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ABO Written Exam > Coffee #2 Document pt. 3 > Flashcards

Coffee #2 Document pt. 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The paranasal sinus which lies directly beneath the sella turcica is the?

a. Sphenoid
b. Maxillary
c. Posterior ethmoidal
d. Frontal
e. Mastoid

A

Sphenoid

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2
Q

Articulation what structure with C1 permits the rotation of the head?

A

Odontoid process (Dens)

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3
Q

What causes the rotation of the head?

a. occiput
b. C1
c. C2

A

c. C2
Atlas C1 - back and forth
Axis C2 - rotation

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4
Q

What is the widest cervical vertebrae from C1 to C5

A

C1

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5
Q

How many bones are in the craniofacial complex?

a. 8 cranial
b. 14 facial
c. 22 total
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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6
Q

What kind of bone is fetal bone

a. Lamellar
b. Woven
c. Spongy

A

b. Woven

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7
Q

Put in order of organization

a. Woven > Composite > Bundle > Lamellar
b. Woven > Composite > Lamellar
c. Woven > Composite > Lamellar > Bundle

A

c. Woven > Composite > Lamellar > Bundle

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8
Q

What kind of bone is formed after initial ortho movement?

A

Woven

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9
Q

What is the difference between primary osteons and secondary osteons?

a. Primary osteons is woven bone
b. Primary bone is fine woven bone
c. Primary osteon has ordered osteocytes
d. Primary osteons has canaliculi perpendicular to medullary canal

A

a. Primary osteons is woven bone

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10
Q

What is the primary osteon?

a. Woven bone
b. Mature spongy bone
c. Mature cancellous bone
d. Cartilage

A

a. Woven bone

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11
Q

The adult bone is remodeled by?

A

Secondary osteons

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12
Q

Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by:

a. Actinomyces bovis
b. Borrelia vincenti
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

c. Staphylococcus aureus

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13
Q

Osteoclasts come from?

a. bone marrow
b. blood
c. PDL
d. Bone

A

a. Bone marrow

- from monocytes (marrow, hematopotetic)

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14
Q

What is the source of osteocytes?

A

Osteoblasts

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15
Q

From where do cells for bone deposition originate?

a. Osteoclasts
b. Blood
c. Mesenchyme cells
d. Chondrocytes

A

c. Mesenchyme cells

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16
Q

Bone formation starts as what?

A

Mesenchymal condensation

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17
Q

Most of the osteoclasts present in the PDL are

a. Of hematogenous origin
b. Derived from stem cells found in the local area
c. Highly differentiated fibroclasts
d. Always associated with an inflammatory condition

A

A. of hematogenous origin

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18
Q

Bone tissue grows by what type of growth?

a. Interstitial growth
b. Osteoclastic activity
c. Proliferation of endodermal tissues
d. Differentiation of cartilaginous tissue

A

Differentiation of cartilaginous tissue

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19
Q

Osteopetrosis appears on the XR as:

a. Radiolucency
b. Radioopacity
c. Honeycomb appearance
d. Ground glass appearance

A

b. Radioopacity

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20
Q

What happens in osteopetrosis?

a. Increased radiopacity
b. Decreased radiopacity
c. a Honeycombed appearance of bone

A

a. Increased radiopacity

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21
Q

The tension side of tooth movement has what components histologically?

a. Woven bone
b. Fibrous tissue
c. Both

A

c. Both

22
Q

Rate of bone remodeling

a. Increases with age
b. Decreases with age
c. Remains the same
d. None of the above

A

b. Decreases with age

23
Q

Histochemically basal bone and alveolar bone

a. Are vastly different
b. Basal bone is more resistant to resorption
c. Are no different
d. Alveolar bone is less cancellous

A

c. Are no different

24
Q

Movement of bony segments in space, without any internal or localized changes, is called:

a. Translation
b. Conduction
c. Transformation
d. Does not occur

A

a. Translation

25
Q

Development of the body of the mandible involves:

a. Reichert’s cartilage
b. A complete cartilage model
c. Intramembranous bone formation
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

c. Intramembranous bone formation

26
Q

Which bone is purely intramembranous?

a. parietal and frontal
b. ethmoid
c. temporal

A

a. Parietal and frontal

27
Q

How are the parietal and frontal bones formed?

a. Partly by endochondral bone formation
b. Partly by intramembranous bone formation
c. Entirely by endochondral bone formation
d. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation

A

d. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation

28
Q

How is the sphenoid bone form?

a. Partly by endochondral bone formation
b. Entirely by endochondral bone formation
c. Entirely by intramembranous bone formation

A

a. Partly by endochondral bone formation

29
Q

Which part of the face has both intramembranous and endochondral sutures

a. Upper and middle
b. Upper and lower
c. Middle and lower
d. Upper only

A

a. Upper and middle

30
Q

Intramembranous bone formation comes from:

a. Condensation of mesenchyme
b. Endoderm
c. Ectoderm

A

a. Condensation of mesenchyme

31
Q

Which of the following tissues does NOT grow interstitially?

a. Muscle
b. Bone
c. Nerve
d. Connective tissue

A

b. Bone

32
Q

The cranial base grows by what mechanism?

a. Intramembranous
b. Endochondral
c. appositional

A

b. Endochondral

33
Q

In an .022 slot size system, the maximal slot size measurements are:

a. 18x25
b. 22x22
c. 22x28
d. 22x25
e. 25x22
f. 25x22

A

c. 22x28

34
Q

Increased bond strength of ceramic brackets was achieved by:

a. 30% adhesive filler concentration
b. 55% adhesive filler concentration
c. 80% adhesive filler concentration
d. all of the above

A

c. 80% adhesive filler concentration

35
Q

Thermal debond of brackets is an alternative to usual technique. Ceramic brackets debonded by thermal means, both more time & a higher temp are required than for debonding of SS brackets, assuming a two paste adhesive system used:

a. True
b. False

A

True

36
Q

The use of zinc phosphate cements for ortho purposes differs from its use in restorative dentistry in that:

a. The liquid for orthodontic purposes contains less free phosphoric acid
b. The cement for orthodontic purposes is mixed thicker
c. Mixing techniques for orthodontic purposes do not use a frozen slab
d. Little bare metal not coated with cement is tolerated on interior surfaces of an orthodontic band

A

b. The cement for orthodontic purposes is mixed thicker

37
Q

The safest and preferred site of failure when brackets are removed is:

a. The interface between enamel surface and bonding material
b. Within the bonding material itself
c. The interface between brackets surface and bonding material
d. Any of the above

A

c. The interface between brackets surface and bonding material

38
Q

All the following are current recommendations for safer debonding of ceramic brackets, except:

a. Selecting brackets with mechanical retention between the base and the adhesive
b. Inducing an asymmetric torquing stress on the bracket
c. Using a laser to weaken the adhesive
d. Concentrating the force at the bracket-adhesive interface

A

b. Inducing an asymmetric torquing stress on the bracket

39
Q

When compared to metal brackets, a problem associated w/ ceramic brackets is increased friction due to roughness of bracket interface

a. True
b. False

A

True

40
Q

What percentage of impacted canines self-correct if the tip is distal to the middle of the lateral incisor?

a. 10
b. 30
c. 50
d. 70
e. 90

A

90%

64% if crossed the midline

41
Q

What is the percent of permanent canines that come in lingually, when primary canines are extracted (distal to the lateral)?

A

91%

42
Q

Which one is not true about Impacted canines?

A

30% of them come palatal

**85% are palatal

43
Q

When extracting a lateral and replacing with the canine what is not important

A

Buccal occlusion on side not affected

44
Q

Intercanine distance upon eruption of permanent canines

a. Increases significantly
b. Increases a little
c. Decreases

A

b. Increases a little

45
Q

Most common transpositioned tooth

A

Canine

46
Q

A picture of a pano is shown and you are asked what is obvious

A

Caries

47
Q

Panoramic radiographs are least useful in demonstrating which of the following?

a. Supernumerary teeth
b. Arch perimeter deficiencies
c. congenitally missing teeth
d. Axial inclination of teeth
e. Apical development of permanent teeth

A

b. Arch perimeter deficiencies

48
Q

When eval radiographically which teeth show greatest variation relative to the onset of mineralization of teh crowns of permanent teeth

a. Maxillary canines
b. Mandibular 2nd molars
c. Mandibular 2nd premolars
d. Maxillary lateral incisors
e. Maxillary first molars

A

c. Mandibular second premolars

49
Q

What is the significance of a short posterior cranial base?

a. Mandibular prognathism
b. Anterior cross-bite
c. Maxillary retrognathism
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

Class III

50
Q

A shorter horizontal measured from Ar to PTM indicates what?

a. Maxillary hyperplasia
b. Maxillary hypoplasia
c. Mandibular hyperplasia
d. Mandibular hypoplasia

A

b. Maxillary hypoplasia

ABO Written Exam (24 decks)

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