Unit 2 - Chapter 12 - Cardiovascular System Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

what is the circulatory system composed of

A
  • vessels
  • fluid
  • pumps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

where is the heart located

A

mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is located in the pericardial sac

A
  • parietal pericardium
  • epicardium
  • pericardial cavity
  • myocardium
  • endocardium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 2 types of heart valves

A

atrioventricular valves
semilunar valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the 3 waves of an electrocardiogram

A
  • p wave
  • qrs wave
  • t wave
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what happens in the p wave of an electrocardiogram

A

depolarization of atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what happens in the qrs wave of an electrocardiogram

A

depolarization of ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what happens in the t wave of an electrocardiogram

A

repolarization of ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

expand on the cardiac control center in medulla oblongata

A
  • controls rate and force of contraction
  • located in the medulla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

expand on baroreceptors

A
  • detech changes in blood pressure
  • located in the aorta and internal carotid arteries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does sympathetic stimulation (cardiac accelerator nerve) do

A

increases heart rate (tachycardia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what does parasympathetic stimulation (cranial nerve or vagus nerve) do

A

decreases heart rate (bradycardia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are factors that increase heart rate

A
  • Increased thyroid hormones or epinephrine
  • Elevated body temperature, infection
  • Fever
  • Increased environmental temperature
  • Especially in high humidity
  • Exertion or exercise
  • Smoking
  • Stress response
  • Pregnancy
  • Pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

expand on the right and left coronary arteries

A
  • branch of aorta immediately distal to the aortic valve
  • part of the systemic circulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does the left coronary artery divide into

A
  • left anterior descending or interventricular artery
  • left circumflex artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does the right coronary artery branch into

A
  • right marginak artery
  • posterior interventricular artery
  • many small branches extend from these arteries to supply the myocardium and endocardium
  • collateral circulation is extremely limited
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is diastole

A

relaxation phase of the heartbeat

  • relaxation of myocardium required for filling chambers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is systole

A

contraction phase of the heartbeat

  • contraction of mycocardium provides increase in pressure to eject blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

explain the cardiac cycle step by step

A
  • atria relaxed, filling with blood
  • av valves open
  • blood flows into ventricles
  • atria contract, remaining blood forces into ventricles
  • atria relax
  • ventricles contract
  • av valves close
  • semilunar valves open
  • blood into aorta and pulmonary artery
  • ventricles relax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

expalin the lubb-dub heart sound

A
  • lubb is the closure of av valves
  • dubb is the closure of semilunar valves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are murmurs caused by

A

incompetent valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a pulse deficit

A

difference in rate between apical and radial pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is cardiac output (CO)

A
  • the blood ejected by a ventricle in 1 minute
    CO = stroke volume x heart rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is stroke volume (sv)

A

volume of blood pumped out of ventricle in a contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is a preload

A

amount of blood delivered to heart by venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is a afterload

A

force required to eject blood from ventricles
- determined by peripheral resistance in arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what causes changes in blood pressure

A
  • sympathetic branch of ANS (increased output means vasoconstriction and increased BP / decreased output means vasodilation and decreased BP)
  • when BP is directly proportional to blood volume
  • hormones such as antidiuretics, aldosterone and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is electrocardiography used for

A
  • the initial diagnosis and monitoring of dysrhythmias, myocardial infraction, infection and pericarditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does auscultation determine

A
  • determines valvular abnormalities or abnormal shunts of blood that cause murmurs
  • detected by listening through a stethoscope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is echocardiography used for

A

used to record heart valve moments, vlood flow and cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are exercise stress tests used for

A

used to assess general cardiovascular function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are chest x-rays used for

A

used to show shape and size of the heart
- examples are nuclear imaging and tomographic studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is cardiac cathterization used for

A
  • measuring pressure and assessing valve and heart function
  • also determines central venous pressure and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is an angiography used for

A

visualization of blood flow in the coronary arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are doppler studies used for

A
  • assessing blood flow in peripheral vessels
  • records sounds of blood flow or obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are blood tests used for

A
  • assessing levels of serum triglycerides, cholesterol, sodium, potassium, calcium and other electrolytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is arterial blood gas determination used for

A
  • checking the current oxygen level and acid-base balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

expand on dietary modifications as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • to decrease total fat intake
  • general weight reduction
  • reduce salt intake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

expand on a regular excercise program as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • increases high-density lipoprotein levels
  • lowers serum lipid levels
  • reduces stress levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

expand on cessation of smoking as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • decreases risk of coronary disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

expand on vasodilators as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • reduced peripheral resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

expand on beta blockers as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • treatment for hypertension and dysrhythmias
  • reduces occurence of angina attacks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

expand on calcium channel blockers as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • decreases cardiac contractility
  • antihpertensives and vasodilators
  • prophylactic against angina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

expand on digoxin as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • treats heart failure
  • antidysrhythmic drug for atrial dysrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

expand on antihypertensive drugs as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • used to lower blood pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

expand on adrenergic blocking drugs as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • acts on SNS centrally or on the periphery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

expand on angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • blocks conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

expand on diuretics as treatment measures for cardiac disorders

A
  • removes excess sodium and/or water
  • treats high blood pressure and congestive heart failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

expand on anticoagulants as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • reduced risk of blood clot formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

expand on cholesterol-lowering drugs as a treatment measure for cardiac disorders

A
  • reduces low density lipoprotein and cholesterol levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is arteriosclerosis

A

general term for all types of arterial changes such as
- degenerative changes in small arteries and arterioles
-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what happens in arterioschlerosis

A
  • lumen gradually narrows and may become obstructed
  • causes increased blood pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is atherosclerosis

A
  • presence of atheroma’s in large arteries
  • atheroma’s such as plaques consisting of lipids, calcium and possible clots
  • atherosclerosis is related to diet, exercise and stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

how are lipids transported

A

in combination with proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

expand on low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

A
  • transports cholesterol from liver to cells
  • major factor contributing to atheroma formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

expand on high-density lipoprotein (HDL)

A
  • transports cholesterol away from the peripheral cells to liver - “good” lipoprotein
  • catabolism in liver and excretion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what are nonmodifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis

A
  • age
  • gender
  • genetic or familial factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what are modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis

A
  • obesity
  • sedentary lifestyle
  • cigarette smoking
  • diabetes mellitus
  • poorly controlled hypertension (blood pressure)
  • combo of oral contraceptives and smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what do serum lipid level diagnostic tests test for

A
  • low density lipoprotein
  • high density lipoprotein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what does exercise stress test diagnostic tests test for

A
  • arterial obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what does nuclear medicine studies diagnostic tests test for

A

the degree of tissue perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what are treatment options for atherosclerosis

A
  • Weight loss
  • Increase exercise
  • Dietary modification
  • Reduction of sodium intake
  • Control hypertension
  • Control of primary disorder
  • Cessation of smoking
  • Antilipidemic drugs
  • Surgical intervention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is angina pectoris and when does it occur

A

-Recurrent, intermittent brief episodes of
substernal chest pain
- when there is a deficit of oxygen to meet myocardial needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are the 3 patterns that chest pain can occur in angina pectoris

A
  • classic or exertional angina
  • variant angina (vasospasm occurs at rest)
  • unstable angina (prolonged pain at rest - may precede myocardial infraction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

expand on angina pectoris attacks

A

-Attacks vary in severity and duration but become more frequent and longer as disease progresses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

how can angina pectoris attacks be relieved

A
  • by rest and administration of coronary vasodilators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what are signs and symptoms of angina pectoris

A
  • pallor
  • diaphoresis (excessive sweating)
  • nausea
  • chest pain
68
Q

what are emergency treatment options for angina

A
  • stop activity and rest
  • have patient seated in upright position
  • administer nitroglycerin sublingually
  • check pulse and respiration
  • administer oxygen if necessary
  • if patient is known to have angina then give a second dose of nitroglycerin
  • if patient doesn’t have a history of angina then give emergency medical aid
69
Q

when does a myocardial infraction occur

A
  • when the coronary artery is totally obstructed
70
Q

expand on myocardial infractions

A
  • Atherosclerosis is most common cause.
  • Thrombus from atheroma may obstruct artery.
  • Vasospasm is caused in a small percentage.
  • Size and location of the infarct determine the damage
71
Q

what are the warning signs of a heart attack

A
  • Feeling of pressure, heaviness, or burning in chest—especially with increased activity
  • Sudden shortness of breath, weakness, fatigue
  • Nausea, indigestion
  • Anxiety and fear
  • Pain may occur and, if present, is usually
    ( Substernal, Crushing, Radiating)
72
Q

what are possible complications if your serum enzyme levels change

A
  • Sudden death
  • Cardiogenic shock
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Rupture of necrotic heart tissue/cardiac
    tamponade
    -Thromboembolism causing cerebrovascular accident (CVA; with left ventricular MI)
73
Q

what is the treatment for out of what serum enzyme levels

A
  • Reduce cardiac demand
  • Oxygen therapy
  • Analgesics
  • Anticoagulants
  • Thrombolytic agents may be used.
  • Tissue plasminogen activator
  • Medication to treat: Dysrhythmias, hypertension, congestive heart failure
74
Q

what are cardiac dysrhythmias (arrhythmias)

A
  • deviations from normal cardiac rate or rhythm (caused by electrolyte abnormalities, fever, hypoxia, stress, infection, drug toxicity)
  • when there is a reduction of the efficiency of the hearts pumping cycle
75
Q

how can heart abnormalities such as arrhythmias be detected

A

using electrocardiography they can be detected and monitored

76
Q

what is the treatment for cardiac dysrhythmias (arrhythmias)

A
  • change of drugs as drugs could be the cause
  • pacemaker
  • antiarrhythmic drugs such as beta-adrenergic blockers, calcium channel blockers and digoxin
77
Q

what are the 4 Sinus node abnormalities

A
  • sa node
  • bradycardia
  • tachycardia
  • sick sinus syndrome
78
Q

expand on the SA node

A
  • pacemaker of the heart
  • rate can be altered
79
Q

what is bradycardia

A
  • regular but slow heart rate
80
Q

what is tachycardia

A

regular rapid heart rate

81
Q

what is sick sinus syndrome

A
  • marked by altering bradycardia and tachycardia
  • often required mechanical pacemaker placement
82
Q

what are the 3 atrial conduction abnormalities

A
  • premature atrial contractions or beats
  • atrial flutter
  • atrial fibrillation
83
Q

what is premature atrial contractions or beats

A
  • extra contraction or ectopic beats
  • irritable atrial muscle cells outside conduction pathway
84
Q

what is atrial flutter

A
  • atrial heart rate of 160 to 350 beats per minute
  • av node delays conduction - ventricular rate slower
85
Q

what is atrial fibrillation

A
  • rate over 350 beats per minute
  • causes pooling of blood in atria
  • thrombus formation is a risk
86
Q

what are the 4 atrioventricular node abnormalities

A
  • heart blocks
  • first degree block
  • second degree block
  • third degree block
87
Q

what is heart block

A
  • conduction excessively delayed or stopped at av node or bundle of his
88
Q

what is first degree block

A

conduction delay between atrial and ventricular contractions

89
Q

what is second degree block

A

every second to third atrial beat dropped at av node

90
Q

what is third degree block

A

no transmission from atria to ventricles

91
Q

what are the 4 ventricular conduction abnormalities

A
  • bundle branch block
  • ventricular tachycardia
  • ventricular fibrillation
  • premature ventricular contractions
92
Q

what is bundle branch block

A
  • interference with conduction in one of the bundle branches
93
Q

what is ventricular tachycardia

A
  • likely to reduce cardiac output as reduced in diastole occurs
94
Q

what is ventricular fibrillation

A
  • muscle fibers contract independently and rapidly
  • cardiac standstill occurs if not treated immediately
95
Q

what is premature ventricular contractions

A
  • additional beats from ventricular muscle cell or ectopic pacemaker, may lead to ventricular fibrillation
96
Q

what is the treatment for cardiac dysrhythmias

A
  • Cause needs to be determined and treated.
  • Antidysrhythmic drugs are effective in many cases.
  • SA nodal problems or total heart block require pacemaker.
  • Defibrillator may be implanted for conversion of ventricular fibrillation.
97
Q

what is cardiac arrest

A
  • cessation of all heart activity (no conduction of impulses and flat ECG)
98
Q

What are the causes of cardiac arrest

A
  • Excessive vagal nerve stimulation
  • Potassium imbalance
    -Cardiogenic shock
  • Drug toxicity
    -Insufficient oxygen
  • Respiratory arrest
  • Blow to heart
99
Q

expand on congestive heart failure

A
  • heart is unable to pump out sufficient blood to meet metabolic demands of the body
  • usually a complication of another cardiopulmonary condition
  • various compensation mechanisms maintain cardiac output
100
Q

what happens in congestive heart failure when the heart cannot maintain pumping capability

A

cardiac output or stroke volume decreases
- less blood reached the various organs
- decreased cell function
- fatigue and lethargy
- mild acidosis develops

backup and congestion develop as coronary demands for oxygen and glucose are not met
- output from ventricle is less than the inflow of blood
- congestion in venous circulation draining into the affected side of the heart

101
Q

what are the effects of left-sided congestive heart failure

A
  • left ventricle weakens and cannot empty
  • decreased cardiac output to system
  • decreased renal blood flow stimulated renin-angiotensin and aldosterone secretion
  • backup of blood into pulmonary vein
  • high blood pressure in pulmonary capillaries leads to pulmonary congestion or edema
102
Q

what are the effects of right-sided congestive heart failure

A
  • right ventricle weakens and cannot empty
  • decreased cardiac output to system
  • decreased renal blood flow stimulates renin-angiotensin and aldosterone secretion
  • backup of blood into systemic circulation
  • increased venous pressure results in edema in legs and liver and abdominal organs
  • very high venous pressure causes distended neck vein and cerebral edema
103
Q

what are signs and symptoms ( forward effects) of congestive heart failure

A
  • decreased blood supply to tissues, general hypoxia
  • fatigue and weakness
  • dyspnea and shortness of breath
104
Q

what are the signs and symptoms (compensation mechanisms) of congestive heart failure

A
  • tachycardia
  • cutaneous and visceral vasoconstriction
  • daytime oliguria
105
Q

what are the signs and symptoms (backup effects of left-sided failure) of congestive heart failure

A
  • related to pulmonary congestion
  • dyspnea and orthopnea
  • cough
  • paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (indicates the presence of acute pulmonary edema, develops in sleep)
106
Q

what are the signs and symptoms (systemic backup of right-sided failure) of congestive heart failure

A
  • Dependent edema in feet, legs, or buttocks
  • Increased pressure in jugular veins leads to distention.
  • Hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
    (Digestive disturbances)
  • Ascites ( Complication when fluid accumulates in peritoneal cavity, Marked abdominal distention)
  • Acute right-sided failure (Flushed face, distended neck veins, headache, visual
    disturbances)
107
Q

expand on young children with congestive heart failure

A
  • Often secondary to congenital heart disease
  • Feeding difficulties often first sign (Failure to gain weight or meet developmental guidelines)
  • Short sleep periods
  • Tripod position to play
  • Cough, rapid grunting respirations, flared nostrils, wheezing
  • Radiographs show cardiomegaly.
  • Arterial blood gases used to measure hypoxia
108
Q

what are cardiac anomalies

A

structural defects in the heart that develop during the first 8 weeks of embryonic life

109
Q

expand on congenital heart disease

A
  • Valvular defects
  • Septal defects
  • Detected by the presence of heart murmurs
  • If untreated, child may develop heart failure.
110
Q

what are signs and symptoms of congenital heart disease

A
  • pallor
  • tachycardia
  • dyspnea on exertion
  • squatting position in toddlers and older children
  • clubbed fingers
  • intolerance for exercise and exposure to cold weather
  • delayed growth and development
111
Q

what are the diagnostic tests for congenital heart disease

A
  • Radiography
    -Diagnostic imaging
  • Cardiac catheterization
  • Echocardiography
  • Electrocardiography
112
Q

what is the treatment for congenital heart disease

A

surgical repair

113
Q

expand on ventricular septal defect

A
  • most common congenital heart defect
  • opening in the interventricular septum may vary in size and location
  • if untreated usually leads to higher pressure in left ventricle, shunt from left to right
114
Q

what is the treatment for ventricular septal defect

A

Surgical procedures
- Open heart surgery
- Catheter procedure
- Hybrid procedure

Medical procedures to
- Increase strength of contractions
- Decrease amount of fluid in circulation
- Keep a regular heartbeat

115
Q

expand on valvular defects

A
  • usually affect aortic and pulmonary valves
  • may be classified as stenosis or valvular incompetence (failure of valve to close completely, blood regurgitates or leaks backward)
  • mitral valve prolapse (abnormally large and floppy valve leaflets)
  • surgical replacement (mechanical or animal tissue)
116
Q

expand on tetralogy of fallot

A
  • most common cyanotic (right to left shunt) congenital heart condition
  • cyanosis occurs because shunt bypasses the pulmonary circulation
  • alters pressures in heart and alters blood flow
117
Q

what are the 4 abnormalities found in tetralogy of fallot

A
  • involves heart as well as joints
  • vsd
  • dextroposition of the aorta
  • right ventricular hypertrophy
118
Q

expand on rheumatic fever

A
  • acute systemic inflammatory condition
  • may result from an abnormal immune reaction
  • can occur a few weeks after an untreated infection
  • involves heart as well as joints
  • usually occurs in children 5 to 15
  • long term effects are rheumatic heart disease and infective endocarditis and heart failure
119
Q

expand on the acute stage of rheumatic fever

A

inflammation of the heart

  • pericarditis
  • myocarditis
  • endocarditis and incompetent heart valves
120
Q

expand on other sites of inflammation in rheumatic fever

A
  • large joints
  • erythema marginatum
  • nontender subcutaneous nodules
  • involuntary jerky movement of the face, arms, legs
121
Q

what are signs and symptoms of rheumatic fever

A
  • Low-grade fever
  • Leukocytosis
  • Malaise
  • Anorexia, and fatigue
  • Tachycardia
  • Heart murmurs
  • Epistaxis and abdominal pain may be present.
122
Q

what are the diagnostic tests used for rheumatic fever

A
  • elevated serum antibody level tests
  • heart function test
  • electrocardiography
  • aso titer
123
Q

what is the treatment for rheumatic fever

A
  • prophylactic antibacterial agents
  • antiinflammatory agents
124
Q

what is subacute infective endocarditis

A

streptococcus viridans
- insidious onset of increasing fatigue, anorexia, cough and dyspnea

125
Q

what is acute infective endocarditis

A

staphyloccocus aureus
- sudden, marked onset of spiking fever, chills and drowsiness

126
Q

expand on the basic effects of infective endocarditis

A
  • they are the same regardless of the organism
127
Q

what are factors that predispose you to infective endocarditirs

A
  • presence of abnormal valves in heart
  • bacteremia
  • reduced host defenses
128
Q

what are signs or infective endocarditis

A
  • low grade fever
  • fatigue
  • anorexia
  • splenomegaly
  • congestive heart failure in severe cases
129
Q

expand on pericarditis

A
  • usually secondary to another condition
  • classified by cause or type of exudate
130
Q

expand on acute pericarditis

A
  • may involve simple inflammation of the pericardium
  • may be secondary to open heart surgery, myocardial infarction, rheumatic fever, systemic lupus erythematosus, cancer, renal failure, trauma and viral infection
  • effusion may develop (large volume of fluid accumulates in pericardial sac which leads to distended neck veins, faint heart sounds)
131
Q

what are the effects of pericardial effusion

A
  • fluid around heart compresses heart wall
  • heart cannot expand to fill
  • backup into systemic circulation
  • decreased blood flow to lungs
  • decreased output to body
132
Q

expand on chronic pericarditis

A
  • Results in formation of adhesions between the pericardial membranes
  • Fibrous tissue often results from tuberculosis or radiation to the mediastinum.
  • Limiting movement of the heart during diastole and systole → reduced cardiac output
  • Inflammation or infection may develop from adjacent structures.
  • Causes fatigue, weakness, abdominal discomfort (Caused by systemic venous congestion)
133
Q

what is hypertension

A
  • high blood pressure which is common, can occur in any age group and more common in individuals of african decent
  • sometimes classified as systolic or diastolic
134
Q

expand on primary hypertension (high blood pressure)

A
  • essential hypertension
  • blood pressure consistently above 140/90 mm HG
  • increase in arteriolar vasoconstriction
  • over long period of time there can be damage to arterial walls (blood supply to involved area is reduced and ischemia/necrosis of tissues)
135
Q

expand on secondary hypertension

A
  • results from renal or endocrine disease, pheochromocytoma (benign tumor of the adrenal medulla)
  • underlying problem must be treated to reduce blood pressure
136
Q

expand on malignant or resistant hypertension

A
  • uncontrollable, severe, and rapidly progressive form with many complications
  • diastolic pressure is extremely high
137
Q

what are areas most frequently most damaged by hypertension

A
  • kidneys
  • heart
  • brain
  • retina
138
Q

what are predisposing factors to hypertension

A
  • incidence increases with age
  • men affected more frequently and more severely
  • incidence in women increases after middle age
  • genetic factors
  • sodium intake, excessive alcohol intake, obesity, smoking, prolonged or recurrent stress
139
Q

expand on the first signs of hypertension

A
  • often asymptomatic
  • fatigue, malaise, morning occipital headache
140
Q

what are the steps that essential hypertension is treated in

A
  • lifestyle changes
  • reduction of sodium intake
  • weight reduction
  • reduction of stress
  • drugs
141
Q

expand on atherosclerosis (peripheral vascular disease)

A
  • disease in arteries outside the heart
  • increased incidence in people with diabetes
142
Q

what are the most common sites that atherosclerosis occurs

A
  • abdominal aorta
  • carotid arteries
  • femoral and iliac arteries
143
Q

what are the diagnostic tests performed for atherosclerosis

A
  • blood flow assessed by doppler studies and arteriography
  • plethysmography measures the size of limbs and blood volume in organs or tissues
144
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of atherosclerosis

A
  • increasing fatigue and weakness in the legs
  • intermittent claudication (leg pain)
  • associated with exercise caused by muscle ischemia
  • sensory impairment (tingling, burning, numbness)
  • peripheral pulses distal to occlusion become weak
  • appearance of the skin (marked pallor or cyanosis, skin dry and hairless, toenails thick and hard)
145
Q

what is the treatment for atherosclerosis

A
  • Maintain control of blood glucose level
  • Reduce body mass index
  • Reduce serum cholesterol level
  • Platelet inhibitors or anticoagulant medication
  • Cessation of smoking
  • Increase activity and exercise
  • Maintain dependent position for legs
  • Peripheral vasodilators
  • Observe skin for breakdown and treat promptly.
  • If gangrene develops, amputation is required
146
Q

what is aortic aneurysm

A
  • Localized dilation and weakening of arterial wall
  • Develops from a defect in the medial layer
147
Q

what are the different shapes of aortic aneurysm

A
  • Saccular (Bulging wall on the side)
  • Fusiform (Circumferential dilation along a section of artery)
  • Dissecting aneurysm (Develops when there is a tear in the intima of the wall and
    blood continues to dissect or separate tissues)
148
Q

expand on etiology of vascular disorders

A
  • atherosclerosis
  • trauma
  • syphilis and other infections
  • congenital defects
149
Q

what are signs and symptoms of vascular disorders

A
  • Bruit (a blowing sound) may be heard on
    auscultation.
  • Pulse may be felt on palpation of abdomen.
  • Frequently asymptomatic until they become large or rupture.
  • Rupture may lead to moderate bleeding but usually causes severe hemorrhage and death.
150
Q

what is the treatment for the etiology of vascular diseases

A
  • Maintain blood pressure at normal level
  • Prevent sudden elevations caused by exertion
  • Prevent stress, coughing, constipation
  • Surgical repair
151
Q

expand on varicose veins

A
  • Irregular, dilated, tortuous areas of superficial veins
  • Familial tendency
  • Increased body mass index, parity, and weight lifting are risks
152
Q

expand on vericose veins in the legs

A
  • May develop from defect or weakness in vein walls or valves
  • Appear as irregular, purplish, bulging structures
153
Q

expand on the treatment for vericose veins

A
  • Keep legs elevated, support stockings
  • Restricted clothing, crossing legs to be avoided
  • Can be surgically removed
154
Q

what is thrombophlebitis

A

Thrombus development in inflamed vein

155
Q

what is phlebothrombosis

A

Thrombus forms spontaneously without prior inflammation; attached loosely.

156
Q

what are the factors for thrombus development

A
  • Stasis of blood or sluggish blood flow
  • Endothelial injury
  • Increased blood coagulability
157
Q

what are the signs and symptoms for Thrombophlebitis and Phlebothrombosis

A
  • Often unnoticed
  • Aching, burning, tenderness in affected legs
  • Systemic signs—fever, malaise, leukocytosis
158
Q

what is the complication for Thrombophlebitis and Phlebothrombosis

A

pulmonary embolism

159
Q

what is the treatment for Thrombophlebitis and Phlebothrombosis

A
  • Preventive measures (Exercise, elevating legs)
  • Anticoagulant therapy
  • Surgical intervention
160
Q

expand on hypovolemic shock

A

loss of circulating blood volume

161
Q

expand on cardiogenic shock

A

inability of heart to maintain cardiac output to circulation

162
Q

expand on Distributive, vasogenic, neurogenic, septic, anaphylactic shock

A

Changes in peripheral resistance leading to pooling of blood in the periphery

163
Q

what are early manifestation of shock

A
  • anxiety
  • Tachycardia
  • Pallor
  • Light-headedness
  • Syncope
  • Sweating
  • Oliguria
164
Q

expand on the compensation mechanisms for shock

A

-SNS and adrenal medulla stimulated—increase heart rate, force of contraction, systemic vasoconstriction.
- Renin secretion increases
- Increased ADH secretion
- Secretion of glucocorticoids
- Acidosis stimulates increased respiration ( With prolonged shock, cell metabolism is diminished, waste not removed—leads to lower pH)

165
Q

what are complications of shock

A
  • Acute renal failure
  • Shock lung, or adult respiratory distress syndrome
  • Hepatic failure
  • Paralytic ileus, stress or hemorrhagic ulcers
  • Infection or septicemia
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation
  • Depression of cardiac function