Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

The Human Body > Unit 3 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Flashcards

0
Q

Function of bone

A
  1. Support
  2. Movement
  3. Protection
  4. Mineral storage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Osteon

A

Structural unit of bone–a central canal surrounded by concentric circles of bone cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Osteocytes

A

Bone cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Osteoblast

A

Bone forming cell, mature into osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

Layer of cartilage separating the shaft and the end of a bone. Cartilage cells in the plate divide, lengthening and increasing the diameter of the bone. Also called the growth plate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the formation of bone in a fetus.

A
  1. A cartilaginous model of the bone is formed.
  2. Osteoblasts form bone around the shaft of the model.
  3. The shaft begins to hollow and spongy bone replaces the cartilage.
  4. Bone begins to form in the center of the ends of the bone.
  5. Cartilage remains only on the ends of the bone and in the growth plate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The functional units of compact bone.

A

Osteons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does bone grow in childhood?

A

Cartilage cells in the growth plates divide when signaled by sex hormones and the extra cartilage is replaced with bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where in a bone is fat stored?

A

Yellow bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A condition characterized by a decrease in bone density that causes a weakened bone.

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What holds two bones together at a joint?

A

Ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bone is hardened by which two minerals?

A

Calcium and phosphorus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cells that form bones

A

Osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What hormones are involved in bone growth?

A

Growth hormone signals liver to release growth factor

Thyroid hormone modifies growth hormone activity to regulate proportion of bone growth.

Sex hormones signal division of cartilage cells in growth plates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What hormones are involved in the cessation of bone growth at puberty?

A

Sex hormones (testosterone and estrogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is growth hormone produced? What are the consequences of too much/too little growth hormone?

A

Growth hormone is produced in the anterior pituitary gland. Too little GH results in dwarfism. Too much GH results in giantism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why are people today taller on average than in the 1700s (assuming same genetic background)?

A

Nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What hormones are involved in regulating plasma calcium concentration? Why is this regulation critical?

A

Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.

Because low levels of plasma calcium concentration can lead to osteoporosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the role of vitamin D in bone health?

A

Vitamin D ensures efficient absorption of calcium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is daily exposure to sunlight a good thing?

A

Sunlight allows our bodies to produce vitamin D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many calories are in one gram of protein? carbohydrate? fat?

A 
Protein = 4 calories
Carbohydrate = 4 calories
Fat = 9 calories
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many excess calories does a person have to eat to gain one pound?

A

3500 calories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

celiac disease

A

A condition in which ingestion of gluten causes an autoimmune response. Damaging to villi in the digestive tract, which impairs nutrient absorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cholera

A

Bacterial infection in the small intestine resulting in diarrhea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

amoebic dysentery

A

Inflammation of the intestine causing diarrhea caused by amoeba.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

gastric ulsers

A

A defect in the lining of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cirrhosis

A

An excess accumulation of fat around the liver due to excessive alcohol consumption, an excess of fat in the diet, or genetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

hepatitis

A

Inflammation of the liver. Most commonly caused by a virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

polyp

A

A (usually) asymptomatic growth in the lining of the colon which can grow into colon cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

colonoscopy

A

A diagnostic test performed on the colon to look for polyps. Preventative of colon cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

BMI

A

Body Mass Index. Evaluates body weight relative to height.
Healthy: 18.5-25
Overweight: 25-30
Obese: <30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

BMR

A

Basal Metabolic Rate. The minimum amount of energy needed to keep an awake, resting body alive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the difference between a vitamin and a mineral?

A

A vitamin is an organic compound which is vital to health but needed in minute amounts.

A mineral is an inorganic compound vital to health. There are seven minerals needed in large doses and twelve needed in trace amounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the water-soluble vitamins?

What are the fat-soluble vitamins?

A

Water soluble vitamins: C and the various B vitamins

Fat soluble vitamins: A, D, E, K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What happens to excess amino acids in the body?

A

They are broken down by the liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

essential amino acid

A

The nine amino acids which the body can’t synthesize.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

essential fatty acid

A

Fatty acids which cannot be synthesized by the body. Omega-3 and Omega-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

saturated vs unsaturated fat

A

Unsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature and are usually from plant sources. Are considered healthier than saturated fats.

Saturated fats are solid at room temperature and are most often from animal sources. Supposedly linked to atherosclerosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

cholesterol

A

A type of lipid. Essential in structure of cell membrane. Structural basis of the steroid hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

complementary proteins

A

Two sources of proteins that, when consumed together, provide all the essential amino acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

malabsorption syndrome

A

A condition in which nutrients are not properly absorbed in the small intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

anorexia

A

A condition in which the person deliberately self-starves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

bulimia

A

A condition in which the person binge eats then purges by self-induced vomiting, enemas, laxatives, diuretics or excessive exercise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

GMO

A

Genetically Modified Organisms. Foods that have been genetically altered to produce a preferred trait. Highly controversial in regards to safety of consumption and effects on the environment, especially because few to no long-term safety studies exist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What can urinalysis measure?

A

Abnormal constituents such as glucose, red blood cells, white blood cells which may indicate a health issue. Presence of abnormal levels of substances such as proteins. Presence of some drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the three major areas of the kidney?

A

Renal cortex: outer region
Renal medulla: region enclosed by cortex
Renal pelvis: inner chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the functions of the kidney?

A 
Produce urine
Conserve water
Regulate pH
Stimulate red blood cell production
Transform vit D to active form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How does the kidney help to maintain homeostasis?

A

They maintain salt and water balance by adjusting concentration of the urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What cell structure is shared in the lining of the proximal convoluted tubule and the lining of the small intestine? What is the common function of this cell structure?

A

Microvilli, which assist in absorption of substances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What percent of the water that is filtered by the glomerulus is reabsorbed?

A

99%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What percent of the sodium that is filtered by the glomerulus is reabsorbed?

A

99%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What percent of the glucose that is filtered by the glomerulus is reabsorbed?

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How do diuretic medications help reduce blood pressure?

A

They increase the excretion of water by decreasing the reabsorption of sodium ions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are kidney stones?

A

Crystalized forms of certain substances (calcium, cystine, uric acid) in the kidney which may be painful if they pass through the kidney into the ureter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is metabolic waste?

A

Substances left over from the excretory processes which can’t be used by the body and must be excreted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why is electrolyte balance critical?

A

Because electrolytes are responsible for important bodily functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How does ADH affect the nephron and what is the effect of its action?

A

ADH regulates the amount of water reabsorbed by the collecting ducts. Increase in ADH results in increased water returned to the blood, which results in higher blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How are the effects of atrial natriuretic hormone different from those of ADH and aldosterone?

A

ANH DECREASES the reabsorption of sodium ions. (Decreasing BP)
Aldosterone INCREASES the reabsorption of sodium ions. (Increasing BP)
ADH INCREASES reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How is alcohol metabolized?

A

70% small intestine
20% stomach
10% excreted directly through urine/breath/sweat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Why does a breath sample indicate whether or not someone has consumed too much alcohol?

A

Because a portion of consumed alcohol is excreted directly through the breath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the short term effects of heavy alcohol consumption or binge drinking?

A

Vomiting, impaired respiratory function, unconsciousness, coma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the long term effects of excessive alcohol consumption?

A

Increased risk of cancer, liver damage, damage to the heart and blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a possible serious complication of an untreated urinary tract infection?

A

Kidney infection

63
Q

What are possible consequences of kidney failure?

A 
Acidosis (decrease in blood pH)
Anemia (low red blood cell count)
Edema (fluid build up in tissues)
Hypertension (high blood pressure)
Accumulation of nitrogen waste in blood

May require kidney transplant or dialysis.

64
Q

ureter (description and function)

A

Transports urine from the kidneys to the bladder.

65
Q

urethra (description and function)

A

Transports urine from the bladder to outside of the body.

66
Q

kidney (description and function)

A

Main organs of the urinary system.

Functions:
Produce urine
Conserve water
Regulate pH
Stimulate red blood cell production
Transform vit D to active form
67
Q

bladder (description and function)

A

Muscular, expandable organ which stores urine.

68
Q

nephron (description and function)

A

Microscopic functional units of the kidneys. Consists of renal corpuscle and renal tubule. Three functions: glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, tubular secretion

69
Q

glomerulus (description and function)

A

A group of capillaries housed within the glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule where fluid is filtered from the blood.

70
Q

Bowman’s capsule (description and function)

A

A cuplike structure which houses the glomerulus.

71
Q

Loop of Henle (description and function)

A

Middle section of the renal tubule, placed in between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules

72
Q

collecting duct (description and function)

A

Collects waste products from distal convoluted tubules in many nephrons and adjusts the concentration of urine by opening/closing aquaporins (water channels) before draining into the renal pelvis.

73
Q

proximal convoluted tubule

A

First section of the renal tubule.
Nearest the glomerular capsule.
Contains microvilli which reabsorb useful materials from the filtrate and returns them to the blood.

74
Q

distal convoluted tubule

A

Last section of the renal tubule.
Farthest from the glomerular capsule.
Has few microvilli, empties into collecting duct with the distal convoluted tubules of many other nephrons.

75
Q

tubular reabsorption

A

Process of collecting water and solutes from the filtrate as it passes through the proximal convoluted tubule and returning these to the blood.

76
Q

tubular secretion

A

Process of removal of waste and excess ions from blood by secreting these into the tubules and collecting ducts. Location of pH adjustments.

77
Q

aquaporins

A

Water channels within the collecting duct which allow for adjustment of concentration of urine.

78
Q

diabetes insipidus

A

k

79
Q

diabetes mellitus

A

k

80
Q

insulin

A

i

81
Q

glucagon

A

k

82
Q

pancreatic islet cells

A

k

83
Q

What is the effect of insulin?

A

k

84
Q

What is the effect of glucagon?

A

k

85
Q

Which hormone (insulin/glucagon) dominates in the fed state?

A

k

86
Q

What is the primary physiological deficit in type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A

k

87
Q

What is the primary physiological deficit in type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A

k

88
Q

How are treatment choices affected by the differences between type 1 & type 2 diabetes?

A

k

89
Q

Why is blood sugar high in untreated diabetics?

A

k

90
Q

Why do diabetics often excrete glucose in their urine?

A

k

91
Q

What is the A1C test and why is it used in diabetics?

A

k

92
Q

How can you decrease your risk of type 2 diabetes?

A

Healthy diet and regular exercise.

93
Q

breech birth

A

A birth in which the baby comes out bottom first.

94
Q

parturition

A

Birth

95
Q

lactation

A

The production and ejection of milk from the mammary glands.

96
Q

prolactin

A

Hormone which stimulates the production of breast milk. Is stimulated by infant sucking on the breast.

97
Q

oxytoxin

A

The hormone released by the posterior pituitary gland that stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection.

98
Q

zygote

A

The first cell of a new individual, resulting from the joining of egg and sperm.

99
Q

gamete

A

A reproductive cell which contains one copy of each chromosome (sperm or egg). When combined with another gamete, it becomes a zygote.

100
Q

oocyte

A

An immature egg cell which divides from the primary oocyte into the secondary oocyte

101
Q

spermatocyte

A

A sperm cell precursor formed in the seminiferous tubules.

102
Q

seminiferous tubules

A

Area within testes which produces inhibin, a hormone which inhibits FSH secretion and thereby decreases sperm production and testosterone production.

103
Q

Leydig cells

A

Interstitial cells next to the seminiferous tubules which produce testosterone in the presence of LH.

104
Q

Epidiymis

A

One of a pair of ducts in which sperm are stored and matured.

105
Q

vas deferens

A

One of a pair of ducts that transport sperm from the epididymis to the urethra.

106
Q

urethra

A

A tube that transports semen and urine.

107
Q

prostate gland

A

A gland that produces alkaline secretions that activate sperm and reduce the acidity of the male and female reproductive systems.

108
Q

seminal vesicles

A

Glands that produce secretions that make up the bulk of semen.

109
Q

bulbourethral glands

A

Glands that produce secretions just before ejaculation which lubricate and may rinse urine from urethra.

110
Q

fallopian tubes (oviduct)

A

Conduct the egg or embryo towards the uterus, usually the site of fertilization.

111
Q

uterus

A

The pear-shaped organ which houses and nourishes the developing baby until birth.

112
Q

vagina

A

The muscular tube which receives the penis during intercourse, also the birth canal

113
Q

ovary

A

One of two glands which produces eggs and sex hormones (estrogen and progesterone)

114
Q

testis

A

One of two reproductive organs (gonads) that produces sperm and sex hormones (testosterone)

115
Q

penis

A

k

116
Q

follicular phase

A

Generally days 1-13 of the menstrual cycle.
Follicle develops due to FSH
Follicle cells produce estrogen.

117
Q

luteal phase

A

Generally days 15-28 of the menstrual cycle.
The corpus luteum forms, secretes estrogen and progesterone, then degenerates causing estrogen/progesterone levels to decline.

118
Q

corpus luteum

A

Endocrine structure in the ovary formed by the outer sphere of the follicle. Produces estrogen and progesterone. Degrades unless pregnancy is achieved.

119
Q

endometrium

A

Lining of the uterus which nourishes embryo if pregnancy occurs. If pregnancy does not occur, it is shed as menstrual flow.

120
Q

myometrium

A

Middle layer of uterine wall consisting mostly of smooth muscle.

121
Q

pap smear

A

Preventative test to look for signs of abnormal cells in the cervix which may develop into cervical cancer.

122
Q

HPV

A

Human papaloma virus, can cause cervical cancer.

123
Q

gonorrhea

A

An STD which can cause abnormal discharge, pain during urination or bowel movements, and sterility.

124
Q

syphilis

A

An STD which causes cancre at the site of contact, rash, flu like symptoms, lesions on skin and internal organs and eventually blindness, brain damage, heart disease.

125
Q

chlamydia

A

An STD which often shows no symptoms, can cause long term reproductive consequences.

126
Q

capacitation

A

Next to last step of maturing spermatazoa, happens in the uterus .

127
Q

zona pellucida

A

Outer membrane of egg.

128
Q

monozygotic

A

Two babies growing from one zygote, identical twins

129
Q

dizygotic

A

Two babies growing from two zygotes, fraternal Twins

130
Q

blastocyst

A

A ball of cells with an inner fluid-filled cavity which implants into the uterus and develops placenta.

131
Q

gastrulation

A

H

132
Q

ectopic

A

A pregnancy in which the embryo implants in a location other than the uterus, most often in the Fallopian tubes.

133
Q

placenta

A

Functions

  • support of fetus (nourishes, carries waste, maintains fluid balance)
  • maternal immune suppression
  • hormone production
134
Q

human chorionic gonadotropin

A

Maintains the corpus luteum until the placenta begins to produce estrogen and progesterone.

135
Q

What is characteristic of the release of the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary?

A

All are modified by stimulus from the hypothalamus.

136
Q

What is characteristic of the target of many (though not all) of the anterior pituitary hormones?

A

Many of the targets of hormones released by the AP are other endocrine glands.

137
Q

What controls the production of sperm?

A

The testes.

138
Q

What controls the production of testosterone?

A

The testes.

139
Q

Why are men with undescended testicles infertile?

A

The testes do not remain cooler than the rest of the body when they are undescended, and this decreases sperm production.

140
Q

How can taking androgen supplements result in infertility? What are two other side effects of androgen supplements?

A

Increased levels of testosterone signal the body to decrease natural testosterone production.

141
Q

What triggers ovulation?

A

Maturation of the follicle.

142
Q

When in the menstrual cycle does ovulation occur?

A

Roughly 14 days into a 28-day cycle.

143
Q

Where is estrogen produced?

A

In the follicle cells and the corpus luteum within the ovaries.

144
Q

Where is progesterone produced?

A

In the corpus luteum within the ovaries.

145
Q

Explain the feedback regulation of the sex steroids.

A

FSH and LH from anterior pituitary signal release of estrogen and progesterone in the ovaries, which exert negative feedback on in the anterior pituitary, causing FSH and LH levels to decline, which then decreases levels of estrogen and progesterone. This reduces the inhibition on the anterior pituitary beginning the cycle over.

146
Q

how does hormonal birth control (for women) work?

A

They contain synthetic forms of estrogen and progesterone which inhibit release of FSH and LH, without which an egg cannot develop.

147
Q

Which of the non-abstinence methods of birth control is most effective at also preventing STDs?

A

Condoms.

148
Q

For which of the STDs is there an effective vaccine?

A

HPV

149
Q

What is one physiological change that can indicate that ovulation has occurred?

A

A raise in basal temperature or a change in cervical fluid.

150
Q

Where in the female reproductive tract does fertilization occur?

A

Fallopian tube

151
Q

Where does implantation of the egg occur?

A

Uterus

152
Q

How long after fertilization does implantation occur?

A

About 6 days.

153
Q

Explain the concept of critical period in prenatal development.

A

k

154
Q

Why should pregnant women be sure that their rubella vaccinations are current?

A

Rubella infection during pregnancy can cause birth defects.

155
Q

What is the average length of pregnancy counting from the last menstrual period?

A

Around 40 weeks.

156
Q

Birth at ___ weeks is considered premature.

A

37

The Human Body (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions