Coffee #2 Document Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A curve of the mandibular canal and inclination of the condylar head is a characteristic of what?

a. Rotation of the mandible
b. A Class III malocclusion
c. A skeletal open bite
d. A skeletal deep bite

A

a. Rotation of the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What shows the rotational growth of the mandible?

a. Increase in vertical dimension
b. Increase in the length of the mandible
c. Bending of canal and condylar neck angle

A

c. Bending of mandibular canal and condylar neck angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What measurements gives evidence of rotation of mandible?

a. Angle of condyle
b. Length of condylar head
c. Mandibular canal curvature
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the 7 factors of mandibular rotation

A
  1. Inclination of condylar head
  2. Curvature of mandibular canal
  3. Shape of lower border of mandibular
  4. Inclination of symphysis
  5. Interincisal angle
  6. Intermolar and interpremolar angles
  7. Anterior face height
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following will result in the greatest loss of arch length:

a. Loss of maxillary second primary molar at 6.5 years
b. Loss of mandibular first molar
c. Loss of maxillary second primary molar at 11

A

a. Loss of maxillary second primary molar at 6.5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The greatest amount of mandibular arch length measured from mesial of one molar to the mesial of the other will occur at what age?

a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
e. 18

A

b. 6 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The arch length from mandibular 2nd molar to contralateral 2nd molar should be about what percentage of that distance in the maxillary arch?

a. 50%
b. 73%
c. 91%
d. 100%

A

c. 91%

This is the definition of the Bolton discrepancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Patients treated with arch length expansion procedures in the mixed dentition;

a. Maintain the expansion for an indefinite time period after treatment
b. Relapse to the original arch length immediately after treatment
c. Lose arch length, in the majority of cases, until the arch length is less than the pretreatment arch length
d. Relapse to the original arch length after an average time of 7 years posttreatment

A

c. Lose arch length, in the majority of cases, until the arch length is less than the pretreatment arch length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

One millimeter (1mm) increase in intermolar width results in approximately:

a. 1 mm increase in arch permieter
b. 2 mm increase in arch perimeter
c. 0.25 mm increase in arch perimeter
d. none of the above

A

c. 0.25 mm increase in arch perimeter

Correct if mandibular molars. 0.7mm for maxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The narrower the arch width, (versus a patient with a wider arch width) the arch perimeter increase is:

a. Greater for the narrow arch
b. Less for the narrow arch
c. No difference

A

b. Less for the narrow arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The greatest increase in arch perimeter is achieved by:

a. Canine expansion
b. Incisor advancement
c. Molar expansion
d. Combination of A and C

A

b. Incisor advancement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who determines standard of care

a. ADA
b. Court rulings
c. Insurance companies

A

a. ADA

A bit of confusion on this… There is no choice for “peers” and some think it might be Court Rulings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the acronym HIPAA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For surgical instruments that can’t be heat sterilized, the method of choice would be:

a. Phenol
b. Ethyl alcohol
c. Autoclave
d. Ethylene oxide

A

d. Ethylene Oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Which of the following are generally placed in the sharps container?
a. Scalpel
b. Wires
C. Bands
d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Elastomeric decays to 50% in:

a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 5 days
d. 7 days
e. 9 days

A

a. 1 day

Reductions as high as 75% of original force within 24 hours have been reported

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The greatest problem with all types of rubber used in orthodontics is:

a. Its short elastic range
b. Its cytotoxic and allergic effects
c. Its relatively fast pace of deterioration and delivered force decay
d. Its low resistance to tear and wear conditions

A

c. Its relatively fast pace of deterioration and delivered force decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Untoward effects of antibiotic therapy may be the following:

a. Allergy
b. Shock
c. Decrease effectiveness through the development of resistant strains
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sensitivity in the orthodontic office may be due to:

a. Bonding materials
b. Latex and vinyl gloves
c. Excess monomer in acrylic
d. all of the above

A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following should be used in a patient with a Nickel allergy?

a. NiTi
b. TMA
c. SS
d. Elgiloy - Chrome cobalt

A

b. TMA

Why not SS or Elgiloy? Not sure about this question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which statement regarding allergic reactions associated w/ orthodontic appliances is true:

a. They are almost always caused by Latex or Nickel
b. These allergic reactions are never life threatening
c. Only 5% of the US population shows some skin reaction to Nickel
d. All children with skin allergy to Nickel will show a mucosal response to orthodontic appliances

A

a. They are almost always caused by Latex or nickel

22
Q

Which organ is responsible for calcium conservation?

a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Spleen
d. Brain

A

b. Kidney

23
Q

Cervical posture may affect mandibular position as described by several studies. It is generally related to the concepts that:

a. Alterations antero-posterior head and neck posture appear to have an affect on the trajectory of the mandibular closure
b. Gravitational effects can affect mandibular posture
c. Positions of sleep and work may effect mandibular posture
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

24
Q

The tongue reaches its maximum size at age:

a. 5
b. 8
c. 11

A

b. 8

25
Q

What type of tissue is in sutures:

A

Type 3 collagen

See Graber pg. 186

26
Q

Which of the following has no proprioceptors?

a. Pulp
b. Muscles
c. TMJ

A

a. Pulp

27
Q

The muscles of facial expression develop from:

a. First branchial arch
b. Second branchial arch
c. Both arches
d. None of the above

A

b. Second branchial arch

28
Q

The facial nerve VII is derived from which branchial arch?

a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. None of the above

A

b. Second branchial arch

29
Q

All of the following are formed from the first branchial arch except:

a. Malleus
b. Maxilla
c. Condyle
d. Styloid process

A

d. Styloid process

30
Q

A pt. has loss of taste sensation from the anterior 2/3 of tongue, but w/ general sensation unimpaired, it might indicate there is a lesion of the:

a. Lingual nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Hypoglossal nerve
d. Chordae tympani

A

d. Chordae tympani

31
Q

Pt. complains that food in the vestibule of mouth during chewing. This symptom is consistent with the diagnosis of al esion in the:

a. Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
b. Branch of the facial nerve
c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
d. Accessory nerve
e. Hypoglossal nerve

A

b. Branch of the facial nerve

Buccinator: buccal branch of VII Facial

32
Q

Inability to close the eyelids indicates a possible lesion of which nerve?

a. Trochlear
b. Abducens
c. Occulomotor
d. Facial
e. Ophthalmic

A

d. Facial

Obicularis Oculi by temporal and zygomatic branches of VII

33
Q

Which nerve gives taste sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

Facial

34
Q

How many branches does the facial nerve have?

A

5

35
Q

What foramen does V2 pass through?

A

Foramen Rotundum

36
Q

The fifth cranial nerve or branch thereof passes through all the foramen listed below except:

a. Ovale
b. Spinosum
c. Rotundum
d. Mandibular
e. Lacerum

A

e. Lacerum

37
Q

What is the facial artery a branch of?

a. External carotid artery
b. Internal carotid artery
c. Lingual artery
d. Thyroid artery

A

a. External carotid artery

38
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur when a person swallows?

a. Masseters contract
b. Tongue is on the roof of the mouth
c. The teeth are in occlusion
d. Suprahyoids relax

A

d. Suprahyoids relax

39
Q

How many cartilages are in the inferior 1/3 of the nose?

A

3

septum, greater alar, lesser alar

40
Q

Nasal septum is usually deviated where?

A

Inferior 1/3

41
Q

What is not formed from the median nasal process?

A

Ala of the nose

42
Q

Which of the following participates in the formation of the ala of the nose

A

Lateral nasal process

43
Q

From where is the incus derived?

A

Meckel’s Cartilage

first branchial arch was an option but apparently not correct

44
Q

Meckel’s cartilage forms?

a. Incus
b. Malleous
c. Sphenomandibular ligament

A

All of the above

45
Q

The fibrocartilage between the temporal area and basion around the occipital condyle and functions:

a. For lateral growth
b. For frontal growth
c. For cushioning any direct forces or to protect form pressure of transfer forces

A

c. For cushioning any direct forces or to protect from pressure of transfer forces

46
Q

Sialolith

A

Submandibular gland

47
Q

Three pairs of large salivary glands pour their secretions into the oral cavity

a. Parotid is the smallest
b. Sublingual is the largest
c. Parotid is the largest
d. Submandibular is the largest

A

c. Parotid is the largest

48
Q

The position of the mandibular foramen is where?

a. above the occlusal plane
b. below the occlusal plane

A

a. Above the occlusal plane

49
Q

Where does the mandibular foramen lie?

A

Above the posterior to the mandibular molars

50
Q

Which bone ossifies upon termination of growth in the distal phalanges?

a. Palatal bone
b. Sesamoid bone
c. Occipital bone
d. Femur bone

A

b. Sesamoid bone