2015 Questions Pt. 3 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F
Parenteral bisphosphonates decrease orthodontic tooth movement and post-orthodontic relapse
Localized bisphosphonates are contraindicated

A

True

False

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2
Q

Amphetamines exert which adrenergic effects?

a. Dilated pupils
b. Constricted pupils
c. Dilated vasculature
d. Constricted vasculature

A

a. Dilated pupils

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3
Q

What is the correct ratio and order for chest compressions and rescue breathing

A

30 compressions - 2 breaths

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4
Q

Where do you place your hands for chest compressions

A

lower half of sternum

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5
Q

What scenarios require premedication

A

Band placement

Previous hx of infective endocarditis

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6
Q

If a patient is allergic to Amoxicillin, what is the 2nd choice

A

Clindamycin 600 mg

Amoxicillin - 2 grams

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7
Q

T/F
Gorlick found that 30% of ortho pts. have white spot lesions
White spot lesions go away after 2-3 months of good oral hygiene without heavy fluoride use/wait 2-3 months after debond to apply fluoride

A

False (50%)

False (Not heavy use, without heavy use is correct)

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8
Q

Which of the following is not increased from fluoride use?

a. pH
b. Size of hydroxyapatite crystal
c. Solubility of hydroxyapatite crystal

A

c. Solubility of hydroxyapatite crystal

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9
Q

What percentage of sodium fluoride should orthodontic patients rinse with daily?

A

0.05%

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10
Q

Fluoride prevents caries in developing teeth at what percentage?

A

20-40%

Also seen 20-55%

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11
Q

Define HIPAA

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

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12
Q

You are performing an experiment to predict mandibular growth from 3 different initial ceph values
What statistical analysis should you use

A

Correlation

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13
Q

Which is not used in ABO discrepancy index?

A

FMA

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14
Q

When does the ABO score third molars?

A

When they are substituting for second molars

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15
Q

Which does not score DI points

A

Lower incisor <80

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16
Q

What are the ceph measurements in the ABO DI

A

ANB, IMPA, SN-GoGn

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17
Q

Wavelength of orthodontic curing light?

What is the wavelength that ortho resins are activated?

A

460-480 nm

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18
Q

Which are important for TAD primary stability

A

Cortical bone thickness and Diameter

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19
Q

T/F

Pilot holes increase TAD stability

A

True

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20
Q

T/F

Best place to place a TAD when protracting a mandibular molar is distal to the cuspid

A

True

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21
Q

Property of springback is related to?

A

Ability to be activated (exert clinically useful force when bent) beyond yield point

22
Q

Highest coefficient of friction is found in what wire?

A

TMA > NiTi > SS

23
Q

The ability of a wire to have high deflection but low force is due to?

A

Phase transformation

24
Q

What type of wire delivers the most consistent type of force?

A

A-NiTi

25
Q

Why does stress strain not affect load deflection of NiTi wire?

A

Phase transformation

A –> M

26
Q

What is the flat part of the curve for NiTi called?

A

Phase transformation

27
Q

What wire is best for continuous light forces?

A

A-NiTi

28
Q

How is NiTi activated?

A

Austineitic –> Martensitic

29
Q

Most important factor in leveling when picking size?

A

Load deflection

30
Q

T/F
Pre-adjusted straightwire brackets guarantee optimal positioning of teeth
However, most cases require bends to optimally position a few teeth

A

False

True

31
Q

TPA is least useful for:

A

Anchorage in AP

32
Q

Which of the following is least effective in maintaining vertical?

a. Nance
b. TPA
c. High Pull Headgear

A

TPA

33
Q

What complications can arise from a mandibular respositioning appliance for sleep apnea

A

Occlusal discrepancies and alterations

34
Q

T/F
LLHA can successfully hold space for eruption of premolars and canines
It can also prevent eruption of lower incisors

A

True

True (permanent are more lingual)

35
Q

What is the leeway space on top and bottom? mm amount

A
  1. 5 maxilla (per side)_

2. 5 mandible (per side)

36
Q

T/F

68% of patients had resolution of crowding with LLHA

A

True

37
Q

LLHA can correct how much crowding?

A

4-5 mm

38
Q

LLHA intermolar width increased how much compared to controls?

A

1 mm

39
Q

With VME, what do you see in concurrence?

A

Retrognathia/Class II

40
Q

Primary action of lip bumper

A

Relieves incisor alignment

41
Q

Twin block appliance therapy has what affects?

A

Dental and Skeletal mostly to achieve Class I

Incisal capping to reduce incisor flaring

42
Q

Which of the following is true about Class II functional appliances

A

It opens the bite

43
Q

Forsus has all of the following effects except for:

a. Distalize maxillary molars
b. Increase SNB
c. Decrease SNA
d. Mesialize mandibular molar

A

c. Decrease SNA

44
Q

What percentage of Class II cases are fixed after Phase 1 treatment

A

75%

45
Q

What sutures limit RPE

A

Zygomatic buttress

46
Q

When using an RPE, what sutures are not affected?

A

Premaxillary

47
Q

RPE expands where?

A

More anteriorly and inferiorly

48
Q

For every 1 mm of intertooth expansion in the posterior, how much arch perimeter is gained with an RPE

A

0.7 mm premolar

49
Q

Gingival recession is most common in orthodontic patients who undergo

A

Maxillary orthopedic expansion

50
Q

How do you counteract the side effects of an upper intrusion arch on the molars?

A

High Pull HG with short outerbow and TPA