Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ABO Written Exam > UCSF Pathology/Microbiology > Flashcards

UCSF Pathology/Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What type of virus is Hepatitis B?

A

DNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Incubation time for Hepatitis B?

A

1-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe symptoms of Hepatitis B

A

Jaundice
Fatigue
Flu-like symptoms
*30% of people have No symptoms with infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is commonly seen in patients with HBV?

A

No symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the first detectable evidence of HBV?

A

HBsAg (Hep B Surface Antigen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When does HBsAg appear?

A

appears within 3-4 weeks of exposure and 1-2 months prior to clinical disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the presence of HBc IgM indicate?

A

Indicates acute infection

It takes time to develop the anti-HBs but anti HBc IgM develops initially.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the presence of HBeAg indicate?

A

May indicate viral replication. Presence associated with increased infectivity in association with HBsAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What would the presence of Anti-HBe indicate?

A

This is a favorable sign in carriers, suggest that a low degree of infectivity is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What would the presence of Anti-HBs indicate?

A

Indicates past infection and provided immunity. This appears after HBsAg disappears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What antibody is first to fight an acute infection?

A

IgM - also an indicator of current infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does IgG indicate?

A

Indicator of past or recent infection. Represents 75% of circulating antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define Paget’s Disease?

A

An uncommon fibro-osseous condition of unknown cause that produces ENLARGEMENT of the skull and jaws.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 2 most common features or clinical signs of Paget’s Disease

A
  • Distinctive radiographic appearance of Cotton Wool

- Increased alkaline phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the prognosis of Paget’s Disease

A

Continual enlargement and weakening of bones

- Potential of undergoing malignant transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe clinical features of Cherubism

A

Cherub appearance due to bulging of the mandible

  • multilocular cysts of both jaws
  • giant cell tumors are wide spread
  • premature tooth loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A patient presents with symmetric bilateral enlargement in posterior areas of the mandible.
- Radiographs reveal large, multilocular radiolucencies

A

Most likely Cherubism (familial fibrous dysplasia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is Cherubism inherited?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Eagle’s Syndrome

A

Elongation of the Styloid process and stylohyoid ligament calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Symptoms of Eagle’s syndrome

A

The tissues in the throat rub on the elongated styloid process during the act of swallowing. This results in pain along the glossopharyngeal nerve
- Also pain when turning head or extending the tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Osteopetrosis?

A

Inhibition of Bone Resorption

- Due to lack of osteoclasts activity. They are present but with no function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the difference between Osteopetrosis seen in infants vs that seen in adults

A

Infantile: Autosomal recessive. Very severe with common fractures
Adult: Autosomal dominant. Milder form that starts off asymptomatic but progresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the average age that an Odontogenic Keratocyst (OKC) is found?

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

WHere is the most common location of an OKC?

A

Mandibular ramus or third molar region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe radiographic appearance of an OKC

A

Unilocular or multilocular and well demarcated. It mostly displaces roots but can cause root resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is an Ameloblastoma?

A

Uncommon benign jaw neoplasm of odontogenic epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the radiographic appearance of an Ameloblastoma?

A

Multilocular radiolucency.
- **Soap Bubble appearance
Expansive and destructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where are ameloblastomas commonly found?

A

Mandibular ramus

Often associated with boney impacted wisdom teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where are Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumors commonly found?

A

Mandibular molar area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe characteristics of a Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Tumor?

A

Swelling, flecks of calcification, expansive

-**Driven snow appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Fibrous Dysplasia?

A

An asymptomatic regional alteration of bone in which normal architecture is replaced by fibrous tissue

32
Q

Characteristics of Fibrous Dysplasia

A

Expansive, can cause externally visible deformities

**Ground Glass Appearance or **Orange Peel appearance

33
Q

What is the most common location for a Central Giant Cell Granuloma?

A

In the mandibular anterior that often crosses the midline.

- 70% in the mandible

34
Q

Central Giant Cell Granulomas mostly affect which gender? and what age?

A

Females

60% cases are before age 30

35
Q

Where do Giant Cell Tumors commonly occur?

A

Most often in epiphyses of long bones

Can be in jaws

36
Q

What is an Osteoblastoma?

A

Benign neoplasm of bone that arises from osteoblasts

37
Q

Where do Osteoblastomas commonly occur

A

Mandible

38
Q

What is the most common gender and age for Osteoblastomas

A

Male

85% before the age of 30

39
Q

What is a Cementoblastoma

A

Odontogenic neoplasm of cementoblasts.

40
Q

Where is the most common location for Cementoblastomas

A

Mandible with >90% being in the molar and premolar region

41
Q

What gender and age are cementoblastomas most common?

A

Male, predominantly in children and young adults before the age of 25

42
Q

Describe radiographic appearance of Cementoblastomas

A

Radiopaque mass fused to one or more tooth roots, surrounded by thin radiolucent rim

43
Q

What is a Chondroma

A

Benign tumor composed of mature hyaline cartilage

44
Q

What is an Osteosarcoma

A

Malignancy of mesenchymal cells that produces osteoid or immature bone

45
Q

Although Osteosarcomas are uncommon in the jaw, describe where they would be found in both maxilla and mandible?

A

Maxilla - Inferior portion (alveolar ridge, sinus floor, & palate)
Mandible - Posterior body and horizontal ramus

46
Q

What gender is more commonly found with Osteosarcomas

A

Males 2:1 to female

47
Q

Describe what Condensing Osteitis is

A

A common condition without severe signs or symptoms recognized by a well-defined radiopacity at the apex of a non-vital toot

48
Q

What is Addison’s Disease

A

Insufficiency of adrenal cortex

49
Q

Hallmark clinical sign of Addison’s disease

A

Bronzing of the skin

50
Q

Hypopituitarism may result in what?

A

A form of Dwarfism

51
Q

What does Hyperpituitarism lead to?

A

Gigantism in children.

Acromegaly in Adults

52
Q

What is Cushing’s Syndrome

A

Hyper function of the adrenal cortex

53
Q

Hallmark clinical signs of Cushing’s Syndrome

A

Buffalo Hump

Moon Face

54
Q

Hypothyroid leads to what diagnoses in adults and children?

A

Adults: Myxedema
Children: Cretinism

55
Q

Cretinism is a common cause of what?

A

Delayed eruption of teeth

56
Q

Hyperthyroidism leads to what disease?

A

Graves Disease

57
Q

Graves Disease is related to what dental irregularity?

A

Increased eruption rate

58
Q

What disorder is related with Older women with “stones, bones, moan and groans”

A

Hyperparathyroidism

59
Q

Explain what happens to calcium in Hypoparathyroidism vs Hyper parathyroidism

A

Hypo: Decreased Ca++ excretion from bone
Hyper: Increased Ca++ out of bones and into serum

60
Q

What is a Residual Cyst

A

True cyst inadvertently left behind during extraction of a tooth.

61
Q

What is a Primordial Cyst

A

An epithelial-lined jaw cyst appearing as a radiolucency in the alveolar process unassociated with a tooth

62
Q

Where are primoridal cysts most commonly found

A

area of the third molars

63
Q

What is a Simple Bone Cyst

A

Benign, empty or fluid containing cavity inside bone

Unknown cause - maybe trauma

64
Q

What is an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst

A

Intraosseous blood-filled spaces

Unknown cause

65
Q

What is a Dentigerous Cyst

A

Cyst found between the crown and reduced enamel epithelium.

Associated with impacted teeth around CEJ area

66
Q

What is a lateral cyst

A

Same as a periapical cyst but on the lateral aspect of the tooth
Develops from the rests of the dental lamina

67
Q

What is a Globulomaxillary Cyst

A

Occurs between the maxillary lateral incisor and the canine

Often produces divergence of the roots

68
Q

What is the most common Sialolithiasis?

A

Sublingual

69
Q

Most common malignant bone tumor

A

Osteosarcoma or multiple myeloma

70
Q

What does Multiple Myeloma look like on radiographs?

A

Punched out mandible

71
Q

What is the blood glucose level in a patient with Diabetes

A

> 160 mg/dl

72
Q

Rheumatic fever is caused by what?

A

Stretococcal bacteria

73
Q

Subacute bacterial endocarditis is caused by waht?

A

Streptococcus Aureus

74
Q

Most common oral manifestation of an HIV infection

A

Candidiasis

75
Q

Osteomyelitis is caused by what?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MBT)

ABO Written Exam (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions