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ABO Written Exam > Coffee #2 Document Questions pt. 5 > Flashcards

Coffee #2 Document Questions pt. 5 Flashcards

1
Q

If you are asked on a ceph tracing to use machine porion instead of the anatomic porion, what measurements will change?

A

FMA

Y-Axis will increase (FH-S-Gn)

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2
Q

Most common error in cephalometric tracing

A

Proper identification of landmarks

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3
Q

Most common course of error on a ceph?

A

Patient-film distance

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4
Q

When superimposing on the mandible, what do you NOT superimpose

a. symphysis
b. angle of the mandible
c. mandibular canal
d. Mental foramen

A

mental foramen

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5
Q

Strengths of a template cephalometric analysis include all of the following, except:

a. Easy use of age-related standards
b. Quick overall impression of dentofacial structures
c. Non-utilization of linear measurements
d. Readily integration for computer use

A

c. Non-utilization of linear measurements

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6
Q

NLA norms

A

94-110

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7
Q

What are some effects of a clefted soft palate?

a. hypernasal speech
b. Snoring
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

c. All of the above

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8
Q

What causes a problem in a cleft patients’ speech?

a. An inability to build up intraoral pressure
b. A large tongue
c. A narrow mandible
d. All of the above

A

a. An inability to build up intraoral pressure

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9
Q

What is the incidence of cleft palate

a. 1 in 100
b. 1 in 500
c. 1 in 750
d. 1 in 1500

A

c. 1 in 750

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10
Q

What is the incidence of cleft palate in American Indian population?

a. Higher in whites
b. Less than whites

A

a. Higher than whites

Indian > Asian > Whites > AA

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11
Q

Which is NOT found in cleft palates

a. Impacted centrals
b. Rotated incisors
c. Missing laterals
d. Posterior crossbite

A

a. Impacted centrals

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12
Q

A patient with a cleft palate only is best retained with

a. an anterior bridge
b. a posterior bridge
c. a partial denture
d. retainer with a pontic

A

Retainer with a pontic

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13
Q

What is effective bone graft for alveolar cleft?

A

Bone from iliac

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14
Q

Cleft palate develops

a. During first trimester of pregnancy
b. During second trimester of pregnancy
c. During third trimester of pregnancy
d. At birth

A

a. First trimester

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15
Q

When does cleft lip and palate occur?

A

6-8 weeks in utero

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16
Q

Infants with repaired clefts of lip and palate

a. Have normal development of hard and soft tissue
b. Have normal development of the soft palate
c. Have a deficiency of the soft palate
d. None of the above

A

c. Have a deficiency of the soft palate

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17
Q

Most effective time to surgically close a cleft palate is

a. 6 months
b. at birth
c. 1 year after birth
d. 2 years after birth

A

c. 1 year after birth

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18
Q

The recent consensus is that grafting of alveolar process in cleft palate patient is contraindicated during:

a. Infancy
b. Late primary and early mixed dentition
c. Late mixed and early permanent dentition
d. Late teens

A

a. Infancy

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19
Q

In which of the following cleft types is hypertelorism found?

a. Oro-ocular
b. Lateral
c. Oblique
d. Midline

A

d. Midline

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20
Q

Which is reduced in cleft patients?

a. Upper facial height
b. Lower facial height
c. Neither
d. Both

A

a. Upper facial height

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21
Q

When should an alveolar bone graft in a cleft site be performed?

a. When the canine root is 1/3 formed
b. When the canine root is 2/3 formed
c. When the central root is 1/3 formed
d. When the central root is 2/3 formed

A

b. When the canine root is 2/3 formed

22
Q

What are some possible causes of cleft palate

a. Heredity
b. Drugs
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

c. All of the above

23
Q

Cleft of the lip is due to what?

