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PSTAR Flashcards

1
Q

there are two converging planes perpendicular to each other. which one has the right of way?

A

the one to the right

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2
Q

what is the order of priority/right of way for series of air things

A

balloons
gliders
airship
power-driven plane

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3
Q

two planes approaching head on. how do avoid?

A

alter heading to the right

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4
Q

two planes are on approach at the same time but are at different altitudes. whih one has the right of way?

A

the one with lower altitude

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5
Q

all float planes must follow what act

A

aeronautics act (boat rules)

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6
Q

uh oh, your radio dies while at a controlled airport. what do you do to get their attention to get light signals?

A

circle the tower 500 ft above circuit altitude and wait for light signals from the tower

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7
Q

what does a steady green signal mean when you’re in the AIR?

A

cleared to land

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8
Q

what does a flashing green signal mean when you’re in the AIR?

A

return for landing

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9
Q

what does a steady red signal mean when you’re in the AIR?

A

continue circling

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10
Q

what does a flashing red signal mean when you’re in the AIR?

A

airport unsafe

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11
Q

what does red fireworks signal mean when you’re in the AIR?

A

don’t land for the time being (military)

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12
Q

how do you acknowledge clearances during the day vs night

A

day = rock the wings
night = single flash of landing light

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13
Q

what does a steady green signal mean when you’re on the GROUND?

A

cleared for takeoff

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14
Q

what does a flashing green signal mean when you’re on the GROUND?

A

cleared for taxi

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15
Q

what does a steady red signal mean when you’re on the GROUND?

A

stop

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16
Q

what does a flashing red signal mean when you’re on the GROUND?

A

you taxied onto runway, get back to taxiway

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17
Q

what does a flashing white signal mean when you’re on the GROUND?

A

return to staring point on airport because of emergency

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18
Q

what does a blinking runway lights signal mean when you’re on the GROUND?

A

leave runway immediately

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19
Q

how high above farms or national parks must i fly

A

above 2000 ft AGL

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20
Q

aerodrome vs airport

A

aerodrome - registered
airport = certified aerodrome maintained to TC requirements

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21
Q

every stripe on a windsock is ___ KT wind

A

3KT

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22
Q

runway numbers face _____ baring

A

magnetic

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23
Q

hold short line looks like

A

double yellow

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24
Q

if there’s no hold short line, how far back must you wait from the runway

A

200 ft

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25
Q

if you’re flying over an aerodrome (not to land) how far above it must you pass

A

2000 ft AGL

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26
Q

maneuvering area consists of

A

planes where plane is moving (taxiway and runway)

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27
Q

apron consists of

A

loading and unloading of passengers and fuel

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28
Q

you must always repeat ______ clearances

A

hold short

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29
Q

emergency frequency

A

121.5

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30
Q

FISE frequencies

A

123.275
123.375
123.475
123.55

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31
Q

no base station, use _____ MHz

A

123.2 MHz

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32
Q

if unspecified, the MF area is what dimensions

A

5NM and 3000 AAE

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33
Q

what area does ATC ground control ?

A

taxiways

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34
Q

what area does ATC tower control

A

runways and immediate airspace above aerodrome

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35
Q

what does ATC terminal or VFR advisory control

A

directs VFR planes in airspace surrounding large airports

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36
Q

what does ATC center control?

A

IFR enroute traffic and VFR flight following between airports

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37
Q

which types of control zones have a tower

A

B C D

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38
Q

class E control zones don’t have a tower. what do they have instead?

A

FSS that controls veichle traffic

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39
Q

a pilot in class E or non-towered CZ must report their position when:

A

before entering CZ
on downwind
on final
when clear of runway

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40
Q

if you’re in uncontrolled airspace, what frequencys do you monitor while flying

A

126.7
and if you have two radios also 121.5 (emergency)

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41
Q

what is the format for a distress call

A

MAYDAY x3
position, altitude, type of plane, nature of emergency and intended action

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42
Q

what’s the call sign for urgency call

A

pan pan x3

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43
Q

how to cancel a distress call

A

mayday x3
all stations x3
silence finished
out

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44
Q

what is the scale of readability of a radio transmission

A

number x number
first number is strengeth
second is readability

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45
Q

what documents must i have on my plane before i fly

A

AROWJIL

airworthiness
registration
POH
weight and balance
journey log
insurance
licences

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46
Q

minimum day VFR equipment list

A

MAATE

magnetic compass
airspeed indicator
altitmeter
time
engine gauges (tach, oil pressure, temp, fuel gauge)

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47
Q

minimum night VFR equipment requirements

A

MAATE + ….

turn coordinator
gyro heading indicator
way to light up instruments (flash light)
navigation lights
anti collision lights
landing light

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48
Q

must have ____ to fly with passengers

A

landing light

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49
Q

must have survival equipment if flying

A

more than 25 NM from base

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50
Q

minimum survival equipment

A

way to signal distress
shelter
purifying water
start a fire
first aid kit

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51
Q

oxygen requirements: above 13000 ASL

A

always

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52
Q

oxygen requirements: 10 000 to 13 000 ASL for LESS than 30 mins

A

no oxygen needed

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53
Q

oxygen requirements: 10 000 to 13 000 ASL for LONGER than 30 mins

A

need oxygen

54
Q

i’m flying over water farther than my gliding distance if engine failure. what do i need?

A

a life preserver for each passenger

55
Q

to remain VFR in circuit, i need _____ NM visibility and at least ____ ft below cloud base

A

3 NM
500 ft below cloud

56
Q

i’m a NORDO plane and want to pass over aerodrome to plan my landing, how high must i fly

A

500 ft above circuit height

57
Q

use transponder code 1200 when you’re

A

VFR traffic below 12 500 ft

58
Q

use transponder code 1400 when you’re

A

VFR traffic above 12 500 ft

59
Q

use transponder code 7500 when you’re

A

hijack

60
Q

use transponder code 7600 when you’re

A

coms failure

61
Q

use transponder code 7700 when you’re

A

emergency

62
Q

change of 100 RPM is approx a change of __ KT airspeed

A

5KT

63
Q

when do planes have the strongest wake turbulence

A

heavy and slow (takeoff)

64
Q

what is the dimensions of wake turbulence

A

2 wingspan width x 1 wingspan depth

65
Q

vortices go below and behind the plane at _____ ft per minute

A

400-500 fpm

66
Q

on a windy day, vortices break up _____ whereas on a stable day, vortices break up ____

A

quickly
slower

67
Q

your medical certificate is valid based on your _____ date

A

EXAM date

(not the issue date)

68
Q

your medical is valid for ____ years if under 40

A

5yrs

69
Q

your medical is valid for ____ years if over 40

A

2 yrs

70
Q

what is hypoxia, what are symptoms, what gets impaired first, what can cause hypoxia to get worse

A

hypoxia = not enough O2 in blood stream
euphoria, slow reaction time, unconscious
eyes
drinking

71
Q

why can’t you fly when you have a cold

A

nose/ear blocked so when descending air is contracting and you can burst an eardrum

72
Q

after non-decompression dives, avoid flights _____ (height) for ___ (time)

A

below 8000 ASL for 12h

73
Q

after dives with decompression stops, avoid flights below _____(height) for ____ (time)

A

8000 ASL
24h

74
Q

after scuba diving, how long should you avoid flights above 8000 ASL

A

24h

75
Q

don’t fly if you donated blood within

A

48h

76
Q

don’t fly if you drank alcohol within

A

12h

77
Q

if you had a local anesthesic, don’t fly for

A

24h

78
Q

if you had general anesthetic, don’t fly for

A

until cleared by aviation doctor

79
Q

minimum fuel requirements for day VFR

A

need extra 30 min of reserve fuel at normal cruise

80
Q

minimum fuel requirements for night VFR

A

extra 45 mins of reserve fuel at normal cruise

81
Q

flight itinerary vs flight plan

A

itinerary = filed with FSS or responsible person, they report to SAR if overdue, sar starts 24h after arrival time

plan = filed with FIC, must do arrival report within 60mins to ATS because sar starts 1h overdue

82
Q

acknowledge clearance with

A

call sign

83
Q

ELT senses a _______ and will emit a siren on ___ MHz

A

deceleration
121.5 or 245 MHz

84
Q

can only test an ELT when?

A

within first 5 mins of hour for 5 sec max

85
Q

can fly without an ELT within ____ days of removal, provided that you do what

A

30 days

remove ELT at aerodrome that can repair it
ELT sent to repair
placard that says “no elt here” with date

86
Q

what is the idle blast area and takeoff thrust area for a jumbo jet

A

idle blast = 600 ft
takeoff thrust = 1600 ft

87
Q

what is the idle blast area and takeoff thrust area for a medium jet

A

idle blast = 450 ft
takeoff thrust = 1200 ft

88
Q

what is the idle blast area and takeoff thrust area for a small jet

A

idle blast = 200 ft
takeoff thrust = 500 ft

89
Q

behind the propellers of a large turboprop plane during taxi, you can expect ___ KT of wind up to____ ft behind the plane

A

45 KT
60 ft

90
Q

what is VDF

A

VHF direction finding
using the radio to get you un-lost

91
Q

low level airspace vs high level airspace

A

low level = up to 17 999 ft ASL
high level = 18 000 ft and above all

92
Q

what are the lower and upper limits of southern control area (high level airspace)

A

FL 180 to FL 600

93
Q

what are the lower and upper limits of northern control area (high level airspace)

A

FL 230 to FL 600

94
Q

what are the lower and upper limits of arctic control area (high level airspace)

A

FL 270 to FL 600

95
Q

what is important to know about ADIZ (air defense id zone)

A

must have a flight plan before entering
must enter zone within 20 NM of planned route and within +/- 5 mins of ETA

96
Q

what are my potential cruising altitudes when i’m flying a track of 110º

A

3500
5500
7500

ODD

97
Q

what is my potential cruising altitudes if my track is 240º

A

4500
6500
8500

EVEN

98
Q

flying under 10 000 ASL, what’s the speed limit

A

250 KT

99
Q

what’s the speed limit when flying within 10 NM and 3000 AGL of a controlled airport

A

200 KT

100
Q

what is the minimum flight visibility and cloud separations of: uncontrolled airspace higher than 1000 ft

A

1 mile DAY
3 miles night

500 ft below cloud
2000 ft from clouds

101
Q

what is the minimum flight visibility and cloud separations of: uncontrolled airspace BELOW 1000 ft

A

2 miles day
3 miles night

clear of cloud

102
Q

what is the minimum flight visibility and cloud separations of: controlled airspace

A

3 miles day and night

500 below cloud
1 mile horizontal

500 ft above ground in control zone

103
Q

what is the minimum flight visibility and cloud separations of: special VFR

A

1 mile visibility

clear of cloud

within sight of earth surface

104
Q

minimum altitude of rural area

A

500 ft

105
Q

minimum altitude of built up area

A

1000 ft above or 2000 ft horizontally from tallest object

106
Q

who can request to see your licences

A

the minister
peace officers
immigration officers

107
Q

i want to do aerobatic maneuvers, what do i need

A

flight operations certificate

108
Q

VHF/UHF airways:
- based on what
- radius
- height ASL

A

based on 2 VORs
4 NM radius
2200 to 18 000 ASL

109
Q

LF/MF airways:
- based on what
- radius

A

based on NDBs (old)
4.34 NM radius

110
Q

T/F: all planes are controlled in a low level airway

A

IFR always controlled
VFR not but you can request controlled VFR

111
Q

must report all accidents and incidents to Transportaion Safety Board within ___ (tine)

A

1h

112
Q

a new or replacing NOTAM without the term “EST” or “aprx” is valid…

A

until the time quoted in the NOTAM

113
Q

a NOTAM with the term “EST” or “APRX” is valid…

A

until a cancelling NOTAM is issued

114
Q

after a plane made contact with ATS, what items can be omitted from subsequent transmissions?

A

aircraft type and the first two letters of the registration if initiated by ATS

115
Q

how many landings at night within ____ months to be able to carry passengers at night

A

5 takeoff and 5 landings within 6 months

116
Q

how is an infant defined by CARs

A

under 2 yrs

117
Q

no pilot shall takeoff from or land at an aerodrome at night unless…

A

the aerodrome is lighted as prescribed by the Minister

118
Q

when the ceiling is 1000 ft overcast and visibility is 3 miles, to remain VFR, the plane must join the circuit at what height

A

500 ft below cloud base

119
Q

if i have a student pilot permit, i can only act as PIC by day only and _________

A

authorized by a supervising flight instructor

120
Q

a helicopter in uncontrolled airspace at less than 1000 ft AGL may operate during the day in flight visibility no less than

A

1 mile

121
Q

the selection of cruising altitude is based on your

A

magnetic track

122
Q

SVFR for helicopters in control zones have a visibility minimum of

A

1/2 mile

123
Q

what do i do when there’s an engine failure on the ground?

A

THROTTLE TO IDLE
BRAKES
flaps retract
mixture ICO
turn off mags and master switch

124
Q

what to do when engine failure on takeoff

A

AIRSPEED 80
mixture ICO
fuel selector off
mags off
flaps
master switch off

125
Q

what to do when engine failure during cruise

A

airspeed 80
select landing site
engine - check no fire

check for cause:
mixture rich
fuel selector both
mags each, then both
primer locked
throttle idle
attempt restart

radio call mayday
brief passengers

126
Q

what to do when have a wing fire

A

turn off navigation lights, strobe lights and pitot heat

127
Q

if there’s an engine fire on start, what do you do?

A

continue cranking starter
brakes

if engine starts: throttle 1700 for 2 mins, then shutdown and inspect

if engine doesn’t start:
throttle full
mixture ICO
continue cranking starter
engine secure (fuel selector off, master switch off, mags off)

128
Q

if there’s a cabin fire, what do you do

A

master switch off
close all vents/cabin air/heat
use fire extinguisher

129
Q

what to do when theer’s an engine fire in flight

A

mixture ICO
fuel selector off
master switch off
close cabin heat and air
open overhead vents
airspeed +100KT

130
Q

what to do when there’s an electrical fire in flight

A

master switch off
all other switches off
close all cabin air/vents/heat
use fire extinguisher

PPL (14 decks)

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