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Brain and Behavior > Unit 2 B&B - Lecture > Flashcards

Unit 2 B&B - Lecture Flashcards

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1
Q

Sperm + ovum = ?

A

zygote

3/1/24

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2
Q

What is the first major stage in development?

A

zygote

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3
Q

Multiple Choice

Which of the following are in the correct order, according to human development?
* zygote; blastocyst; morula; embryo
* morula; embryo; zygote; blastocyst
* zygote; morula; blastocyst; embryo
* blastocyst; zygote; morula; embryo

A

zygote; morula; blastocyst; embryo

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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4
Q

Multiple Choice

When does a human have the most synapses?
* early embryonic development
* early childhood
* late in fetal development
* adolescence

A

early childhood

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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5
Q

Multiple Choice

What is the name of the developmental period in which a human has the most quantity of neurons?
* adulthood
* at birth
* late in life
* adolescence

A

at birth

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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6
Q

Multiple Choice

Hormones are typically released ——– allowing them to exert effects throughout the body.
* into the synapse
* into the circulatory system
* into the brain
* outside the body

A

into the circulatory system

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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7
Q

Multiple Choice

Which component is necessary for apoptosis?
* Death genes
* Methylation
* Neurogenesis markers
* Neurotrophic factors

A

death genes

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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8
Q

Multiple Choice

Undifferentiated —— cells, if gathered from embryonic tissue and transplanted into the brain, will differentiate and integrate properly.
* mesodermal
* apoptotic
* stem
* ventricular

A

stem

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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9
Q

Multiple Choice

——– regulates all hormone secretions and acts similar to a thermostat.
* negative feedback
* positive feedback
* action potentials
* endocrine gland shut down

A

negative feedback

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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10
Q

Multiple Choice

Which of the following statements is correct?
* pheromones definitely allow women to “sync up” menstrual cycles
* unlike most mammals, humans are not sensitive to hormones
* humans have a very sensitive vomeronasal organ
* there is mixed evidence regarding humans and pheromones

A

there is mixed evidence regarding humans and pheromones

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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11
Q

Multiple Choice

—— is an example of a major class of steroid hormones produced by the ——
* testes; testosterone
* estrogen; gonads
* progestin; ovary
* progestin; gonads

ASK PROF - Got this wrong on quiz

A

answered “estrogen;gonads” but got it wrong

progestin - isn’t this synthetic progesterone? meaning it wouldn’t be produced in the ovary or gonads. This rules out C and D.

testes - testes are not hormones. This rules out A.

NEED TO ASK - Office Hours

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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12
Q

Multiple Choice

Which of the following hormones is MOST responsible for the masculinization of the zebra finch song system?
* testosterone
* estrogen
* progesterone
* androstenedione

A

estrogen

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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13
Q

Multiple Choice

Preventing estrogen synthesis in a male zebra finch during development would likely:
* lead to larger brain areas associated with song
* cause no significant changes in the song system of the brain
* create a gynandromorph bird
* lead to smaller brain areas associated with song

A

cause no significant changes in the song system of the brain

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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14
Q

Multiple Choice

Alzheimer’s disease causes a gradually loss of ———, due to the death of basal forebrain neurons.
* acetylcholine.
* dopamine.
* serotonin.
* norepinephrine.

A

acetylcholine

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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15
Q

Multiple Choice

The process of apoptosis requires what?
* Methylation
* Neurogenesis markers
* Death genes
* Neurotrophic factors

A

death genes

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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16
Q

Multiple Choice

Reproduction that does NOT include the fusion of gametes or recombination of chromosomes is known as what?
* asexual reproduction
* infertile reproduction
* monecious reproduction
* ansiogametic reproduction

A

asexual reproduction

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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17
Q

Multiple Choice

———- is a biological variable, including aspects of genes, hormones, gametes, and anatomy.
* sex
* gender
* sexuality
* masculinity and femininity

A

sex

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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18
Q

Multiple Choice

Which of the following accurately describes an epigenetic process?
* fertilization of an egg by a sperm
* cell differentiation in interneurons, due to exposure to sonic hedgehog proteins in the spinal cord
* preferring spicy food, because you were raised eating it
* in-vitro fertilization

A

cell differentiation in interneurons, due to exposure to sonic hedgehog proteins in the spinal cord

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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19
Q

Multiple Choice

If Sheldon Cooper were to conduct an experiment on his roommate Leonard Hofstadter to enhance Leonard’s spatial memory, which of the following factors should Sheldon most likely manipulate?

  • The number of glial cells in Leonard’s brain
  • The size of Leonard’s neurons
  • The rate of neurogenesis in Leonard’s adult brain
  • The number of neurons Leonard had at birth
A

The rate of neurogenesis in Leonard’s adult brain

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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20
Q

Name the type of chemical communication.

oxytocin promotes the start of contractions in pregnant mammals

Hormone, allomone, pheromone, or synaptic?

A

hormone

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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21
Q

Name the type of chemical communication.

a cat releases a scent indicating it is in heat

Hormone, allomone, pheromone, or synaptic?

A

pheromone

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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22
Q

Name the type of chemical communication.

neurons in the frontal cortex release dopamine in response to eating chocolate cake

Hormone, allomone, pheromone, or synaptic?

A

synaptic

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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23
Q

Name the type of chemical communication.

trout emit a chemical to warn other trout of danger when spotting a predator

Hormone, allomone, pheromone, or synaptic?

A

pheromone

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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24
Q

Name the type of chemical communication.

a flower attracts a bee by emitting a sweet scent

Hormone, allomone, pheromone, or synaptic?

A

allomone

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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25
Q

Name the type of chemical communication.

the pituitary secretes FSH into the bloodstream, affecting the gonads

Hormone, allomone, pheromone, or synaptic?

A

hormone

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #1)

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26
Q

Multiple Choice

Nicotine and alcohol are examples of well known:
* types of polydactyly
* birth defectors
* teratogens
* endocrine disruptors

A

teratogens

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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27
Q

Multiple Choice

Neurotrophins are an excitatory neurotransmitter.
* This statement is correct.
* Incorrect; neurotrophins are inhibitory neurotransmitters
* Incorrect; neurotrophins are both inhibitory and excitatory neurotransmitters
* Incorrect; neurotrophins are different from neurotransmitters

A

Incorrect; neurotrophins are different from neurotransmitters

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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28
Q

Multiple Choice

These types of glands are hormone producing tissues.
* endocrine
* epigenetic
* neural
* gonadal

A

endocrine

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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29
Q

Multiple Choice

Which would not be considered an extrinsic influence on cells?
* Induction
* Nutrition
* Genes
* Experience

A

genes

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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30
Q

Multiple Choice

During development, an organism can be permanently changed by a teratogen if it occurs during the ———- period.
* plastic
* developmental
* flexible
* sensitive

A

sensitive

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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31
Q

Multiple Choice

Which of the following statements is correct regarding humans?
* men produce testosterone; but not estrogen
* women produce testosterone and estrogen
* women produce estrogen, only when they are pregnant
* men do not produce testosterone or estrogen

A

women produce testosterone and estrogen

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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32
Q

Multiple Choice

The development of ocular dominance as a results of increased connections between commonly used cells is an example of what?
* Hebbian synapses
* apoptosis
* synaptogenesis
* Watsonian connections

A

Hebbian synapses

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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33
Q

Multiple Choice

Cell fate is determined by factors including chemical environment and genetic activity. This is also known as
* apoptosis
* epigenetics
* sexual differentiation
* methylation

A

epigenetics

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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34
Q

Multiple Choice

Treating a female zebra finch egg with estrogen would most likely lead to which effect?
* the brain would fail to develop
* the brain would look more like the average male brain
* the brain would look hyper-feminine
* the brain would look no different

A

the brain would look more like the average male brain

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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35
Q

Multiple Choice

In early development, the cells that create neurons undergo mitosis in the ———-.
* cerebral cortex
* spinal cord
* neural tube
* brain stem

A

neural tube

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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36
Q

Multiple Choice

Why is it incorrect to say that sex is a binary characteristic in humans?
* there are more than 2 possible combinations of sex chromosomes
* none of these answers are correct
* because biology does not determine sex
* there are only 2 possible combinations of sex chromosomes

A

there are more than 2 possible combinations of sex chromosomes

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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37
Q

Multiple Choice

From the analogy discussed in class, a gene is like a ——, while a chromosome is can be compared to a ———

  • bookshelf with many cookbooks; single cookbook
  • single recipe; bookshelf with many cookbooks
  • single cookbook, single recipe
  • single recipe; single cookbook
A

single recipe (gene); bookshelf with many cookbooks (chromosome)

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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38
Q

Multiple Choice

A mutation in the SRY gene would likely disrupt what?
* gamete formation
* all of these answers are correct
* gonadal development
* sexual differntiation

A

all of these answers are correct

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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39
Q

Multiple Choice

If Dr. Meredith Grey were to invent a device that could accelerate one stage of the nervous system development in a patient, which stage would most likely result in the patient developing new neural connections?

  • Neurogenesis, the mitotic division of nonneuronal cells to produce neurons
  • Cell migration, the massive movements of nerve cells or their precursors to establish distinct nerve cell populations
  • Neuronal cell death, the selective death of many nerve cells
  • Synaptogenesis, the establishment of synaptic connections as axons and dendrites grow
A

Synaptogenesis, the establishment of synaptic connections as axons and dendrites grow

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #3)

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40
Q

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is NOT a major division of the CNS visible in early development?
* spinal cord
* forebrain
* none of these answers is correct
* hindbrain

A

none of these answers is correct

On quiz, chose spinal cord but got it wrong

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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41
Q

Multiple Choice

A drug that changes the amount of sonic hedgehog in the developing embryo would disrupt what?
* cell differentiation
* spinal cord development
* All of these answers are correct
* glial cell development

A

All of these answers are correct

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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42
Q

Multiple Choice

Hormones are a critical part of which function?
* all of these answers are correct
* stress
* circadian rhythms
* hunger and digestion

A

all of these answers are correct

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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43
Q

Multiple Choice

If a kitten’s left eye is occluded during the ——— visual cells later show ——– responses when visual stimuli is presented to the left eye
* sensitive; decreased
* critical; decreased
* sensitive; increased
* critical; increased

A

sensitive; decreased

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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44
Q

Multiple Choice

Fragile X syndrome is characterized by a chromosome that is prone to breaking due to what?
* unstable DNA
* methylated genes
* reduced chromosomal count
* increased methylation

A

unstable DNA

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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45
Q

Multiple Choice

Which of the following statements is correct regarding humans?
* men produce testosterone; but not estrogen
* women produce testosterone and estrogen
* men do not produce testosterone or estrogen
* women produce estrogen, only when they are pregnant

A

women produce testosterone and estrogen

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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46
Q

Multiple Choice

Which of the following statements is correct?
* non-human animals are classified by gender, not sex
* biological sex is determined by societal expectation
* gender is determined by steroid hormones
* gender is unique to humans

A

gender is unique to humans

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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47
Q

Multiple Choice

Which of the following conclusions are consistent with the findings on zebra finch, as discussed in class?
* only genetics drive sexual differentiation in the brain
* both hormones and genetics drive sexual differentiation in the brain
* neither hormones nor genetics drive sexual differentiation in the brain
* only hormones drive sexual differentiation in the brain

A

both hormones and genetics drive sexual differentiation in the brain

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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48
Q

Multiple Choice

Preventing estrogen synthesis in a male zebra finch during development would likely:
* create a gynandromorph bird
* lead to larger brain areas associated with song
* cause no significant changes in the song system of the brain
* lead to smaller brain areas associated with song

A

cause no significant changes in the song system of the brain

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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49
Q

Multiple Choice

At present, the only way to identify Alzheimer’s disease with confidence is through
* postmortem examination.
* genetic screening.
* olfactory testing.
* MRI.

A

postmortem examination

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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50
Q

Multiple Choice

PGT can NOT be used to assess what?