A

Failure of fusion of the medial nasal process and maxillary process

24
Q

Cleft lip results in failure of merging of

a. Maxillary with mandibular processes
b. Maxillary processes with one another
c. Maxillary and median nasal processes
d. Medial and lateral nasal processes
e. Palatine processes with nasal septum

A

c. Maxillary and median nasal processes

25
Q

For a demanding patient, how to alleviate distrust

A

recommend a second opinion

26
Q

Cooperation is more likely to be a problem in a patient with

a. External motivation for seeking treatment
b. High degree of parental control
c. Multi-cultural background
d. Any of the above

A

a. External motivation for seeking treatment

27
Q

In prioritizing realistic treatment objectives, a compromise could be made on the following, except:

a. Establishing ideal occlusion
b. Addressing the patient’s chief complaint.
c. Achieving ideal facial esthetics
d. Maximizing stability

A

b. Addressing the patient’s chief complaint

28
Q

An adult patient who seeks orthodontic treatment tends to have:

a. Less positive self-image than average
b. An average self-image
c. More positive self-image than average
d. None of the above

A

C. More positive self-image than average

29
Q

Lack of cooperation with orthodontic treatment in an adult patient usually stems from

  1. Personal choice of disagreement or poor understanding of treatment modality
  2. Passive attitude or carelessness
  3. Low tolerance of discomfort
  4. Higher social demands and constraints
    a. 1,2&3
    b. 1,3&4
    c. 2,3&4
    d. 2&3
A

b. 1, 3, & 4

30
Q

Abdominal thrusts on a child should be performed

a. Above the navel and above the sternum
b. Above the navel and below the sternum
c. Below the navel and above the sternum
d. Below the navel and below the sternum

A

b. Above the navel and below the sternum

31
Q

During CPR, where do you push for thrust to resucitate?

A

Lower 1/3 of sternum

32
Q

If a child swallows a band and is conscious with coughing, the doctor should

a. Rush the child to the nearest emergency room
b. Perform the Heimlich maneuver
c. Stay with the patient and encourage coughing
d. Watch and wait

A

c. Stay with the patient and encourage coughing

33
Q

How many minutes without oxygen can the brain survive?

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 7

A

c. 6

34
Q

If you see an unconscious person lying on the floor what do you do first?

a. activate EMS
b. Look for ID
c. Start CPR
d. Nothing

A

a. Activate EMS

35
Q

In an adult, a rescue breath (CPR) is given every:

a. 2 seconds
b. 3 seconds
c. 4 seconds
d. 5 seconds
e. 10 seconds

A

d. 5 seconds

36
Q

Difference between Primoridal and Residual cyst

A

Primordial: Where a tooth should be but didn’t form

Residual: Peripapical cyst remaining after extraction

37
Q

A differential diagnosis for a multilocular radiolucency includes all of the following except:

a. Ameloblastoma
b. Central giant cell granuloma
c. Cementoblastoma

A

c. Cementoblastoma

38
Q

How does a mucocele differ from a true cyst?

a. It lacks saliva
b. It lacks an epithelial lining
c. It fluctuates in size

A

b. It lacks an epithelial lining

39
Q

Which of the following is true about ameloblastomas

a. They fluctuate in size
b. They are radiopaque
c. They do not frequently metastasize

A

c. They do not frequently metastasize

40
Q

Where is ameloblastoma more common?

A

angle of the mandible

41
Q

What are characteristics of Ameloblastoma?

A
  1. Occurs in third molar area
  2. High recurrence after removal
  3. Usually occurs after age 20
  4. No sexual predilection
  5. All of the above
42
Q

Most common odontogenic tumor

A

Odontoma (70%)

43
Q

Peripapical cemental dysplasia, what do cyst look like on radiograph

A

Radiolucent

Middle aged, AA women

44
Q

What is most important with digital cameras?

a. Resolution
b. Lighting
c. Focus to zoom ratio

A

a. Resolution

45
Q

AAO standard for facial pictures

A

1/4 photo size

46
Q

T/F, Human eye sees 46 shades of gray

Digital camera sees 256 shades (if 8 bit)

A

True

True

47
Q

What is the largest in an infant

a. Width of head
b. Depth of head
c. Vertical size of head

A

Width of head

48
Q

Which dimension of infants most closely resembles adults

a. Depth
b. Width
c. Height

A

b. Width

49
Q

Which dimension finishes growing first in the head

a. Width
b. Depth
c. Vertical

A

a. Width

50
Q

Post-natal incremental changes in the face are:

  1. Most in height
  2. Most in width
  3. Least in width
  4. Greatest in width
    a. 1 & 3
    b. 2 & 3
    c. 3 & 4
    d. 1 & 4
A

A. 1 & 3

ABO Written Exam (24 decks)

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