vagus near the jugular foramen.
Exits via the tympanooccipital fissure and jugular foramen.

455
Q

Hypoglossal nerve

A

CN XII
GSE - muscles of the tongue (extrinsic and intrinsic)
Exits the skull via the hypoglossal canal
Can be seen most readily near the hyoglossus but can also be found lateral to the external carotid artery.
Closely associated with the lingual artery.

456
Q

Vagosympathetic trunk

A

Joins with the vagus at the cranial cervical ganglion. Cranial cervical ganglion gives off many axons to the walls of the pharynx.

457
Q

Olfactory foramina

A

Holes in the cribriform plate through with fibers of the olfactory nerves pass.

458
Q

Caudal laryngeal nerve

A

The continuation of the recurrent laryngeal nerve that runs along the trachea and dives into the caudal part of the larynx.
Supplies motor to all of the laryngeal muscle except for the cricothyroideus.

459
Q

How are the cranial nerves named?

A

Roman numerals indicate the order in which they arise from the brain in the rostrocaudal direction.
Names are descriptive

460
Q

Ciliary nerves

A

Branches off the ophthalmic nerve that follow the optic nerve and innervate the eyeball.

461
Q

Ansa cervicalis

A

Loop that leaves the hypoglossal were to join the first cervical spinal nerve before rejoining the hypoglossal nerve in the region of the hyoid.

462
Q

What type of renal system do avians have?

A

Urecotelic (can produce uric acid or urates)

463
Q

Sclerotic ring

A

Bony ring in the avian orbit to support the more compressed eye

464
Q

Pecten

A

Rectangular structure in the avian eye thought to provide nutrition to the eye

465
Q

Columella

A

Only ear ossicle of the bird

466
Q

Egg yolk peritonitis

A

Occurs if an ovum is passed from the ovary that is not caught by the infundibulum, large as it is.

467
Q

Uncinate processes

A

Sharp processes off the avian ribs.

468
Q

In what range can mammals see light? Birds?

A

Mammals: 400 - 700 nm
Birds: 300 - 700 nm

469
Q

Adnexa

A

Structures around the globe both to move and support it.

470
Q

Canthus (medial or lateral)

A

Another name for the medial/lateral commissures or angles of the eye.

471
Q 
What are the corresponding terms for the eye?
Rostral
Dorsal
Caudal
Ventral
A

Anterior
Superior
Posterior
Inferior

472
Q

Equator of the eye

A

Circumference of the sclera cutting the globe into anterior and posterior halves. Where many extrinsic muscles of the globe attach.

473
Q

What muscle opens the eyelids? What is it innervated by?

A

Levator palpebrae superioris

CN III

474
Q

What muscle closes the eyelids? What is it innervated by?

A

Orbicularis oculi

CN VII

475
Q

Describe the path of tear flow over the eye

A

1/3 of aqueous tears produced at the inferior gland of the 1/3 eyelid and 2/3 of aqueous tears produced at the superior/lateral lacrimal gland.
Tear film distributed over the eye by blinking
Move into the lacrimal puncta
Run through the lacrimal caniculi
The two caniculi meet at the lacrimal sac
Runs through the nasolacrimal duct to the ventral nasal meatus.

476
Q

What is the cause of cherry eye? Treatment?

A

Inflammation of the lymphoid tissue of the third eyelid.

Can try to manage medically but most commonly just tack the eyelid down with suture.

477
Q

How can you tell conjunctival vessels from scleral vessels?

A

Scleral vessels are fixed and don’t move if prodded, while conjuctival vessels do. Can be important clinically.

478
Q

What does the doctor look at during an eye exam?

A

Mostly examines the fundus of the eye
Looks for health of the vessels in the eye
Can observe the optic disc within the fundus

479
Q

What developmental structure forms the lens of the eye?

A

Neural crest cells that form the lens placode.

480
Q

What structure forms the optic stalk and cup of the developing eye?

A

Outgrowths of the optic vesicle of the primordial brain. These cause the lens placode to fold and bud off into the lens.

481
Q

What is a reflex?

A

A programmed response to a stimulus.

Includes both an afferent and efferent arm.

482
Q

What does a neurological exam entail?

A

Assessing of different reflexes as a way of locating a structural nerve lesion.

483
Q

What is the simplest type of reflex arc?

A

A monosynaptic reflex arc in which the afferent neuron synapses directly onto the efferent neuron. This is only possible when both afferent and efferent neurons are associated with the same structure (such as a muscle in the patellar reflex). Generally, reflexes contain more synapses than this.

484
Q

Panniculus reflex

A

Skin twitch reflex.

Afferents and efferents processed in the spinal cord and another signal is sent for conscious perception to the brain.

485
Q

What might cause an increase in the panniculus reflex?

A

A lesion of the cervical spinal cord.
The conscious perception of the brain is usually somewhat inhibitive of the reflex. If it is not accessed, the reflex can appear to increase.

486
Q

Which of the senses are visceral?

A

Taste and smell

Those that cannot be tuned in and out by conscious thought.

487
Q

Which of the senses are somatic?

A

Vision and hearing (and touch)

Those that can be tuned out by conscious thought (or that are intimately associated with musculature)

488
Q

How do you test CN I?

A

Test sense of smell
Make sure that whatever is being used does not provide mechanical stimulation of the nasal mucosa via movement of air or irritation.
At home, owner may see decrease in appetite or change in eating behavior.

489
Q

What tests can be used to assess CN II?

A 
Pupillary light reflex
Menace or startle response
Obstacle course
Visual tracking 
If vision loss is gradual, deficits most often noticed when there is a sudden change in environment.
490
Q

What tests can be used to assess CN III?

A 
Pupillary light reflex
Eye movement
Relative position of the pupils in both eyes in rest and during tracking
Relative pupil diameter
Upper eyelid position
491
Q

What is mydriasis and what innervates it?

A

Dilation of the pupil by the dilator pupillae muscle.
Radially arranged smooth muscle around the eye
Sympathetic input from T1-T3

492
Q

What is miosis and what innervates it?

A

Construction of the pupil by the constrictor pupillae muscle.
Circularly arranged smooth muscle around the eye like a sphincter.
Parasympathetic input from CN III

493
Q

What are the responses of the pupils called when testing the pupillary light reflex?

A

Direct response

Consensual response in the contralateral eye.

494
Q

You shine a light in the right eye and neither pupil constricts. Which nerve is lesioned?

A

The right optic nerve.

495
Q

You shine a light in the right eye and only the right pupil constricts. Which nerve is lesioned?

A

The left oculomotor nerve.

496
Q

You shine a light in the right eye and only the left pupil constricts? Which nerve is lesioned?

A

The right oculomotor nerve.

497
Q

You shine a light in the right eye and both pupils constrict. Which nerve is lesioned?

A

There may be no lesion, or there may be a lesion of the left optic nerve if you then shine the light into the left eye and see no pupil response in either pupil. To perform the PLR you always must look in both eyes.

Anatomy I (Fall) (8 decks)

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