  • chromosomal abnormalities
  • all of these answers are correct
  • gender
  • chromosomal sex
A

gender

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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51
Q

Multiple Choice

If Dr. Bruce Banner (a.k.a., the Hulk) were to mutate due to an experiment gone wrong, causing his nervous system to develop abnormally, which of the following stages would most likely be affected?

  • The formation of the three distinct cell layers in the embryo
  • The development of the neural tube from the neural groove
  • The transition from the embryo to the fetus stage
  • The division of the single cell after fertilization
A

The development of the neural tube from the neural groove

Nervous System Development Quiz (Unit 2 - Quiz 1 - Attempt #2)

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52
Q

According to class, the ultimate function of the brain is [blank1].

A

homeostasis

In Class Homeostasis Learning Check

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53
Q

Eating a bunch of very salty chips would mostly likely result in ——–.

A

osmotic thirst

In Class Homeostasis Learning Check

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54
Q

Why is it a good idea to rehydrate with a slightly salty solution after a period of heavy sweating?

A

sweating causes the loss of bodily fluids AND electrolytes like sodium

In Class Homeostasis Learning Check

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55
Q

Humans are an ——- species

A

endothermic

In Class Homeostasis Learning Check

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56
Q

Most homeostatic systems work on a ——–feedback system.

A

negative

In Class Homeostasis Learning Check

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57
Q

Name the stages

Zygote > ————– > ————— > —————- > —————

(prenatal)

A

zygote > morula > blastocyte > embryo > fetus

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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58
Q

The ———– embeds to the uterus.

A

blastocyte

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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59
Q

Two weeks post-conception, the “baby” is called an ————.

A

embryo

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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60
Q

The “baby” is not called a fetus until —————– post-conception.

A

eight weeks

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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61
Q

What are the 3 layers of cells in a developing human embryo?

A

Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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62
Q

The ectoderm cells will eventually make up ——— and ———– tissue.

A

skin, neural tissue

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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63
Q

Cells in the —————– will become the skeleton and cardiac system.

layer of cells in embryo development

A

mesoderm

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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64
Q

Cells in the ————— will become the digestion and respiratory systems.

layer of cells in embryo development

A

endoderm

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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65
Q

Dorsal surface tissue will become the ————— system.

A

nervous

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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66
Q

————– of the ————— leads to development of the neural plate.

A

thickening; ectoderm

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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67
Q

The first step of neural development we’ve studied in class is the —————- of the ———————-, which is explains the beginning of cells organizing themselves into the nervous system.

A

induction; neural plate

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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68
Q

Everything happening during development is induced by ————————-.

A

chemical signaling

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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69
Q

The thickening of the ectoderm leads to the development of the neural plate. The neural plate then starts to form the ——————-, which then closes to form the ——————.

A

neural groove; neural tube

neural crest is the “peak” of the neural groove

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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70
Q

The neural tube is where we find the ——————–. The anterior portion of the neural tube will become the ———-.

A

spinal cord; brain

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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71
Q

The neural tube forms about ———– days post-conception.

A

22

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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72
Q

A(n) ——————- called —————- occurs if the neural tube fails to close correctly.

A

neural tube defect; spina bifida

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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73
Q

When something goes wrong during development of the neural tube, it results in a(n) ————————–.

A

Neural tube defect

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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74
Q

Neural tube defects can be caused by low —————- and/or exposure to ——————–.

A

maternal folic acid; teratogens

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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75
Q

Chemicals that can impact or disrupt development are ————.

A

teratogens

examples are alcohol and nicotine

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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76
Q

Why is extra folic acid included in so many products?

A

Because low maternal folic acid is associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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77
Q

The most common neural tube defect is ———–.

A

spina bifida

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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78
Q

————– occurs when the neural tube does not close at the top, preventing proper development of the skull. It generally results in more severe outcomes than other neural tube defects.

A

anencephaly

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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79
Q

When the neural tube fails to close properly along the spinal cord area, it results in ——————-. It can have effects varying in severity.

A

spina bifida

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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80
Q

True/False:

Spina bifida is usually correctible with surgery after birth.

A

True

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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81
Q

Why is it hard to pinpoint what causes a birth defect?

A

birth defects due to teratogen exposure can occur at any stage during development; many issues can cause the same impacts AND one issue can cause many impacts

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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82
Q

a disruption to the cardiac system during development

A

congenital heart defect

congenital = happening during prenatal development

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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83
Q

A type of birth defect that is caused by the neural tube closing improperly

A

Neural tube defect

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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84
Q

When facial muscle bones are forming, they may not fully come together. This is known as ————.

A

Orofacial clefts

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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85
Q

A birth defect that causes development of additional fingers and toes.

A

polydactyly

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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86
Q

Name three categories of teratogens.

A

Chemicals; infections; environments (internal and external)

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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87
Q

Earlier teratogen exposure usually leads to ——————– deficits.

A

more severe

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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88
Q

List the six phases of brain (or nervous system) development.

A
  1. neurogenesis
  2. cell migration
  3. cell differentiation
  4. synaptogenesis
  5. cell death (apoptosis)
  6. synapse rearrangement

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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89
Q

Name the phase of nervous system development.

the birth of new neural cells

A

neurogenesis

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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90
Q

Name the phase of nervous system development.

cells leave ventricular zone and head to different areas in the body where they will start developing the nervous system

A

cell migration

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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91
Q

Name the phase of nervous system development.

this stage is dependent on cell’s location or timing

A

cell differentiation

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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92
Q

Name the phase of nervous system development.

after cells are created, they create connections between one another to pass messages through the nervous system

A

synaptogenesis (creation of synapses)

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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93
Q

Name the phase of nervous system development.

excess neurons unable to get necessary chemical for survival start to die off

A

cell death (or apoptosis)

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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94
Q

Name the phase of nervous system development.

weaker synaptic connections are eliminated while stronger connections are kept and strengthened

A

synapse rearrangement

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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95
Q

———- is a period of intense cell proliferation.

A

neurogenesis

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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96
Q

What is cell proliferation and during which stage in neural development does it occur most?

A

generation of new cells; neurogenesis

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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97
Q

Where does neurogenesis occur?

A

in the ventricular zone of the neural tube

region of neural tube responsible for massive amounts of proliferation

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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98
Q

the rate of cell proliferation within the ventricular zone of the neural tube can be about ——————– per min.

A

250,000

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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99
Q

Neurogenesis leads to the creation of cells that are not specialized yet, called:

A

undifferentiated cells

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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100
Q

at the start of cell migration, the cells are ————-.

A

undifferentiated

differentiation occurs as cells migrate

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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101
Q

During the migration phase, cells are only a(n) ————– and a(n).

A

soma; immature axon

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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102
Q

How do undifferentiated cells become differentiated?

A

through chemical signaling interactions, specifically location or timing

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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103
Q

The ectodermal tissue acquires its neural fate through chemical signaling. Another series of signaling interactions determine the type of neural cell, ——— or ———–.

A

neurons (including motor neurons and interneurons) and glia

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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104
Q

Cells can be exposed to differentiation either through ———- or ———-.

A

timing; location

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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105
Q

The signaling protein —————-, is an example of cell differentiation through location.

A

Sonic Hedgehog

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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106
Q

The signaling protein, Sonic Hedgehog (Shh), is important for ——————- development.

A

spinal cord

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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107
Q

A cell that encounters high Shh will become ———-; medium Shh will become ———-; low Shh will become ————.

A

glia; motor neuron; interneuron

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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108
Q

In the cerebral cortex, neurons migrate from the ventricular zone on ——————- to become ———————–.

A

radial glia; gray matter

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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109
Q

Radial glia act as ———- for neurons in the development of the cerebral cortex.

A

scaffolding

old cells form lower levels, new cells climb past them to higher levels

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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110
Q

Why is the cerebral cortex organized into such well-defined layers?

A

because neurons use radial glia as scaffolding, so newer neurons climb past layers of older neurons to higher levels.

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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111
Q

The final position of the layers of cerebral cortex is correlated exactly to —————–.

A

the birthdate

this is helpful because if we see defects in formation of cortex, we can look at the time in development that these cells were formed and identify what may have happened at that point in development.

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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112
Q

in the cerebral cortex, cells that are leaving later migrate past the older neurons, creating ————— layering.

A

inside-out

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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113
Q

phase of nervous system development when synapses are created

A

synaptogenesis

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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114
Q

After synapses are formed, how does communication happen between the two cells?

A

chemical signaling

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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115
Q

during synaptogenesis, synapses are vital for cell-to-cell communication as well as —————-

A

cell survival

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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116
Q

the —————– of unfinished axons are searching the extracellular environment for connections to ————- of other cells. The neighboring cells attract the cells’ axon by ———————.

The ——— transforms into ———, which connects to the ————— of the postsynaptic cell, forming a(n) ———–.

During which phase of nervous system development does this occur?

A

growth cones; dendritic spines; emitting chemical signals

growth cone transforms into the axon terminal; dendritic spines; synapse

synaptogenesis

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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117
Q

——————— discovered that connections between cells do not determine how many axons form, they determine —————————–. This process is determined by ——————–.

1 is a person, 2 is a verb, and 3 is a thing.

A

Rita Levi-Montalcini; how many survive; neurotrophins

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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118
Q

The neurotrophin discovered by Levi-Montalcini.

A

Nerve Growth Factor

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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119
Q

What does nerve growth factor (NGF) do?

A

NGF is a neurotrophin protein released by cells necessary for axon survival. It plays a role in the stage of nervous system development where neurons are overproduced and die if they don’t make a connection. Only cells that get NGF will make connections with other cells and survive.

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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120
Q

Does a healthy adult nervous system contain more neurons?

A

No, we have all of the cells needed at birth

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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121
Q

Between —-% and —-% of neurons created will die after migration.

A

50; 75

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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122
Q

What is another word for cell death?

A

apoptosis

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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123
Q

T/F

Cell death (apoptosis) is unnecessary and harmful, and ideally, it would not occur during development.

A

False; cell death is normal and necessary otherwise we would have many cells that take up energy but don’t provide any function for us

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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124
Q

In case something goes wrong, we ———— cells during development.

A

overproduce

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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125
Q

Only cells that successfully compete for chemicals make functional connections and survive. What is this called?

A

Neural Darwinism

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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126
Q

T/F:

A healthy adult CNS has many neurons without appropriate connections.

A

False; a healthy adult CNS has very few neurons without appropriate connections

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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127
Q

Neurotrophins are very important during development and also throughout the lifespan. What are three things that neurotrophins do?

A
  • promote cell growth and survival
  • guide axons
  • stimulate synaptogenesis

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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128
Q

—————- are a family of proteins essential for development of the vertebrate nervous system and help with cell survival during development.

A

Neurotrophins

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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129
Q

Name 4 neurotrophins.

A
  • nerve growth factor (NGF)
  • brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BNDF)
  • neurotrophin 3 (NT3)
  • neurotrophin 4-5 (NT4/5)

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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130
Q

———— are expressed only when a cell undergoes apoptosis (in the absence of ————)

A

death genes; neurotrophins

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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131
Q

Explain the process of cell death (apoptosis).

A

A cell does not receive neurotrophins and is unable to create strong enough synaptic connections with other cells. Death genes are expressed. The cell shrinks and loses any physical connections with neighboring cells then blebs, and the nucleus collapses. Finally, the cell breaks down into apoptopic bodies and remaining debris is broken down by white blood cells.

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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132
Q

The process of synapse rearrangement is —————————-, meaning cells that are not used die off.

A

experience-dependent

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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133
Q

Synapse rearrangement allows for ————- and ———–.

A

neural adaptation and recovery

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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134
Q

The process of losing weaker connections between cells is known as —————.

A

Pruning

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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135
Q

Within 3 years, a human goes from about ———— synapses per cell to ———— synapses per cell.

A

2500 to 15000

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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136
Q

Adults have approximately ——— synapses per cell.

A

7000

Lecture 3/1/2024: Development of the Nervous System

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137
Q

What is the ultimate function of the brain?

A

homeostasis

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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138
Q

What is homestasis?

A

any biological processes that keep body variables within a fixed range

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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139
Q

List some homeostatic mechanisms.

A

body temp, levels of water, oxygen, glucose, calcium, protein or fat, etc.

sun, air supply, survival without water or food

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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140
Q

Homeostasis is controlled by ——– and ——- systems.

A

physiological; behavioral

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141
Q

Homeostasis includes any biological processes that keep body variables within a ———–.

A

fixed range

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142
Q

Who holds the record for longest amount of time without water? How did this happen and what was his record?

A

Andreas Mihavecz was forgotten about in a jail cell for 18 days. He did not have water, but was able to lick condensation off of the wall.

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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143
Q

Who holds the record for longest amount of time without food? How did this happen and what was the record?

A

Angus Barbieri lived for 382 days without food. He was under dr. supervision and received some nutrients throughout but no significant calories. He went from 456 lbs to 180lbs and died in 1990. The food deprivation period did not seem to impact his lifespan.

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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144
Q

What is the average amount of time a person can go without water?

A

about a week

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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145
Q

What is the average amount of time a person can go without food?

A

estimated to be between 21 and 40 days, but there is a debate about how long a person can go without food

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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146
Q

What are three ways in which a person can die by anorexia?

A
  • myocardial infarction
  • organ failure
  • refeeding and sodium toxicity (if refeeding is not supervised, this can be dangerous because the body is pulling salt from different places and NA/K pumps are not working correctly)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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147
Q

If a person with anorexia undergoes refeeding unsupervised, they are at risk of ——————-.

A

sodium toxicity

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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148
Q

Humans can go without air for about ——————.

A

3 minutes

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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149
Q

What is static apnea?

A

a person has trained themselves to go without oxygen for an extended period of time

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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150
Q

The record for air deprivation (for someone who has undergone static apnea training) is ————–.

A

24 minutes and 3 seconds

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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151
Q

When a person hypersaturates their lungs with pure oxygen then holds their breath for an extended period of time, it is known as ——————-.

A

oxygen assist

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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152
Q

How did a Russian cult contribute to our understanding of sunlight deprivation?

A

The cult lived in tunnels underground, so children had never been exposed to sunlight. They developed vitamin D deficiencies (rickets) and serotonin deficiencies.

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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153
Q

When a person’s bones soften due to proloned and extensive vitamin D deficiency, it is called ——–.

A

Rickets

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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154
Q

Who holds the record for longest amount of time without sleep? What was the record?

A

A high schooler named Randy Gardner stayed awake for 11 days (264 hrs).

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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155
Q

After being deprived of sleep for —— to —— days, a person will typically have several cognitive and physiological impairments.

A

2-3 days

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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156
Q

——- is the maintenance of a stable, balanced, internal environment

A

homeostasis

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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157
Q

homeostasis is controlled by ——- and ——- systems.

A

physiological; behavioral

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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158
Q

Changes in our internal environment can affect ———–, a psychological process that induces or sustains certain behavior.

A

Motivation

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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159
Q

The longer we go without eating, the longer our internal environment undergoes physiological changes = the more ———– we will be to partake in certain behaviors.

A

motivated

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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160
Q

—————– > change in motivation > —————–

A

physiological event > change in motivation > change in behavior

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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161
Q

———- generate their own heat through internal processes.

A

Endotherms

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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162
Q

———- get most of their heat from the environment

A

Ectotherms

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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163
Q

Ectothermic organisms lack the internal physiological mechanisms for ———————.

A

temperature regulation (they rely on the environment for regulating temperature)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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164
Q

Amphibians, reptiles, and most fish are ————.

A

Ectotherms

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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165
Q

It is a misnomer to refer to ectotherms as —————-. Why?

A

cold-blooded; because ectotherms will die if their body temperature drops below freezing

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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166
Q

What happens if an ectotherm’s body temperature drops below freezing?

A

ice crystals will form in their cells and blood, causing blood vessels to rupture and the animal to bleed to death

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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167
Q

Some insects and fish have evolved mechanisms that have ——– component in circulatory system, allowing them to essentially freeze solid without decaying.

A

antifreeze

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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168
Q

Ectotherm’s body temperature matches ————–.

A

their external environment

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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169
Q

insects and fish with “antifreeze” component have extraordinary ———- ability

A

blood-clotting

can quickly repair ruptured blood vessels

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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170
Q

Endoterms have internal physiological mecahnisms that ———————-.

A

help maintain almost constant body temperature (small temperature range)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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171
Q

Most mammals and birds are ——–.

A

endothermic

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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172
Q

What is a disadvantage of being endothermic?

A

it requires a lot of energy and fuel

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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173
Q

We can decrease our body temperatures through physiological responses like ——— or ———.

A

sweating; panting

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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174
Q

We can increase our body temperatures through physiological responses such as ———, ———, ———-, etc.

A

shivering; decreasing blood flow to skin; fluffing out fur to increase insulation

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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175
Q

What is the advantage of being endothermic?

A

Muscle activity benefits from being as warm as possible;  Ready for vigorous activity much more quickly than endotherms

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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176
Q

Homeostatic mechanisms are primarily —————— systems.

A

negative feedback

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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177
Q

What is the set point?

A

The optimal value that we want our homeostatic systems at (e.g., set point for temperature in humans is 98.6)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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178
Q

A deviation from the set point results in ——————–.

A

a compensatory action (ex. if we get too cold, we’ll shiver)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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179
Q

A ———– is a range of tolerance in a system.

A

set zone (ex. think of a thermostat)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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180
Q

On a line graph, a negative feedback system would be represented by a ——— line.

A

wavy

the value will reach its peak then the body will take action to lower it; the value will reach its low point, then the body will take action to raise it

(ex. thermostat)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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181
Q

In a negative feedback system, there will be ———- above and below the ——— temperature.

A

variability; average

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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182
Q

Physiological systems show ————–.

A

redundancy

they are monitored by more than 1 mechanism

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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183
Q

What are the two thermoregulatory systems in rats?

A
  • autonomic: reduces body heat produced and increases blood flow to tail (bc it is not covered in fur and dispenses a lot of heat)
  • behavioral: animals will seek out colder environment
    • Preoptic area (POA)
  • Warm sensitive neurons

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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184
Q

In rats, lesions to ——– impair physiological responses to cold. This only impacts ————— regulation; not ———— response.

A

POA; autonomic; behavioral

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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185
Q

What are the three strategies used to regulate behavior in a thermoregulatory system?

A
  1. change exposure of body surface (tuck in tail)
  2. change external insulation (ex. wear coat)
  3. change surroundings (go to warmer area)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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186
Q

In rats, lesions to the POA do not impact ————- responses to cold.

A

behavioral

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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187
Q

Lesioning the ———- in rats impacts autonomic regulation of temperature, whereas lesioning the ————— impacts behavioral regulation of temperature

A

POA; lateral hypothalamus

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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188
Q

Research into the POA and lateral hypothalamus’s roles in rat’s thermoregulation suggests what?

A

rats regulate their body temperature in at least two ways, and each is moderated by a different part of the brain

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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189
Q

The ————- is involved in reward, feeding, sleep, stress.

A

lateral hypothalamus

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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190
Q

In rats, lesions to the ——————– cause the rats to stop behavioral regulation of temperature. They do not involve ———— responses.

A

lateral hypothalamus; physiological

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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191
Q

——— heavily rely on behavioral thermoregulation responses.

A

Ectotherms

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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192
Q

What are two thermoregulation behaviors of ectotherms?

A
  • moving toward or away from a heat source
  • allowing their temperature to rise to fight infection (endotherms use internal processes to generate a fever)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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193
Q

Endotherms use ————– processes to generate a fever to fight infection.

A

internal

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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194
Q

Where are thermoreceptors found?

A

throughout the body in the skin; body core; and hypothalamus

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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195
Q

What are TRP receptors?

A

temperature-sensitive receptors

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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196
Q

We use ————— to monitor our thermoregulatory system.

A

thermoreceptors/TRP receptors

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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197
Q

Which receptors respond to capascin and menthol?

A

TRPV1

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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198
Q

What are TRP receptors responsible for?

A

detecting temperature and transmitting info

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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199
Q

TRP receptor pathway

A

spinal cord > brainstem > hypothalamus

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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200
Q

What happens when body temperature goes outside of set zone?

A

neural regions initiate physiological and behavioral responses to try to return temperature to the set zone (sweat, shiver, find different environment)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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201
Q

True/False:

Our thermoregulatory system only monitors our external environment.

A

False; also regulates internal temp

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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202
Q

What is the set zone for human body temperature?

A

about 95 to 107 degrees F

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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203
Q

When internal core reaches ——- degrees Farenheit, initial symptoms of hypothermia set in, including shivering, dizziness, confusion, increased heart rate.

A

95

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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204
Q

The average “normal” body temperature for a human is ———–.

A

98.5

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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205
Q

Our temperature varies ————.

A

throughout the day (lower in the AM and varies during sleep, activity)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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206
Q

Women tend to have slightly ——– baseline temp than men

A

higher (by about .5)

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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207
Q

generally normal optimal temperature range

A

97-99 degrees

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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208
Q

——— typically indicates an average fever resulting from illness or infection

A

101.5 degrees

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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209
Q

——– degrees is classifed as a serious fever.

A

103

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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210
Q

At ——— degrees, people can experience multiple organ failure and seizures.

A

107

LECTURE 3/18/2024: HOMEOSTASIS

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211
Q

What are some homeostatic systems?

A

Temperature, hunger, thirst

LECTURE 3/20/2024: THIRST

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212
Q

What is an endotherm and how does it differ from an ectotherm?

A

WRONG FLASHCARD A set point is the “ideal” point (98.6degrees)

A set zone – range that the system needs to stay in for survival

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213
Q

What is a set point and how dies it differ from a set zone?

A

WRONG FLASHCARD Body temp comes from organism vs. body temp comes from external environment

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214
Q

What are TRP receptors?

A

Thermoreceptors – receptors important for monitoring internal and external temperature; also play a role in pain, touch, gustatory/taste system

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215
Q

Excessive water loss is ——-.

A

dehydration

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216
Q

Fluid retention is essential because we need it in the —————— and ——————-.

A

intracellular compartment; extracellular compartment

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217
Q

The extracellular compartment is divided between:

A
  • interstitial fluid (extracellular fluid)
  • blood plasma (in cardiac system, carries hormones, etc.
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218
Q

When we move outside of the set zone for thirst, we become ——-.

A

dehydration

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219
Q

why do we need water?

A

water moves through major components in the body and is needed for biological function; needed in both intracellular compartment and extracellular compartment

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220
Q

We want a ————– in fluid and ions across both sides of cellular membrane.

A

balance

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221
Q

Body attempts to balance ———- and ——— of fluid across both sides of the membrane.

A

volume (equalization pressure); concentration (chemical diffusion pressure)

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222
Q

Thirst is triggered due to internal changes in fluid ———— or ————–.

A

volume (amount of fluid in body); concentration (ratio of fluid to sodium)

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223
Q

————- monitor blood pressure and amount of fluid in the system.

A

Baroreceptors

need enough blood to keep everything moving through bloodstream

224
Q

Baroreceptors are highly involved in the ———— nervous system.

A

sympathetic

225
Q

If baroreceptor system is disrupted, we get activation of the sympathetic nervous system. This causes ————– and —————-.

A

arteries to constrict; several hormonal systems to activate

226
Q

Why do arteries constrict in dehydration?

A

causes blood pressure to increase; makes it so circulatory system does not need as much fluid to fill the entire system

227
Q

Water in body needs to be within ——– range.

A

narrow

228
Q

Concentration of chemicals in water is a ————– step for all chemical reactions in the body.

A

rate-limiting

229
Q

It is safer for humans to ————– and ———— than it is to risk having too little fluid.

A

overhydrate; release

230
Q

A hormone released by the posterior pituitary moves through the circulatory system and helps monitor and maintain overhydration/release process

A

vasopressin

231
Q

vasopressin can increase ————– by constricting ———— to compensate for low fluid volume.

A

blood pressure; blood vessels

232
Q

vasopressin works with kidneys to:

A

reabsorb water and excrete highly concentrated urine

233
Q

The less fluid in the body, the ———— kidneys will absorb it before excreting.

A

more

234
Q

What are the two different kinds of thirst?

A

osmotic thirst and hypovolemic thirst

235
Q

——– results from change in sodium concentration. How is it caused?

A

osmotic thirst; eating salty food or adding too much salt too system

236
Q

—————- results from overall loss of fluids. How does this happen?

A

hypovolemic thirst; blood loss, sweating, etc.

there is no change in solute concentration (we sweat out both fluid and salt)

237
Q

Osmotic thirst is triggerd by —————–.

A

osmotic pressure

238
Q

When increasing sodium adds ions in blood and intersitital fluid (higher sodium outside of cell); creates ———–

A

osmotic pressure

239
Q

In osmotic pressure, there is a ———— of solutes outside of cell.

A

higher concentration

240
Q

Water losses without —————— result in osmotic thirst. What types of behaviors can cause osmotic thirst?

A

loss of sodium;

respiration and urination (solute concentration increases and the net effect is that the the balance of concentration in system is changed)

241
Q
A
242
Q

How does the body detect osmotic pressure?

A

osmosensory neurons (monitor concentration of solute in blood – detect osmotic pressure and sodium content of blood)

243
Q

Where do we see osmosensory neurons in the brain?

A

OVLT (organum vasculosum laminae terminalis), subfornical organ, preoptic area)

244
Q

Where do we find osmosensory neurons in the periphery?

A

stomach and digestive tract

245
Q

Osmosensory neurons monitor the changes in ————- of EC fluid.

A

concentration (also monitors osmotic pressure)

246
Q

Osmosensory neurons relay information to ————–, which interacts with ———– and ————–. These both play role in interactions with the endocrine gland, ——————.

A

hypothalamus
supraoptic nucleus
paraventricular nucleus
pituitary gland

247
Q

What does the pituitary gland release when osmotic pressure is detected?

A

vasopressin

248
Q

What structures control the rate at which vasopressin is released when osmotic pressure is detected?

A

supraoptic nucleus
paraventricular nucleus

249
Q

Vasopressin interacts with ———- and ————-.

A

blood pressure; water absorption

250
Q

———— is associated with low volume of body fluids.

A

hypovolemic thirst

251
Q

What does angiotensin II (AII) do?

A

increases blood pressure by constricting blood vessels (vasopressin can do this too)

252
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

stimulates kidneys to conserve sodium; aids in water retention

253
Q

What happens in the kidneys during hypovolemic thirst?

A

aldosterone stimulates kidneys to conserve sodium and aide in water retention (limit dehydration through urination)

254
Q

Other species use aldosterone to —————–.

A

live in sea water (conserves water retention, prevents extreme dehydration)

255
Q

How does aldosterone impact the brain?

A

stimulates thirst and drinking behavior (it is not enough to retain fluids; we also need to replace them)

256
Q

Homeostatic systems ——— mechanisms, trigger ———— response, trigger ————– response, then leads to ————– response.

A

monitor
physiological (thirst)
psychological (sensation of thirst)
behavioral (seek out water)

257
Q

Hypovolemic thirst creates preference for ————– water. Why?

A

slightly salty

because pure water will dilute body fluids and change osmotic pressure; if we have hypovolemic thirst, we want to replace both sodium and water so we don’t trigger osmotic thirst

258
Q

If hypovolemic thirst is treated with pure water and no salt, it results in ————————, which causes a strong craving for ——————.

A

sodium-specific hunger; salty foods

Lecture 3/20/2024: Thirst

259
Q

Sodium-specific hunger develops automatically to restore ————————-.

A

solute levels in the blood

Lecture 3/20/2024: Thirst

260
Q

Why does gatorade exist?

A

to address hypovolemic thirst – since you lose both sodium and water when sweating, you need to replenish both

Lecture 3/20/2024: Thirst

261
Q

In thirst system:

  • Where are the receptors/how is the system monitored?
  • What are the pathways?
  • What physiological responses are triggered?
  • What behavioral responses are triggered?
A

Lecture 3/20/2024: Thirst

262
Q

In thirst system:

Where are neurons that are monitoring osmotic pressure located/how is this information getting to the brain?

A

Lecture 3/20/2024: Thirst

263
Q

In thermoregulatory system:
- Where are the receptors/how is the system monitored?
- What are pathways to the brain?
- What are physiological responses?
- What are behavioral responses?

A
264
Q

In hunger system:
- Where are the receptors/how is the system monitored?
- What are pathways to the brain?
- What are physiological responses?
- What are behavioral responses?

A
265
Q

What is basal metabolism?

A

how much energy the body uses when it is just surviving (energy necessary to keep the body alive)

Lecture 3/22/2024: Hunger & Satiety

266
Q

Why won’t dietary changes always produce changes in weight?

A

basal metabolism means that our stores of energy are under homeostatic control – meaning we have long-term stores of energy that we’re able to use, so if we experience a short-term energy intake or expenditure, we won’t instantly see changes in body weight

267
Q

——— and ———- are contrasting homeostatic mechanisms responsible for maintaining adequate nutrition in the body.

A

hunger; satiety

268
Q

How does basal metabolism control energy usage?

A
  • producing heat/keeping body at correct temperature
  • maintaining membrane potentials
  • other life-sustaining processes
269
Q

Basal metabolism and energy use are under ———– control.

A

homeostatic

270
Q

Because basal metabolism and energy use are under homeostatic control, there is ————- because they can be ————.

A

variability; adjusted

271
Q

When we talk about homeostatic regulation in hunger and satiety, we are talking about ——————– and ——————– regulation.

A

energy intake; nutrient

272
Q

Why is nutrient homeostasis necessary?

A

Making sure we are taking in not just the right amount of energy/food, but also that that energy source/food has the proper nutrients

273
Q

————- are chemicals required for function, maintenance, and growth.

A

nutrients

274
Q

Nutrient homeostasis involves regulation of ——- and ———.

A

eating; body energy

275
Q

Like other homeostatic mechanisms, basal metabolism and nutrient regulation involve ———— mechanisms.

A

redundant

276
Q

What is the principal sugar used for energy in the body?

A

Glucose

the brain, in particular, is incredibly glucose-hungry

277
Q

Glucose is so important that (similar to water) we overconsume and store it short-term as ————- in ————— and —————.

A

glycogen; liver and muscles

278
Q

process of storing glucose into glycogen is called ——————, and it is monitored by the pancreatic hormone, —————.

A

glycogenesis; insulin

279
Q

When body’s circulating glucose levels drop too low, ———– works to convert —————- into ————-.

A

glucagon converts glycogen into glucose; then glucose is available in bloodstream and can be used in tissues that need it

280
Q

the process of making glucose available for use in the body; glucagon converts glycogen back into glucose

A

glycogenolysis

281
Q

Insulin is important for both —————– and also for allowing ————-.

A

storing glucose;
allowing circulating glucose to enter cells

282
Q

Why does the body need insulin?

A

to help glucose transporters import glucose from the blood into most cells

283
Q

———– binds to unlock the ————— channel to allow glucose to enter the cell.

A

insulin; glucose

284
Q

In order to use circulating glucose (blood sugar) and to store glucose, we need ———–.

A

insulin

285
Q

The ———- and ————- do not need insulin in order to use glucose.

A

brain; fatty acids

286
Q

——- is needed for glucose storage and ——— is needed to release it.

A

insulin; glucagon

287
Q

Some extra glycogen is stored as —— for long-term storage.

A

fat

288
Q

Insulin released is triggered by several mechanisms in —— phases.

A

three

289
Q

Which phase of insulin release?

Insulin release is mediated by brain in response to seeing, smelling or tasting food

A

cephalic phase

290
Q

Which phase of insulin release?

insulin released when food enters digestive tract

A

digestive phase

291
Q

Which phase of insulin release?

glucodetectors signal pancreas to release more insulin to help with glycogen storage

A

absorptive phase

292
Q

Where are glucodetectors located?

A

liver

293
Q

What are the two complementary processes of insulin release?

A
  • reduce blood sugar
  • raise blood sugar
294
Q

When glucodetectors recognize high levels of glucose, they signal the ———- to release ———-.

Insulin will remove excess ———- from the blood in two ways:
1. allows insulin to —————
2. signals ———- to .

These two things ————- blood sugar.

A

pancreas;
insulin

glucose;
enter target tissues;
liver;
start storing glucose as glycogen

lower

295
Q

High blood sugar promotes —————— release.

A

insulin

296
Q

When glucodetectors recognize low blood sugar, they signal the ———— to release ————, causing ————– to break down into ————, then enter into —————————— and ———— blood sugar level.

A

pancreas;
glucagon;
glycogen;
glucose;
circulatory system;
raise

297
Q

Low blood sugar promotes ————- release.

A

glucagon

298
Q

What happens when insulin is not working properly?

A

insulin fails to induce glucose absorption, resulting in diabetes

299
Q

Diabetes is a failure of ———– to induce ———– absorption.

A

insulin; glucose

300
Q

What does diabetes (a failure of insulin to induce glucose absorption) lead to?

A
  • chronic high blood sugar
  • damage to cells depending on glucose
301
Q

Which cells can diabetes impact?

A

those that are glucose dependent, including:
- eye disease
- renal failure
- diabetic foot
- stroke
- heart damage
- nerve disease
- arteriosclerosis

302
Q

People with diabetes are —- times more likely to have an amputation due to nerve damage.

A

20

303
Q

a loss of sensation due to nerve damage

A

sensory neuropathy

304
Q

When we talk about hunger, we’re talking about the brain monitoring ——– and ——– levels along with other info to monitor ————.

A

glucose;
insulin;
appetite

305
Q

True/False

Neither insulin nor glucose alone is an appetite signal.

A

True

306
Q

Areas associated with the ————–, including the ———————– and ———————-, are especially important in controlling hunger.

A

hypothalamus;
ventromedial hypothalamus (VMN);
lateral hypothalamus (LH)

307
Q

According to a study, VMH lesions caused ————-. This change happened due to —————. Thus, researchers believed this to be a ———— center.

A

obesity;
significant increase in food intake;
satiety

308
Q

According to a study, LH lesions caused ————-. This change happened due to —————. Thus, researchers believed this to be a ———— center.

A

weight loss;
refusal to eat;
hunger

309
Q

In the study lesioning VMH and LH areas, the weight of both lesioned groups stabilized over time. What did this indicate about these brain areas?

A

since both kinds of lesioned animals experienced satiety and hunger, neither center is wholly responsible for either sensation

amount of food affecting fullness/satiety changed depending on where lesion was

310
Q

In addition to brain areas, many ———– are important in regulating hunger and satiety.

A

hormones

311
Q

Hormones drive ——————– appetite control.

A

hypothalamic

312
Q

There is a circuit within ———– that integrates various hunger and satiety hormones.

A

arcuate nucleus

313
Q

————– and ———– constantly release hormonal signals about ————, short-term and long-term energy balance in the body.

A

digestive organs;
fat tissues;
ongoing

314
Q

Leptin is released by ————– and gives info about ———— energy.

A

fat cells;
long-term

315
Q

Initially it was thought that leptin deficiency was responsible for ——–. This was found to be true in mice but there was not a strong correlation in humans.

A

obesity

316
Q

Ghrelin is synthesized and released by ————–.

A

the stomach

317
Q

Ghrelin is high ———— we eat. It ————————–.

A

before;
drops off after eating

318
Q

Which hormone works as an appetite stimulant?

A

ghrelin

319
Q

PYY3-36 is released by —————.

A

intestinal cells

320
Q

We have ——- levels of PYY3-36 before eating and ——– levels after eating. It works as an ———————-.

A

low;
high;
appetite suppressant

321
Q

———- feeding, cholecystokinin (CCK) is released by the ———.

A

After;
gut

322
Q

CKK acts on the ——– nerve to ———— appetite.

A

vagus; inhibit

323
Q

Semiglutides like ———- or ———– are ————– peptide (GLP-1) agonists.

A

Wegovy; Ozempic
Glucagon-like

324
Q

What are the effects of semiglutides?

A
  • slow gastric emptying (keep food in stomach and digestive tract for longer; increases fullness; changes rate of hormones)
  • increase insulin secretion
  • reduces insulin resistance
  • increases cellular energy consumption
  • increases satiety signals
  • reduces appetite signaling (reducing overall food intake)
  • works with liver to reduce stored energy
325
Q

Although people using semiglutides lost weight, they ———— after stopping the drug, suggesting treatment may need to be ————– for it to be effective.

A

regained the weight; ongoing

main reason its effectiveness is controversial

326
Q

True/False:

Bacteria do a lot more than cause infection.

A

True

327
Q

Why might we need a paradigm shift to how we think about bacteria?

A

bacteria do much more in our body than cause infections; many “good” bacteria

328
Q

A healthy adult human has about —————– bacteria just in the gut.

A

100 trillion

329
Q

True/False:

Humans are more bacteria than they are human.

A

True

330
Q

The communal gut microbial genome (microbiome) is about ——- times larger than the human genome.

A

150

331
Q

We may think about the microbiome as its own ———–.

A

organ

all of our bacteria weighs about 1kg

332
Q

The microbiome is an —————— of cells with no ——————–. Compare to ————- system?

A

organized system of cells;
no distinct structure;
immune

333
Q

Our ————- change our gut microbiome, so it is incredibly ———–.

A

experiences;
individualized

334
Q

Host and microbiome have ————– interests and interplay. Neither wishes the other ———–.

A

evolutionarily-aligned;
harm

335
Q

As result of evolution, we have lost some genes and bacteria have maintained some genes that —————-.

A

are only beneficial to the host

336
Q

The —————- provides critical biosynthetic pathways that significantly extend host metabolic and physiologic capacity (exend our health as well as

A

microbiome

337
Q

What is a commensal relationship?

A

Our bacteria keep us alive (by extending out metabolic and physiologic capacity) and by staying alive, we continue to provide a host for bacteria

338
Q

We have bacteria in our gut that express ————– which converts glycans into useable sugars. No —————- is capable of digesting glycans–only bacterial enzymes.

A

glycoside hydrolase;
no human enzyme

339
Q

Many of the ———– that we eat are only digestible by bacteria, and bacteria produce these short-chain fatty acids.

A

carbohydrates

340
Q

—- to —–% of adult energy may be generated by ———- production or stored as fat.

A

10-15%;
short-chain fatty acid

Lecture 3/22/24: Hunger & Satiety

341
Q

The POA and LH are both involved in —– and this is an example of —— in homeostatic mechanisms.
* body temp regulation; redundancy
* body temp regulation; isolation
* appetite regulation; redundancy
* appetite regulation; isolation

A

body temp regulation; redundancy

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

342
Q

In humans, a body temperature below —— degrees F or above —— degrees F is generally considered cause for significant concern.

A

95; 106

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

343
Q

The —– controls blood pressure in part as a response to activation of ——-.
* sympathetic nervous system; baroreceptors
* sympathetic nervous system; thermoreceptors
* parasympathetic nervous system; baroreceptors
* parasympathetic nervous system; thermoreceptors

A

sympathetic nervous system; baroreceptors

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

344
Q

Baroreceptors are found in the organs of the ——.

A

sympathetic nervous system (got this wrong on quiz, should double-check)

answered “peripheral” but wrong on quiz

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

345
Q

Damage to the lateral hypothalamus would disrupt which of the following in rats?
* all of these answers are correct
* sleep behaviors
* feeding behavior, leading to weight loss
* autonomic thermoregulation

A

all of these answers are correct

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

346
Q

The intestinal hormones, —– and ——-, both show a rapid increase in secretion in response to eating, and have the effect of appetite suppression.
* PYY3-36; GLP-1
* ghrelin; leptin
* PYY3-36; ghrelin
* GLP-1; leptin

A

PYY3-36; GLP-1

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

347
Q

Disrupting ——– production would interfere with the changing of glucose to glycogen.

  • Aldosterone
  • CCK
  • Glucagon
  • Insulin
A

Insulin

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

348
Q

Anticipation of glucose triggers the —— phase of insulin release.
* Cephalic
* Digestive
* Absorptive
* Somatic

A

Cephalic

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

349
Q

Which pairing is correct?
* none of these answers are correct
* osmotic thirst; cardiac baroreceptors
* hypovolemic thirst; OVLT
* hypovolemic thirst; amygdala

A

none of these answers are correct

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

350
Q

Why does eating more slowly make you feel fuller?
* increased cholecystokinin production
* decreased cholecystokinin production
* increased vasopressin production
* decreased vasopressin production

A

increased cholecystokinin production

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

351
Q

When food hits your stomach, receptors detect which of the following sensations which contribute to satiety?
* stretching
* fullness
* flavor of food
* leptin release

A

stretching

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

352
Q

A child born via cesarean section would likely have ——- bacteria in their gut microbiome than a child born via vaginal delivery.
* different
* more
* less
* the same

A

different

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

353
Q

Adult humans get an estimated 10-15% of their daily energy from what?
* bacteria in the gut microbiome producing SCFAs
* fat cells converting glycogen into insulin
* leptin converting glucose into glycogen
* potatoes

A

bacteria in the gut microbiome producing SCFAs

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

354
Q

A patient with bulimia nervosa would typically have which of the following symptoms?
* cycles of binge-purge behaviors
* little to no appetite
* extremely low body weight
* all of these answers are correct

A

cycles of binge-purge behaviors

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

355
Q

As a mammal, Snoopy can maintain high and relatively constant body temperatures, allowing him to play with Woodstock and keep cool by sweating on a hot day. Snoopy would be an example of an ——–

  • Endotherm
  • Ectotherm
  • Ectoplasm
  • Endoplasm
A

endotherm

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

356
Q

———– allows for the separation of intracellular and extracellular fluids, facilitating specialized functions within cells while maintaining overall fluid balance.

  • Compartmentalization
  • Osmosis
  • Diffusion
  • Fluid pressure
A

compartmentalization

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

357
Q

The minimum caloric intake required by Patrick Mahomes to sustain his basic bodily functions when he’s not playing football is determined by which bodily process?

  • Basal metabolism
  • Diffusion
  • Homeostasis
  • Thermoregulation
A

Basal metabolism

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

358
Q

Sarah has Crohn’s disease, which affects her appetite. Her doctor in Michigan is able to give her a prescription for ———-, as there’s some evidence that this drug may help her gain some weight and have a better appetite.

  • Cannabis
  • Oxycodone
  • Steroids
  • SSRIs
A

cannabis

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

359
Q

physiological, behavioral, both, or neither?

A salamander lying on a sunny rock

A

behavioral

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

360
Q

physiological, behavioral, both, or neither?

An elephant using its trunk to spray water on its body

A

behavioral

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

361
Q

physiological, behavioral, both, or neither?

Complaining about the weather in Nebraska

A

neither

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

362
Q

physiological, behavioral, both, or neither?

Damage to the POA disrupts ___ responses

A

physiological

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #1

363
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a homeostatic process?

  • none of these answers are correct
  • body temperature regulation
  • hydration/ thirst
  • respiration/ breathing
A

none of these answers are correct

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

364
Q

The body uses a combination of —— signals to detect changes in the body and ——— signals to respond to those changes.
* afferent; efferent
* efferent; afferent
* heterostatic; homeostatic
* homeostatic; heterostatic

A

afferent; efferent

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

365
Q

These types of neurons monitor the concentration of the extracellular fluid.
* osmosensory
* osmotic
* allostatic
* sensory

A

osmosensory

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

366
Q

Gut neurons communicate information about the regulation of saltiness of fluid within the stomach and intestine via the ———–.
* vagus nerve
* subfornical organ
* prefrontal cortex
* organum vasculosum

A

vagus nerve

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

367
Q

Having an extremely low body fat would potentially disrupt the body’s ability to do what?
* store energy for long term use
* convert glucose to glycogen
* use glucose
* maintain hydration

A

store energy for long term use

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

368
Q

Which of the following hormones are produced in the gut?
* all of these answers are correct
* PYY
* CCK
* ghrelin

A

all of these answers are correct

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

369
Q

——- is converted into —— for storage as a reserve fuel.
* glucose, glycogen
* glycogen, glucose
* glucose, glucagon
* glucose, lipids

A

glucose, glycogen

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

370
Q

Which of the following statements is correct about healthy adult humans?
* they have more bacterial cells than glia
* they have more neurons than glial cells
* the human body contains 150x more genes than the gut microbiome
* the gut microbiome makes up about 10% of their body weight

A

they have more bacterial cells than glia

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

371
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
* bariatrics is the study of the causes, prevention, and treatment of obesity
* obesity has reached epidemic proportions in the Europe, but not the US
* the majority of US adults do not meet the diagnostic criteria for obesity
* all of these answers are correct

A

bariatrics is the study of the causes, prevention, and treatment of obesity

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

372
Q

——— maintains a stable internal environment by responding to immediate physiological needs, while ———– anticipates and adjusts to potential challenges or stressors.

  • Homeostasis, allostasis
  • Allostasis, homeostasis
  • Homeostasis, anxiety
A

homeostasis; allostasis

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

373
Q

You’re at the LNK Airport on your way to a vacation in Chicago. As you approach the security checkpoint, you encounter various security measures, such as metal detectors and baggage checks. These security measures selectively allow certain individuals to pass through while restricting others. Similarly, a ———– selectively allows certain molecules or ions to pass through while blocking others based on their size, charge, or solubility.

  • semipermeable membrane
  • permeable membrane
  • partial membrane
A

semipermeable membrane

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

374
Q

Which organ in Claire Dane’s body releases insulin when her blood glucose levels are too high, and glucagon when her blood glucose levels are too low?

  • Pancreas
  • Liver
  • Kidneys
  • Gallbladder
A

Pancreas

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

375
Q

Which of the following hormones is NOT involved in appetite regulation?

  • Cortisol
  • Ghrelin
  • PYY
  • GLP-1
A

Cortisol

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

376
Q

As a general rule, brain damage can occur in as few as ——- without oxygen.

  • 3 minutes
  • 24 minutes
  • 5 minutes
  • 4 seconds
A

3 minutes

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

377
Q

Most homeostatic systems:
* have multiple or redundant monitoring mechanisms throughout the body
* rely on receptors in the CNS to monitor body systems
* work by increasing enzyme activity in the synapse
* rely on a positive feedback process

A

have multiople or redundant monitoring mechanisms throughout the body

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

378
Q

If there is a high amount of sodium in the extracellular space:
* fluid will be pulled out of the cells
* fluid will be pushed into the cell
* fluid will remain stable
* sodium will be pushed into the cell

A

fluid will be pulled out of the cells

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

379
Q

The —- controls blood pressure in part as a response to activation of ——-
* sympathetic nervous system; baroreceptors
* sympathetic nervous system; thermoreceptors
* parasympathetic nervous system; baroreceptors
* parasympathetic nervous system; thermoreceptors

A

sympathetic nervous system, baroreceptors

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

380
Q

Damage to the lateral hypothalamus would disrupt which of the following in rats?
* all of these answers are correct
* sleep behaviors
* feeding behavior, leading to weight loss
* autonomic thermoregulation

A

all of these answers are correct

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

381
Q

Angiotensin II aids in sodium conservation by triggering the release of ——
* aldosterone
* glycogen
* glucose
* angiotensin I

A

aldosterone

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

382
Q

——– amino acids can’t be manufactured by the human body.
* pancreatic
* inorganic
* dietary
* essential

A

essential

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

383
Q

Which pairing is correct?
* hypovolemic thirst; subfornical region
* all of these answers are correct
* osmotic thirst; preoptic area
* osmotic thirst; OVLT

A

all of these answers are correct

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

384
Q

——- detect any increases in glucose and signal to the ——— to release more insulin.
* glucodetectors, pancreas
* glucodetectors, liver
* insulin, pancreas
* vagus nerve, pancreas

A

glucodetectors, pancreas

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

385
Q

Which of the following is an example of a commensal relationship?
* bacteria in the microbiome breaking down carbohydrates
* bacteria in the digestive tract causing IBS
* hormones in the stomach sending signals to the brain
* changes in eating behavior after VMH orLH lesions

A

bacteria in the microbiome breaking down carbohydrates

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

386
Q

Which of the following may occur as a symptom of anorexia nervousa?
* severe food deprivation
* all of these answers are correct
* abnormal physiological hunger cues
* typical dopamine signalling

A

severe food deprivation

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

387
Q

——— maintains a stable internal environment by responding to immediate physiological needs, while ——– anticipates and adjusts to potential challenges or stressors.

  • Homeostasis, allostasis
  • Allostasis, homeostasis
  • Homeostasis, anxiety
A

homeostasis, allostasis

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

388
Q

——– allows for the separation of intracellular and extracellular fluids, facilitating specialized functions within cells while maintaining overall fluid balance.

  • Compartmentalization
  • Osmosis
  • Diffusion
  • Fluid pressure
A

compartmentalization

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

389
Q

——– is energy stored for later use in the liver and skeletal muscles while ——— is used as rapid source of energy during periods of fasting or intense physical activity.

  • Glycogen, glucose
  • Glucose, glycogen
  • Glycogen, glycosis
  • Glucose, glycosis
A

glycogen, glucose

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #2

390
Q

physiological, behavioral, both, or neither?

A kid getting “goosebumps” in a cold classroom

A

physiological

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

391
Q

physiological, behavioral, both, or neither?

Putting on more clothing when chilly

A

behavioral

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

392
Q

physiological, behavioral, both, or neither?

A mouse increasing blood flow to its tail

A

physiological

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

393
Q

physiological, behavioral, both, or neither?

Damaging the LH disrupts ——- responses

A

behavioral

Unit 2 Quiz 2: Homeostatis - Attempt #3

394
Q

your brain’s most important job (besides learning neuroscience)

A

Homeostasis

Crossword

395
Q

glucagon converts glucose into – for storage

A

glycogen

Crossword

396
Q

sleep- —– insomnia is characterized by difficulty falling asleep

A

onset

Crossword

397
Q

biochemicals that move through bloodstream to affect diverse targets

A

hormone

Crossword

398
Q

this “organ” suggests we are more bacteria than human

A

microbiome

Crossword

399
Q

receptor in the heart that monitors blood pressure, blood volume

A

baroreceptor

Crossword

400
Q

chemical signal used to communicate with others of your species, probably not used in humans (so we invented axe body spray spray instead)

A

pheromone

crossword

401
Q

steroid hormone found in males and females

A

testosterone

crossword

402
Q

eating too many Doritos might cause these neurons to make you thirsty

A

osmosensory

crossword

403
Q

outer ear structure, collects and directs sound waves

A

pinna

crossword

404
Q

primary energy source for body, sugar

A

glucose

crossword

405
Q

brain area generally dormant while you sleep

A

locus coruleus

crossword

406
Q
A
407
Q

family of proteins that support developing cells, and help direct development

A

neurotrophins

crossword

408
Q

sensation of body movement and position

A

proprioception

Crossword

409
Q

booze disrupts this sleep stage, especially in the first few hours of sleep

A

REM

crossword

410
Q

interaction between environment and genes

A

epigenetics

crossword

411
Q

layer of the neural plate that becomes the CNS

A

ectoderm

NOTE: in crossword, it only accepts “endoderm” – prof said its ecto

crossword

412
Q

band of axons that connects left and right hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

crossword

413
Q

basic taste associated with savory/meaty foods

A

umami

crossword

414
Q

—— tendon organs, receptor that detects muscle contraction

A

golgi

crossword

415
Q

legion this brain area to make fatter rat

answer is abbreviated

A

VMH

crossword

416
Q

the primary biological “clock”

abbreviated

A

SCN

crossword

417
Q

process theory of color perception based on opposite response to different wavelengths of light

A

opponent

crossword

418
Q

left hemisphere controls right side of the body, ———- representation

A

contralateral

crossword

419
Q

bad dream causing waking from stage 3/SWS

A

night terror

crossword

420
Q

non-receptor cell type found in the retina, axons make the optic nerve

A

ganglion

crossword

421
Q

gene on the Y chromosome in humans, usually results in formation of testes

abbreviated

A

SRY

crossword

422
Q

the early, permanent effects of hormones on development

A

organizational

crossword

423
Q

normal and necessary death of cells, like those that don’t form connections during development

A

apoptosis

crossword

424
Q

hormone released by adipose fat cells, indicate long-term energy stores

A

leptin

crossword

425
Q

an example may include an alarm clock, the sunrise, or lunch time

hint: think about the entrainment process

A

zeitgeber

crossword

426
Q

olfaction, unlike most senses, bypasses this “sensory relay” point in the brain

A

thalamus

crossword

427
Q

cranial nerve with an important role in hunger and satiety

A

vagus

crossword

428
Q

neural tube defect associated with low folic acid, alcohol, or nicotine exposure

A

spina bifida

crossword

429
Q

most sleeping pills target receptors for this neurotransmitter, acting as agonists

A

GABA

crossword

430
Q

What would be the effect of a drug that BLOCKS the production of Per proteins in the SCN?
* glutamate signalling would be blocked
* the SCN would not produce melatonin
* the SCN would not entrain to light
* the pineal gland would not produce histamine

A

the SCN would not entrain to light

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

431
Q

—- waves are typically observed in participants who feel relaxed and keep their eyes closed.
* delta.
* alpha.
* beta.
* gamma.

A

alpha

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

432
Q

In the typical sleep pattern of healthy adults, the first REM period of the night may last a few minutes while the last REM period is likely to:
* last much longer
* last the same amount of time
* last much less time
* REM does not occur later in the night

A

last much longer

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

433
Q

According to research on circadian rhythms and performance, which football team would have an advantage in a game played in Los Angeles, CA that began at 6pm local time (9 PM EST)?

  • neither team would have an advantage
  • any team, as long as they were playing against the Packers
  • a team from the west coast
  • a team from the east coast
A

a team from the west coast

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

434
Q

The neurons that allow us to move from one stage of sleep to another are found in the ____.
* pons
* cortex
* hypothalamus
* thalamus

A

hypothalamus

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

435
Q

Tanya Tucker wakes up from a nap feeling groggy, nauseous and disoriented. What stage of sleep was she likely in just before she awoke?
* REM
* SWS
* stage 2
* stage 1

A

SWS

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

436
Q

Which experimental condition led to improved recall?
* odor during learning and during REM sleep
* odor during learning only
* odor during learning and during SWS
* odor during SWS only

A

odor during SWS only

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

437
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of SCN cell activity?
* clock and cycle form a dimer
* glutamate “syncs” the activity to light exposure
* the cycle repeats approximately every 24 hours
* clock and cycle inhibit the activity of cry and per

A

clock and cycle inhibit the activity of cry and per

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

438
Q

Oprah Winfrey buys an app that promises to help her learn a new language if she plays the lessons at night, while she sleeps. What type of learning is this?
* REM state dependent learning
* this is not an effective way to learn new information
* learning via osmosis
* SWS memory consolidation

A

this is not an effective way to learn new information

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

439
Q

Which of the following is NOT a scientific theory used to explain the phenomenon of dreaming, as discussed in class?
* dreams are a chance to review learned material from the day
* we don’t actually dream during sleep- we interpret our brain activity after we wake up
* dreams help us to process emotions
* dreams allow us to see patterns in our lives and make predictions about future behaviors

A

dreams allow us to see patterns in our lives and make predictions about future behaviors

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

440
Q

LSD seems to cause dreamlike experiences due to activation of which receptor?

  • levodopa
  • 5HT 2D
  • 5HT 2a receptor
  • all serotonin sub receptors families
A

5HT 2A receptor

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

441
Q

Leslie Knope has a disorder where she engages in organized behavior including running and eating (essentially acting out her dreams). She would likely be diagnosed with what?
* REM behavior disorder
* sleep apnea
* night terrors
* somnambulism

A

REM Behavior Disorder

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

442
Q

In the world of Harry Potter, werewolves transform during a full moon due to a change in their biological rhythms. This is an example of which type of biological rhythm?
* Circadian rhythm
* Infradian rhythm
* Tidal rhythm
* Ultradian rhythm

A

Infradian

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

443
Q

In the movie “Inception,” characters enter a dream within a dream. Which stage of sleep is characterized by vivid dreaming and is similar to the dream state in “Inception”?
* Stage 1 sleep
* REM sleep
* Stage 3 sleep
* Stage 2 sleep

A

REM sleep

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

444
Q

Tim stayed up late studying the night before his PSYC 350 exam and only got 4 hours of sleep. His friend Eric studied for a couple of hours after dinner and slept for 8 hours. Tim performed worse on his exam than Eric, showing that the key function of ———- might not happen when we are sleep deprived.

  • Physical restoration
  • Memory consolidation
  • Niche adaptation
  • Conservation of energy
A

memory consolidation

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

445
Q

Jocelyn has been waking up gasping for air and her partner has been complaining about her loud snoring. She brought this up with her doctor, who recommended she go to a specialist for a sleep study for a possible diagnosis of ——–.

  • Sleep apnea
  • COPD
  • Insomnia
  • Sleep paralysis
A

sleep apnea

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

446
Q

Imagine The Hulk experiences a sudden loss of muscle tone and collapses without losing consciousness when he gets angry. What condition could he be suffering from?
* REM behavior disorder
* Cataplexy
* Somnambulism
* Sleep paralysis

A

cataplexy

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

447
Q

Match the neurochemical action with its effect.

increased acetylcholine

A

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

448
Q

Match the neurochemical action with its effect.

increased GABA

A

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

449
Q

Match the neurochemical action with its effect.

increased adenosine

A

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

450
Q

Match the neurochemical action with its effect.

inhibit GABA

A

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 1

451
Q

Which of the following statements about human sleep and wakefulness is NOT correct?
* exposure to light early in the day improves sleep and wakefulness
* humans have a slightly longer than 24 hour circadian cycle
* adequate sleep helps people feel more awake during the day
* after extreme sleep deprivation we must “make up” at least 50% of the missed sleep

A

after extreme sleep deprivation, we must “make up” at least 50% of the missed sleep

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

452
Q

Based on previous experiments, if we removed all zeitgebers for an animal and examine its behavior, what results would we expect to obtain?
* a change in the amount of activity
* a change in the type of activity
* a change in pattern of activity
* all of these answers are correct

A

a change in the pattern of activity

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

453
Q

What study provided evidence that cells of the SCN are a key “biological clock” in the brain?
* performance studies in football players
* lesion studies in cats
* jet lag studies in dogs
* SCN transplants in hamsters

A

SCN transplants in hamsters

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

454
Q

Nearly all animal species are:
* biphasic sleepers
* either diurnal or nocturnal
* crepuscular
* most active during the day

A

either diurnal or nocturnal

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

455
Q

Apply electrical stimulation to the —— would wake up a sleeping individual and increase alertness in someone who is already awake.
* reticular formation
* SCN
* hypothalamus
* cortex

A

reticular formation

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

456
Q

The bizarre nature of dreams (strange movement of time, odd events, etc) is likely due to —— activity in the —-.
* higher; amygdala
* lower; temporal lobe
* lowered; inferior frontal cortex
* higher; insula

A

lowered; inferior frontal cortex

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

457
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of SCN cell activity?
* cry and per inhibit the activity of clock and cycle
* clock and cycle cause cry and per to breakdown
* DNA in the cells produce cry and per
* clock and cycle form a dimer

A

clock and cycle cause cry and per to break down

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

458
Q

Just as Nicole Kidman is falling asleep she experiences a hypnic jerk and wakes up. Why does this happen?
* she has somnambulism
* none of these answers is correct
* her SCN is misfiring
* her circadian rhythms are phase-shifting

A

none of these answers is correct

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

459
Q

One theory on why we sleep is that:
* humans evolved sleep to increase social connectivity among families
* sleep is a time when the brain undergoes “cleaning” to remove cellular waste products
* it is a false state; the brain is never fully asleep
* none of these answers is correct

A

sleep is a time when the brain undergoes “cleaning” to remove cellular waste products

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

460
Q

As discussed in class, levodopa treatment would likely lead to which effect?

  • all of these answers are correct
  • more vivid dreams
  • increased sleep latency (time to fall asleep)
  • decreased dopamine activity
A

more vivid dreams

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

461
Q

One of the reasons that daylight saving time switches are hard on people is that it requires use to adapt to a slightly new schedule, or ——- our circadian rhythms.
* phase shift
* zeitgeber
* de-entrain
* free run

A

phase shift

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

462
Q

In the world of Harry Potter, werewolves transform during a full moon due to a change in their biological rhythms. This is an example of which type of biological rhythm?
* Circadian rhythm
* Infradian rhythm
* Ultradian rhythm
* Tidal rhythm

A

Infradian rhythm

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

463
Q

In the movie “Inception,” characters enter a dream within a dream. Which stage of sleep is characterized by vivid dreaming and is similar to the dream state in “Inception”?
* Stage 2 sleep
* REM sleep
* Stage 1 sleep
* Stage 3 sleep

A

REM sleep

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

464
Q

Like the diligent ‘Hogwarts Express” transporting wizards from their daily lives to the wizarding world, which neural system faithfully transports our brains from the wakeful world to the land of deep, slow-wave sleep (SWS)?

  • The Pontine System
  • The Reticular Formation
  • The Hypothalamic Harmony Ensemble
  • The Basal Forebrain
A

the Basal Forebrain

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

465
Q

Jocelyn has been waking up gasping for air and her partner has been complaining about her loud snoring. She brought this up with her doctor, who recommended she go to a specialist for a sleep study for a possible diagnosis of ———-.

  • Sleep paralysis
  • Insomnia
  • Sleep apnea
  • COPD
A

Sleep apnea

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

466
Q

Considering the sleep adventures of Alice in Wonderland, if Alice were to walk and talk in her sleep, during which sleep stage would this most likely occur?
* Stage 2 sleep
* Slow-wave sleep (SWS)
* REM sleep
* Stage 1 sleep

A

Slow-wave sleep (SWS)

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 2

467
Q

Which of the following statements about human sleep and wakefulness is NOT correct?
* humans have a slightly longer than 24 hour circadian cycle
* exposure to light early in the day improves sleep and wakefulness
* after extreme sleep deprivation we must “make up” at least 50% of the missed sleep
* adequate sleep helps people feel more awake during the day

A

after extreme sleep deprivation, we must “make up” at least 50% of the missed sleep

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

468
Q

What would be the effect of a drug that BLOCKS the production of Per proteins in the SCN?
* the pineal gland would not produce histamine
* glutamate signalling would be blocked
* the SCN would not entrain to light
* the SCN would not produce melatonin

A

the SCN would not entrain to light

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

469
Q

Why do high school students with later start times tend to perform better academically?
* these teens have faster growth rates.
* they are less sensitive to entrainment.
* they are less sensitive to zeitgebers
* there are shifts in circadian rhythms that occur around puberty.

A

there are shifts in circadian rhythms that occur around puberty

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

470
Q

In the typical sleep pattern of healthy adults, the first REM period of the night may last a few minutes while the last REM period is likely to:
* last much longer
* last the same amount of time
* last much less time
* REM does not occur later in the night

A

last much longer

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

471
Q

According to research on circadian rhythms and performance, which football team would have an advantage in a game played in Los Angeles, CA that began at 6pm local time (9 PM EST)?

  • a team from the east coast
  • any team, as long as they were playing against the Packers
  • neither team would have an advantage
  • a team from the west coast
A

a team from the west coast

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

472
Q

One method to measure the activity of thousands of neurons in the brain is to conduct a(n) ________.
* electroencephalogram
* all answers are correct
* sleep tracking device
* snapshot of the brain using MRI

A

electroencephalogram

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

473
Q

Tanya Tucker wakes up from a nap feeling groggy, nauseous and disoriented. What stage of sleep was she likely in just before she awoke?
* stage 1
* SWS
* REM
* stage 2

A

sws

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

474
Q

How does exposing learners to an odor during learning and sleep impact learning?
* it decreased recall speed
* it increased amount learned
* it decreased amount learned
* it increased recall speed

A

GOT THIS WRONG – IT IS NOT “IT INCREASED RECALL SPEED”

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

475
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of SCN cell activity?
* clock and cycle form a dimer
* clock and cycle inhibit the activity of cry and per
* the cycle repeats approximately every 24 hours
* glutamate “syncs” the activity to light exposure

A

clock and cycle inhibit the activity of cry and per

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

476
Q

From a neuroscientific perspective, being asleep and being in a coma are:
* fundamentally the same
* none of these answers is correct
* both states of consciousness that evolved for the same purpose
* both states the brain actively produces

A

none of these answers is correct

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

477
Q

What key characteristic is shared in dreaming and LSD induced hallucinations?
* saccadic eye movement
* cognitive bizarreness
* all of these answers are correct
* activation of visual cortex

A

all of these answers are correct

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

478
Q

—— has been identified as one possible underlying cause for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
* sleep apnea.
* REM behavior disorder.
* insomnia.
* sleep paralysis.

A

Sleep apnea

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

479
Q

If Tony Stark invented a device that could adjust his sleep-wake cycle while traveling across different time zones, which biological rhythm would he be manipulating?
* Tidal rhythm
* Circadian rhythm
* Ultradian rhythm
* Infradian rhythm

A

Circadian rhythm

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

480
Q

If Wes Anderson were to make a film about a night of sleep, and each sleep cycle was a scene, how many scenes would he create for a typically developing young adult?
* 8-9 scenes
* 4-5 scenes
* 6-7 scenes
* 2-3 scenes

A

4-5 scenes

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

481
Q

Grandpa Joe is too excited to go to sleep the entire week before going to visit the Wonka chocolate factory. This disruption in his sleep could contribute to which health condition often seen in the elderly?

  • COPD
  • Obesity
  • ADHD
  • Dementia
A

Dementia

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

482
Q

Jocelyn has been waking up gasping for air and her partner has been complaining about her loud snoring. She brought this up with her doctor, who recommended she go to a specialist for a sleep study for a possible diagnosis of ———-.

  • COPD
  • Sleep paralysis
  • Sleep apnea
  • Insomnia
A

Sleep Apnea

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

483
Q

In the world of Harry Potter, if a wizard suddenly falls asleep while casting spells, which stage of sleep do they likely enter first, unlike most muggles?
* Stage 1 sleep
* REM sleep
* Slow-wave sleep (SWS)
* Stage 2 sleep

A

REM (?)

GOT THIS WRONG ON QUIZ – it is NOT SWS

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

484
Q

Match the behavior to its cyclic description.

human feeding behavior

A

Unit 3 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

485
Q

Match the behavior to its cyclic description.

sleep cycle in humans

A

circadian

Unit 2 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

486
Q

Match the behavior to its cyclic description.

melatonin release in humans

A

Unit 2 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

487
Q

Match the behavior to its cyclic description.

social behavior in humans

A

Unit 2 Quiz Bio Rhythms and Sleep Quiz - Attempt 3

488
Q

Which of the following is the strongest evidence AGAINST the idea that humans are responsive to pheromones?
* there are no functional receptors for them in the VNO
* only babies respond to pheromones
* no other mammals respond to pheromones
* there is no behavioral evidence for pheromone response

A

there are no functional receptors for them in the VNO

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

489
Q

Humans have ——- senses.
* many
* eleven
* five
* limitless

A

Many

DOUBLE CHECK (got this wrong on quiz)

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

490
Q

Golgi tendon organs are to —– as muscle spindles are to ——–.
* stretch; tension
* tension; stretch
* paresis; proprioception
* proprioception; paresis

A

tension; stretch

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

491
Q

EMG studies have revealed that a voluntary movement of the arm, for example, when asked to pull a lever, is immediately preceded by
* a brief cessation of breathing.
* a postural response.
* rapid eye movements.
* recruitment of muscle fibers according to the “size principle.”

A

a postural response

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

492
Q

The pyramidal motor system begins in the —– cortex, and the pathway then travels to the ——- and then the ——-.
* frontal; thalamus; medulla
* parietal; medulla; pons
* frontal; medulla; spinal cord
* parietal; thalamus; medulla

A

frontal; medulla; spinal cord

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

493
Q

The —– ear contains the tiny chain of bones that facilitate sound conduction.
* pinna
* middle
* external
* inner

A

middle

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

494
Q

Which statement best describes the human auditory cortex?
* It is specialized to detect sounds containing many frequencies and complex patterns.
* It is specialized to detect high-frequency sounds.
* It is specialized to detect low-frequency sounds.
* It is specialized to detect simple and pure tones.

A

it is specialized to detect sounds containing many frequencies and complex patterns

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

495
Q

The tiny bones of the middle ear are collectively known as the
* scala media.
* stapes.
* otoliths.
* ossicles.

A

ossicles

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

496
Q

Ion channels are pulled open and positive ions enter the cell, leading to depolarization in this type of transduction.
* chemotransduction
* phototransduction
* somatotransduction
* mechanotransduction

A

mechanotransduction

(in notes it is mechanoelectrical transduction)

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

497
Q

When you look at the blue sky on clear day, your perception of the blue color is produced by
* infrared rays.
* gamma rays.
* long-wavelength photons.
* short-wavelength photons.

A

Answered short-wavelength photons but this is wrong – need to figure out why

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

498
Q

What is responsible for the lack of photoreceptors at the optic disc and consequent blind spot?
* It is the location where blood vessels and ganglion cell axons leave the eye.
* It is a location with a high density of pigment obscuring photoreceptor cells.
* It is point of attachment for eye muscles.
* It is the location where parts of the two optic nerves cross the midline.

A

it is the location where blood vessels and ganglion cell axons leave the eye

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

499
Q

The bending of light rays by the optical components of the eye is called
* diffraction.
* refraction.
* fractionation.
* polarization.

A

refraction

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

500
Q

——- ——— in the retina at the back of the eye cause action potentials to transmit visual information to the brain.
* all of these answers are correct
* horizontal cells
* ganglion cells
* amacrine cells

A

ganglion

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

501
Q

The tastes salty and sour are elicited when taste cells ________.
* are perceived only at the front of the tongue where there are taste cells
* are activated by the production of saliva
* are stimulated by simple ions acting on ion channels in taste cell membranes
* all of these answers are correct

A

are stimulated by simple ions acting on ion channels in taste cell membranes

got this wrong on quiz

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

502
Q

In nature, ________ tastes often signal the presence of toxins or poisons.
* sweet
* bitter
* salty
* spicy

A

bitter

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

503
Q

Which animal would be MOST likely to consume a spicy pepper because they are not sensitive to capsaicin?
* Crow
* Squirrel
* Cat
* Dog

A

crow

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

504
Q

Which of the following is correct about the cause of Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo?
* it is caused by alcohol consumption
* it is the least common cause of vertigo
* it is caused by the inappropriate movement of the otoliths into the semicircular canals
* all of these answers are correct

A

it is caused by the inappropriate movement of the otoliths into the semicircular canals

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

505
Q

Which structure is not part of the vestibular system?
* Utricle
* Saccule
* Eustachian tube
* Semicircular canals

A

Eustachian tube

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

506
Q

Which event signals the brain that the head has moved?
* The activation of efferent fibers in the semicircular canals
* The opening of ion channels on stereocilia
* The deflecting of the stereocilia in the ampulla
* The sound latency difference between the two ears

A

the deflecting of the stereocilia in the ampulla

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

507
Q

——- is the experience of nausea brought on by unnatural passive movement.
* Sensorineural movement
* Motion sickness
* Conduction motion
* Motion shadows

A

motion sickness

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #1

508
Q

Damage to the —- would most likely result in serious, extensive disruptions to a person’s ability to detect sensory stimuli.
* somatic nervous system
* sensory nervous system
* none of these answers is correct
* autonomic nervous system

A

somatic nervous system

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

509
Q

A motor unit is a
* single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.
* single motor neuron and a single muscle fiber.
* collection of neuron that travel to the same muscle group.
* collection of neuron that produce the same movement.

A

single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

510
Q

Nervous system motor plans must balance a trade-off between
* speed and accuracy.
* complexity and accuracy.
* complexity and force.
* force and precision.

A

speed and accuracy

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

511
Q

The stapes connects to the
* malleus.
* tympanic membrane.
* oval window.
* round window.

A

oval window

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

512
Q

Each level of the auditory system shows ——- mapping.
* tonotopic
* topographic
* tomographic
* tonic

A

tonotopic

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

513
Q

Sound latency differences between the two ears allows an animal to
* dampen sounds.
* amplify sounds.
* determine if a sound is biologically relevant.
* localize sounds.

A

localize sounds

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

514
Q

Visual acuity is highest in the region of the retina called the
* iris.
* fovea.
* lens.
* optic disc.

A

fovea

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

515
Q

Having a hearing deficit in one ear would likely lead to difficulty with which of the following?
* locating a sound’s source
* detecting high amplitude sounds
* describing the timbre of a sound
* detecting high pitch sounds

A

locating a sound’s source

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

516
Q

Which property is not a dimension of color perception?
* Saturation
* Brightness
* Complexity
* Hue

A

Complexity

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

517
Q

Which of the following is correct?
* the part of the eye where light is refracted by the cornea is the blind spot
* a portion of the retina with the most receptors is the optic disk
* the part of the eye which contains rods and cones is the blind spot
* the point at which ganglion cell axons leave the eye is the optic disk

A

the point at which ganglion cell axons leave the eye is the optic disk

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

518
Q

In the retina, when illuminated, cone receptors that connect to an on-center bipolar cell cause —— in the on-center bipolar cell.
* no change
* a depolarization
* an action potential
* a hyperpolarization

A

a depolarization

got this wrong on quiz - answered “a hyperpolarization”

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

519
Q

The taste map —-.
* all of these answers are correct
* is an inaccurate representation of the human taste system
* is well supported by over 100 years of scientific data
* correctly shows how humans detect taste

A

is an inaccurate representation of the human taste system

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

520
Q

——— are a class of drugs that mimic ——— pain-fighting chemicals called endorphins.
* endorphins; endogenous
* opiates; exogenous
* opiate; endogenous
* endorphins; exogenous

A

opiate; endogenous

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

521
Q

The ——– contains the receptor cells for the vestibular system.
* pinna
* organ of Corti
* vestibular nuclei
* ampulla

A

ampulla

got this wrong on quiz - answered organ of Corti

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

522
Q

The vestibular system informs the brain about
* forces that act within the body cavities.
* stimulation of the autonomic nervous system.
* acoustic stimuli.
* the movement and position of the body.

A

the movement and position of the body

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #2

523
Q

Sensory conflict theory argues that we feel badly when we receive contradictory sensory messages. Passengers on an airplane in turbulence may experience an uncomfortable conflict between —– and — information.
* vestibular; motor
* vestibular; visual
* visual; motor
* visual; auditory

A

vestibular; visual

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #3

524
Q

According to lecture, which receptor results in the faster pain signal: TRPV1 or TRPM3?
* TRPM3, because it works on unmyelinated axons
* TRPV1, because it works on myelinated axons
* TRPV1, because it works on unmyelinated axons
* TRPM3, because it works on myelinated axons

A

TRPM3, because it works on myelinated axons

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #3

525
Q

Loss of this sense has been identified as an early symptom in neurodegenerative disorders including Alzheimer’s disease.
* olfaction
* gustation
* proprioception
* somatosensation

A

olfaction

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #3

526
Q

Because of the location of rods in the retinal periphery, it is best to look —- to see a dim stimuli, like a distant star.
* behind
* slightly off center
* very off center
* directly at

A

slightly off-center

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #3

527
Q

Which statement about color perception is true?
* The trichromatic hypothesis is supported at the level of the retina.
* The opponent-process hypothesis is consistent with current research on cones.
* Spectrally opponent cells are found only in the eye.
* Research has largely refuted both the opponent-process and the trichromatic theories of color perception.

A

GOT THIS WRONG - it’s not “Research has largely refuted…”

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #3

528
Q

The receptive fields of retinal ganglion cells are
* columnar.
* concentric.
* complex.
* hypercomplex.

A

concentric

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #3

529
Q

The canals of the cochlea are filled with —-; thus, sound is carried in the form of ——-.
* fluid; waves
* ampullae; waves
* air; wind
* hair cells; mechanical motion

A

fluid; waves (need to double-check)

GOT THIS WRONG - NOT hair cells; mechanical motion

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #3

530
Q

The stereocilia of the hair cells contact the
* auditory nerve fibers.
* basilar membrane.
* tectorial membrane.
* inner hair cells.

A

tectorial membrane

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #3

531
Q

Mirror neurons are especially interesting to researchers because
* they appear to trigger specific movements.
* All of the above
* they might be part of a neural system for empathy.
* they fire when a monkey sees another monkey (or human) performing a simple movement previously performed by the monkey itsel

A

All of the above

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #3

532
Q

Some individuals born without a —– still show normal motor skills.
* cerebellum
* hippocampus
* thalamus
* cingulate

A

cerebellum

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #3

533
Q

There is strong scientific evidence for a sense of —– in humans.
* nociception
* extrasensory perception
* telekinesis
* telpathy

A

nociception

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #3

534
Q

Which of the following examples would likely lead to the release of substance P in the spinal cord?
* smelling a rose
* drinking alcohol
* touching a hot stove
* seeing a rainbow

A

touching a hot stove

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #4

535
Q

Being able to tell a grape jellybean from a lime one uses requires us to detect the —— of the candy.
* smell
* flavor
* taste
* all of these answers are correct

A

all of these answers are correct

Unit 2 Quiz - Sensation and Perception - Attempt #4

536
Q
  • Because of the location of rods in the retinal periphery, it is best to look —–to see a dim stimuli, like a distant star.
  • directly at
  • slightly off center
  • behind
  • very off center
A

slightly off center

537
Q

The —– muscles are essential for accommodation.
* extraocular
* ciliary
* orbital
* lentiform

A

ciliary

538
Q

Simple cortical visual cells are most likely to be activated by
* bars of particular width, orientation, and location in the visual field.
* movement of a bar or edge.
* a boundary between two hues.
* biologically relevant information.

A

bars of particular width, orientation, and location in the visual field

GOT THIS WRONG - it’s not movement of a bar or edge

539
Q

The blind spot in our visual field is created by – at the –
* densely packed cones; lens
* thicker photoreceptors; optic nerve
* a lack of photoreceptors; optic disc
* fewer rods; fovea

A

a lack of photoreceptors, optic disk

540
Q

The – funnels sound waves to the ear canal. Sound arriving at the – causes it to vibrate, causing movement of the —. Vibration then moves fluid in the inner ear, activating hair cells in the —-
* pinna; ossicles; tympanic membrane; cochlea
* cochlea; pinna; tympanic membrane; ossicles
* pinna; tympanic membrane; ossicles; cochlea
* pinna; cochlea; tympanic membrane; ossicles

A

pinna; tympanic membrane; ossicles; cochlea

541
Q

Inner hair cells release the neurotransmitter – and outer hair cells release the neurotransmitter –.
* ACh; GABA
* glutamate; GABA
* glutamate; ACh
* GABA; glutamate

A

glutamate; ACh

542
Q

Biceps and triceps are
* reciprocals.
* synergists.
* muscle fibers.
* antagonists.

A

antagonists

543
Q

Motor neurons are referred to as the “final common pathway” because they are the
* part of the dorsal motor system closest to the brainstem.
* last motor neurons in a chain that actually innervates the muscle.
* the only pathway by which the brain and spinal cord can control movement.
* white matter of the spinal cord.

A

the only pathway by which the brain and spinal cord can control movement

544
Q

Light enters the eye and causes chemical changes that lead to depolarization of ganglion cells, resulting in action potentials being sent to the brain. This is an example of —-
* sensation
* reintotophic activity
* perception
* transduction

A

transduction

545
Q

– is a condition marked by stimuli in one modality causing the involuntary experience of a different sensation in another modality.

  • synesthesia
  • dystonia
  • apraxia
  • dysarthria
A

synesthesia

546
Q

The neurotransmitter – is produced and released by motor neurons to stimulate skeletal muscles.
* serotonin
* dopamine
* glutamate
* acetylcholine

A

acetylcholine

547
Q

When athletes work out to improve their stamina, one of the goals is to enhance their
* neural motor plans.
* fast-twitch muscle fibers.
* muscle spindles.
* slow-twitch muscle fibers.

A

slow-twitch muscle fibers

548
Q

Which structure is not part of the external or middle ear?
* Pinna
* Tympanic membrane
* Organ of Corti
* Stapedius muscle

A

Organ of Corti

549
Q

If a person facing forward hears a sound to her left,
* her left ear hears exactly twice as well as her right ear.
* she must turn away from the sound to allow for spectral filtering.
* she experiences no onset disparity.
* her right ear will be cast in a sound shadow.

A

her right ear will be cast in a sound shadow

550
Q

The brighter the light stimuli, the —— a photoreceptor will hyperpolarize.
* slower
* none of these answers is correct
* less
* more

A

more

551
Q

These two sensory systems are found in close physical proximity in the tongue.
* taste; somatosensation
* olfaction; somatosensation
* taste; olfaction
* taste; proprioception

A

taste; somatosensation

GOT THIS WRONG - answer is NOT taste; olfaction

552
Q

Just prior to voluntarily moving of the arms, for example, to pull a lever, a person will adjust their ——–. This is an example of ——
* legs; motor planning
* torso; mirror neurons
* eyes; proprioception
* posture; ataxia

A

legs; motor planning

553
Q

Lesions of the extrapyramidal system typically interfere with spinal reflexes by
* temporarily blocking them.
* causing seizure activity upstream in the cortex.
* eliminating them.
* exaggerating them.

A

exaggerating them

554
Q

The boundaries of visual objects are enhanced through the process of
* lateral inhibition.
* spatial-frequency.
* extrastriate perception.
* visual acuity.

A

lateral inhibition

555
Q

People with normal color vision have more —– receptors than —- receptors, and the precise proportions of these receptors —— among individuals.
* L; M; are always the same
* L; M; can vary
* S; M; are always the same
* S; M; can vary

A

L; M; can vary

556
Q

Taste is —– represented, meaning that each side of the tongue has its own nerve supply.
* unilaterally
* multimodally
* contralaterally
* bilaterally

A

bilaterally

557
Q

The only sensory system with direct connections to cognitive areas responsible for memory and emotion.
* vision
* nociception
* olfaction
* gustation

A

olfaction

Brain and Behavior (19 decks)

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