Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PPL > u2 > Flashcards

u2 Flashcards

1
Q

if your licence is expired or revoked, what do you have to do with them

A

return it to TC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

who can legally request and inspect your documents? x3

A

peace officer
immigration officer
the Minister (TC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what’s an easy and valid way to backup your computer flight information

A

in a personal log book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

difference between operator and air operator

A

operator is the guy flying the plane

air operator is the guy flying the plane has the air operator certificate (AOC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in regards to an air operator, who is a “principal”?

A

the principal is another person (accountable executive) that is in control of the air operator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are examples of things part of the safety management system (SMS)

A

safety policy
proper training
process to ID hazards
accident reporting
safety reviews/audits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

i’m leasing a plane but not registered as an owner. I cannot fly the plane UNLESS

A

the authorization is carried on board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

certificate of registration must always be ______

A

on board the plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

i sold my plane and officially transferred legal custody and control to the new guy. how soon do i need to notify the minister and how do i do that?

A

notify the Minister in WRITING within 7 DAYS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

aerodrome vs airport

A

aerodrome = registered area for arrival/departure of planes

airport = CERTIFIED aerodrome maintained to TC requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

maneuvering area is

A

parts of the aerodrome for taxiing, takeoff and landing (runways and taxiways)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

apron is

A

the area loading cargo, passengers, fueling and parking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

movement area is

A

parts of the aerodrome used for surface movement of plane (manoeuvring area + apron)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

runways are numbered by ____ baring

A

magnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

takeoff and landing area boundaries of aerodrome WITHOUT prepared runways have ______ markers

what do these cones look like at aerodromes and airports

A

highway organge cone markers

aerodrome = solid organe cone

airport = orange and white striped cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

are runway boundary markers required for every runway?

A

not required if you can clearly see the boundary between the pavement and grass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

displaced threshold is a yellow line with arrows pointing towards it.

what are the rules for touchdown/takeoff, taxi, landing roll….

VFR vs IFR

A

you can taxi here and have prolonged takeoff or landing roll

but it’s risky to land before or take off after the yellow displaced threshold because you might not clear obstacles at end of runway

recommended but not required

VFR can surpass this area using pilots judgement but IFR can NOT and mst stay within boundary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

rules for takeoff/landing, taxi, landing rolll… for YELLOW CHEVRONS

A

do NOT taxi, land, roll or anything on this area because the ground under the yellow chevrons cannot support the weight of the plane (used as emergency stop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

plane should always hold short by ____ ft from the edge of the runway if there’s no hold short line

A

200 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does it mean to ask ATC for “progressive taxi”

A

ATC gives you turn by turn instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

windsock:

every ____ KT wind, a new colour pops out

windsock flies horizontal in a wind of ___KT or more

at __ KT, hands 5º below horizontal

at __ KT it hands 30º below horizontal

A

3KT
15KT
10KT
6KT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

turn on/off airport lights using your radio transmitter using ARCAL type J vs type K

A

type J: key mic 5 times within 5 sec
type K: key mic 3,5,7 times within 5 sec for low-high intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the standard circuit: ____ ft __ and ____ turns

A

1000 ft AGL and left turns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

if you’re overflying an aerodrome be at least ______ in the air

A

2000 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

can’t act as crew member unless you have ____ and ____

A

personnel documents and medical certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

to fly in canada, pilot must have a ____ license or ______ license

A

canadian license

foreign validadition license

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

medical certificate for RECREATIONAL permit or ultra light:
- can be signed by _______
- valid for ____ years if under 40 and valid for ___ years if older than 40

A

any doctor
5 years under 40
2 years over 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

medical certificate for PRIVATE permit
- can be signed by _______
- valid for ____ years if under 40 and valid for ___ years if older than 40

A

canadian aviation medical examiner
5 years under 40
2 years over 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

COMMERCIAL pilot medical certificate is valid for ___ if under 40 but valid for ____ over 40

A

1 year
6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

in order to keep your license current and fly passengers you need to do 3 things

A
  • fly within 5 years
  • do a training session/seminar/study program
  • complete 5 takeoff and landings every 6 months to carry passengers during day or night
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

if the pilot has not flown within 5 years, what do they need to do to keep their license

A

do a flight review with a flight instructor and pass the PSTAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

____ always needs clearance to enter all classes of controlled airspace

A

IFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

typical control zone height

A

surface to 3000 AGL unless otherwise specified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

typical control area extension height

A

2200 ft AGL to 5200 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what height does a transition area usually start at and what’s the typical radius

A

700 ft AGL
15 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which classes of airspace REQUIRE a transponder and which ones sometimes ask for one but not always

A

class A B C require a transponder
class D E may want one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what do you do if your transponder fails in flight

A

land at aerodrome that doesn’t require one
ask permission from ATC if you can still land there if its not busy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

class G is ______ airspace
how do pilots communicate
max dimensions of airspace

A

uncontrolled
general broadcast to other pilots nearby - 126.7 MHz
surface to 18000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Class F airspace: advisory vs restricted
how to communicate with other pilots
types of advisory airspace

A

advisory = encouraged to avoid
restricted = do NOT enter without permission but just don’t
general broadcast 126.7 if nothing else published
military, parachute dropping, training, plane test area…

40
Q

IFR vs VFR restrictions on Class F airspace

A

VFR can enter CYA but not CYR
IFR can NOT enter either CYA or CYR without permission

41
Q

typical forest fire height and radius

A

surface to 3000 ft AGL with 5 NM radius

42
Q

Class E:
controlled?
VFR and IFR rules before entering - need to establish communication with ATC?
VFR must get a traffic advisory ____mins before entering
VFR pilots must maintain weather minimum of ___ NM visibility

A

controlled
VFR is not required to establish ATC communication unless mandatory frequency (MF) within a control zone
IFR always needs clearance to enter
5mins
3NM visibility

43
Q

MF vs ATF (____ frequency)

A

MF = mandatory frequency
ATF = should have a radio but not mandatory

44
Q

does class E require VFR and IFR clearance to enter

A

VFR class E: ATC will only acknowledge, not give you clearance to enter
IFR class E: mandatory ATC clearance

45
Q

Class D airspace
need to establish communication with ATC
what two things does your plane need to be equipped with: ___ or ____
what is NORDO?

A

must establish 2 way communication with ATC (not clearance, just a alrighty dawg come on in - but if they stay silent don’t enter zone)
radio or transponder
if you don’t have radio equipment then call ATC before leaving to see if you can come in this area

46
Q

Class C airspace
need communication with ATC?
plane must be equipped with ____ or ____

A

must get CLEARANCE before entering here
radio or transponder

47
Q

Class B airspace
how involved is ATC?
plane must be equipped with
do you have to communicate with ATC before entering?
if you’re planning to fly through Class B airspace, what do you need to do before you depart?
height above sea level

A

ATC controls VFR and IFR
must get clearance
plane needs mode C transponder
file a flight plan (they’ll give you clearance here)
12 500 - 18 000 ft

48
Q

can VFR fly in class A airspace
communication with ATC?
what does your plane need to fly here

A

no IFR only and you need clearance to be here and transponder

49
Q

low level airway is ______ airspace from ______ to ____
VFR must maintain the weather minimums:
- ___ NM visibility
- ____ NM horizontally and ____ ft vertically from a cloud

A

controlled
2200 ft AGL to 18000 ft ASL!!!!!

  • 3NM
  • 1 NM horizontal and 500 ft vertical
50
Q

low level VHF/UHF airway has a ___ NM radius on either side of centerline
this is class )_____ airspace
height minimum

A

4 NM
class E
starts at 2200 ft AGL

51
Q

low level LF/MF airway
radius
height minimum

A

4.34 NM
2200 ft AGL

52
Q

low level T route airway
radius
height minimum
class ___ airspace
where to find T route (map)

A

10 NM
2200 ft AGL
E
LO chart

53
Q

low level airway vs air route

A

airway is controlled class E
air route is un controlled class G

54
Q

low level air route height

A

surface to 18000 ft

55
Q

pilot can request special VFR in a control zone when the weather sucks ass but the pilot must:

day vs night VFR can request special VFR for arrivals and departures?

A
  • remain clear of cloud
  • see the ground
  • visibility of at least 1 SM

daytime = special VFR for arrival and departure
night = only special VFR for landing

56
Q

CAR vs AIM for alcohol waiting before flying

A

CAR = do NOT fly within 12hrs of drinking

AIM = recommend waiting 24hr before flying

57
Q

alcohol and hypoxia (altitude) are additive so beyond _____ ft, 1 drink feels like 2

A

6000 ft

58
Q

if you’re flying over a city, the minimum distance you need to fly is ____ ft above the highest obstacle within a ____ ft horizontal distance

A

1000 ft vertical
2000 ft horizontal

59
Q

if you’re flying over the prairies and happen to see one person walking their dog in a wide open field , the minimum distance you need to fly over them is ____ ft

A

500 ft

60
Q

if you’re flying over a national park, minimum distance you need to fly over is _____ ft

A

2000 ft

61
Q

order these people into having the most to least right of way: glider, cessna, balloon, blimp

based on their…..

A

balloon, glider, blimp, cessna

ability to maneuver

62
Q

if two cessnas are flying head on, each pilot should alter their heading how

A

to the right

63
Q

plane A is overtaking plane B, which one has the right of way and which way does plane A change their heading to overtake

A

plane B has right of way
plane A passes to the right

64
Q

two planes want to land. plane A is 3000ft and plane B is 2000 ft. which has the right of way

A

plane B because lower altitude

65
Q

plane A is wants to takeoff and plane B wants to land, which has the right of way

A

B

66
Q

if you want your plane to tow an object, what must it be equipped with

A

tow hook and release control system

67
Q

i want to do formation flight, who do i need to get the all clear from

A

other pilots and ATC

68
Q

my passengers want to parachute, where can i NOT drop them off

A

control zone
over a city/built up area
over a crowd of people

69
Q

don’t do aerobatic maneuvers when

A

over a city
over a crowd of people
in controlled airspace without SFOC
visibility less than 3 NM
below 2000 ft AGL without SFOC

70
Q

don’t fly faster than ____ KIAS below 10 000 ft

A

250 KT

71
Q

don’t fly faster than ____ KIAS below 3 000 ft AGL within ___ NM of a controlled airport without clearance

A

200 KT
10 NM

72
Q

can i fly faster than Mach 1?

A

no

73
Q

the cruising altitude you chose depends on

cruising tracks start at ____ ft AGL

A

your magnetic track in SDA or true track in NDA
VFR vs IFR

3000 ft AGL

74
Q

what do i set my altimeter to in NDA and SDA

A

NDA = 29.92
SDA = check local station/FIC/elevation when below 18 000 ft ASL

75
Q

sterile flight deck rules occur during ____ phases of flight
examples

A

critical
takeoff, landing, approach, taxi, flight below 10 000 ft except during cruise

76
Q

survival equipment is NOT required on board when flying

A

within 25 NM of home base

77
Q

must have life preservers or floatation devices when

A

you can’t reach shore when you have an engine failure (gliding)

or over 50 NM from shore

78
Q

planes must carry a life RAFT if plane flies ____ NM from emergency landing site or if you’re ____ mins away

A

100 NM
30 mins

79
Q

you must file a flight plan or itinerary if you’re flying more than ___ NM from home base

A

25 NM

80
Q

you can file your flight plan _____ to ____ in advance

A

30 min to 24hr

81
Q

when does SAR begin for a flight plan vs itinerary (standard)

A

flight plan = 1hr after expired time
flight itinerary = 24hr after expired time

82
Q

you’re filling in your flight plan and need to write endurance time. how do you write ENDURANCE TIME in a flight plan

A

in hours and minutes

83
Q

when should you file your arrival report on a flight plan vs itinerary

A

asap
flight plan = within 1 hr
flight itinerary - within 24 hr
because SAR will start after that

84
Q

fuel requirements for VFR day and night

A

VFR day: need enough to fly to desination aerodrome + 30mins reserve at normal cruising speed

VFR night: destination + 45 mins reserve fuel

85
Q

fuel requirements for IFR fixed wing propeller vs turbojet

A

IFR fixed wing: destination + alternate + 45 mins

IFR turbojet: destination + alternate + 30 mins

86
Q

reserve vs contingency fuel

A

reserve = unforseeable emergency

contingency = extra fuel for forseeable issues , what can be planned for (weather, traffic…)

87
Q

if i’m flying to another country i must file a _____ flight plan

A

ICAO

88
Q

AROWJIL acronym

A

A = certificate of airworthiness
R = registration certificate
O = POH
W = weight and balance report
J = journey log book
I = insurance
L = licences

89
Q

certificate of airworthiness:
- plane must be flown by who
- does it expire?
- how does it become invalid?
- if there’s an airworthiness defect (AD) what must you do to make it airworthy again

A
  • flight authority (TC certified)
  • no expire
  • invalid if flown outside of POH and weight and balance
  • fix and recertified by A.M.E
90
Q

what is an AAIR and what does it tell TC

A

annual airworthiness information report
how many hours the plane has flown

91
Q

certificate of registration
- information
- if there’s a change, how soon must you notify TC
- must have the name of the person actually flying the plane (owner or lessee)

A
  • registration, serial number, owner info, SPECIFIC PURPOSE (private or commercial)
  • 7 days
92
Q

weight and balance report gives planes ______

A

basic empty weight

93
Q

journey log book must be kept for ___ (time) after last entry

A

1 year

94
Q

inspections on a plane is done based on _____

A

airtime

95
Q

3 types of insurance and which one is always mandatory

A

public liability - if you crash into a hanger (always mandatory)

passenger liability

hull insurance. - plane damage

96
Q

personal licences you must always have while flying

A

pilot license
medical
radio operator certificate

97
Q
A

PPL (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions