Trauma - RC Q's Flashcards
RC 2018 LRINEC components for nec fasc? High score assx with which organism? Comorbidities that increase risk of NF?
<ul> <li><b>Score >6 assx with Pseudomonas Aeruginosa</b></li><li><b>s</b>core > 6 has PPV of 92% of having necrotizing fasciitis </li> <ul> <li>think: CBC (Hb, WBC), lytes (Na, Cr), infx (CRP, glu)</li><li>CRP (mg/L) </li> <ul> <li>≥150: 4 points</li><li><150: 0 points</li> </ul> <li>WBC count (×103/mm3) </li> <ul> <li><15: 0 points</li> <li>15–25: 1 point</li> <li>>25: 2 points</li> </ul> <li>Hemoglobin (g/dL) </li> <ul> <li>>13.5: 0 points</li> <li>11–13.5: 1 point</li> <li><11: 2 points</li> </ul> <li>Sodium (mmol/L) </li> <ul> <li><135: 2 points</li> </ul> <li>Creatinine (umol/L) </li> <ul> <li>>141: 2 points</li> </ul> <li>Glucose (mmol/L) </li> <ul> <li>>10: 1 point</li></ul></ul><li>Comorbidities:</li><li>DM</li> <li>Age</li> <li>Obesity</li> <li>AIDS</li> <li>Cancer</li> <li>PVD</li> <li>IV drug use</li> <li>Alcohol abuse</li> <li>Chronic immunosuppresion</li></ul>
<div>Notes</div>
<ul><li>Mortality 10% (6-76%) - RFs: time from admission to debridement, age>60, Streptococcal toxic shock, immunocompromised</li><li><div>Triad: swelling, erythema, pain (out of proportion) - most sensitive symptom</div></li><li><div>antibiotics<ul><li>initial antibiotics<ul><li>start empirically with penicillin, clindamycin, metronidazole, and and aminoglycoside</li></ul></li><li>definitive antibiotics<ul><li>penicillin G<ul><li>for strep or clostridium</li></ul></li><li>imipenemordoripenemormeropenem<ul><li>for polymicrobial</li></ul></li><li>addvancomycin<strong></strong>or<strong></strong>daptomycin<ul><li>if MRSA suspected</li></ul></li></ul></li></ul></div></li></ul>
<div><div> <div><u>Type</u></div> <div><u>Organism</u></div> <div><u>Characteristics</u></div> <div>Type 1</div> <div></div> <div>Polymicrobial</div> <div>Typical 4-5aerobic and anaerobicspecies cultured:</div> <div>•non-Group A Strep</div> <div>•anaerobes including Clostridia</div> <div>•facultative anaerobes</div> <div>•enterobacteria</div> <div>•Synergistic virulence between organisms</div> <div>• Most common (80-90%)</div> <div>• Seen in immunosuppressed (diabetics and cancer patients)</div> <div>• Postop abdominal and perineal infections</div> <div>Type 2</div> <div></div> <div>Monomicrobial</div> <div>• Group A β-hemolyticStreptococciis most common organism isolated</div> <div>• 5% of cases</div> <div>• Seen in healthy patients</div> <div>• Extremities</div> <div>Can cause infx within 24hrs of surgery</div> <div>Type 3</div> <div>Marine Vibrio vulnificus</div> <div>(gram negative rods)</div> <div>++ virulent</div> <div>• Marine exposure</div> <div>Type 4</div> <div>MRSA</div> <div></div><div><br></br></div> </div></div>
<div>RC 2012, 2011 - Distal radius; all of the following are risk factors for failure of non-op treatment except</div>
<div>A. Age > 80 </div>
<div>B. Dorsal angulation</div>
<div>C. Metaphyseal Comminution </div>
<div>D. Radial shortening</div>
B.<div><br></br></div><div><div>Mackenney, McQueen (JBJS 2006) Prediction of instability in distal radius fractures</div> <ul> <li>Patient age, metaphyseal comminution of the fracture and ulnar variance were most consistent predictors of radiographic outcome</li> <li>Dorsal angulation not found to be a significant predictor</li></ul></div>
<div>RC 2018 - Regarding clavicle fractures, all have been shown to increase nonunion rates EXCEPT?</div>
<ol> <li>Fracture displacement</li> <li>Increasing age</li> <li>Female gender</li> <li>Ipsilateral scapula fracture</li></ol>
<div><div>RC 2014, 2015 What is a risk factor for mid-shaft clavicle non-union:</div> <div>A. Scapula fracture</div> <div>B. Male</div> <div>C. Younger age</div> <div>D. Degree of displacement</div></div>
<div>RC 2018:D</div>
<div>RC 2014: D</div>
<div><br></br></div>
Pt: female, age>60<div># pattern: displacement > 1.5cm, comminution</div>
RC 2013 - What has the highest chance of a clavicle non union <ul> <li>A. proximal 1/3 clavicle</li> <li>B. Middle 1/3 clavicle</li> <li>C. Distal 1/3 clavicle lateral to CC ligaments</li> <li>D. Distal 1/3 medial to CC ligaments</li></ul>
“D. Lateral 1/3rd - medial to CC ligament (type 2)<div>(lateral to CC is often undisplaced - type 1)</div><div><br></br></div><div>Nonunion rate 28-75% but only 20-34% are symptomatic</div><div><br></br></div><div><img></img><br></br></div>”
<div>RC 2013, 12, 11 - Clavicle fracture; what is NOT indication to fix?</div>
<div>A. Grade III open</div>
<div>B. Floating Shoulder</div>
<div>C. 5 mm displaced lateral clavicle</div>
<div>D. 1.5 cm shortening</div>
<div></div>
<div>Answer: C</div>
<div><br></br></div>
Shortening >1.5-2cm<div>Displacement >100%</div><div><br></br></div><div>Open #, polytrauma, early functional recovery</div><div><br></br></div><div>Union times 16 weeks vs 24 weeks</div>
RC 2017 - 50-year-old female with 3 part proximal humerus. All are accepted methods of fixation except <ol> <li>Percutaneous pinning with C-arm imaging</li><li>Open reduction with pins and tension bands</li> <li>ORIF with a plate</li> <li>Hemi</li></ol>
b.<div><ul> <li>CRPP beneficial for 2 part, 3 part, and valgus-impacted 4 part #s</li> <li>ORIF w/ plate = obvious</li> <li>Hemi = good option</li> <li>Open reduction w/ pins and tension band? Never seen it, never mentioned in JAAOS article…</li> <li>ANSWER: B</li></ul></div>
<div>RC 2013 - What is the first priority during reconstruction of a traumatic brachial plexus injury?</div>
<ol> <li>Shoulder stability</li> <li>Wrist extension</li> <li>Protective sensation of the hand</li> <li>Elbow flexion</li></ol>
<div><b>4. elbow flexion</b></div>
<b><div><b><br></br></b></div>1- elbow flexion (MCQ 2013)</b><div>2- Shoulder abduction</div><div>3 - hand sensation</div><div>4- wrist extension/finger flexion</div><div>5- wrist flexion and finger extension</div><div>6- intrinsic hand function</div>
RC 2012 - Components of SSSC?
Glenoid<div>Coracoid</div><div>CC ligaments</div><div>Clavicle</div><div>AC ligaments</div><div>Acromion</div>
<div>RC 2013 - What is true regarding a humeral nail vs. ORIF of a humerus fracture? </div>
<div>A. Humeral nail associated with more shoulder pain </div>
<div>B. ORIF has more malunion </div>
<div>C. Radial nerve palsy is contraindication to humeral nail </div>
<div>D. Varus angulation of 15 degrees is poorly tolerated</div>
<div>A.</div>
<div><br></br></div>
Nail: higher nonunion 3-30%, higher delayed nonunion, re-op 10-40%, <b>shoulder impingement 15%</b><div>Plate: nonunion 3%, re-op 10%</div>
RC Oral - TT for radial nerve palsy?
“Wrist ext: PT -> ECRB<div>thumb ext: PL –> EPL</div><div>finger ext: FCR –> EDC</div><div><br></br></div><div><img></img> <div></div> <img></img> <img></img><br></br></div>”
RC 2017 - Picture of Type IV capitellum fracture (McKee variant), what is true? <ol> <li>The trochlea is intact</li> <li>The capitellum is intact</li> <li>An olecranon osteotomy must be done</li> <li>A direct midline anterior approach is not a good option</li></ol><div><div>RC 2016 - Which of the following is true? </div> <div>A. An olecranon osteotomy is required </div> <div>B. An anterior approach is contra-indicated </div> <div>C. The capitellum is fractured and the trochlea is intact </div> <div>D. The capitellum is intact and the trochlea is fractured</div></div><div><br></br></div><div><div>RC 2012 - Double Bubble XRAY showing coronal shear fracture of elbow. What is true</div> <ol> <li>Need to view trochlea</li> <li>Can fix from an antecubital approach</li> <li>MCL is torn</li> <li>Represents an Isolated capitellar fracture</li></ol></div>
“<div>RC 2017 - D; RC 2016 - B, RC 2012 - A</div><div><br></br></div>Type 1/4 –> ORIF with Posterior incision, lateral approach +/- medial approach or olecranon osteotomy<div><br></br></div><div><b>do not go anterior; go lateral</b></div><div><b>type 4s extend into trochlea - double bubble</b></div><div><img></img><b><br></br></b></div><div><img></img><b><br></br></b></div>”
<div>RC 2008 - After performing a radial head replacement, the elbow is still unstable when in supination. All the following are potential reasons except:</div>
<div>1 – Radial head implant is too large</div>
<div>2 – LUCL is avulsed off of lateral epicondyle</div>
<div>3 – Coranoid fracture that has not been fixed</div>
<div>4 – MCL rupture that was not recognized</div>
<div>1. RH is prob too small!</div>
<div><br></br></div>
RC 2016 - Technical Considerations for Fixing Coronoid?
-Exposure: medially, FCU split gives best visualization<div><br></br><div>-Reduction: flex elbow to reduce tension, ensure cortical read and articular read good</div><div>-Fixation: buttress plate, dorsal to volar screws, suture repair</div><div><br></br></div><div>-others: talk about algorithm for TT injury (ie can maybe fix coronoid through lateral approach with RH gone)</div></div>
RC 2014, 2012 List 3 ways to judge fragment size for RH replacement?
<div>-Clinical: assess lateral aspect of UH with and without trial head in place (<b>most sensitive)</b>; implant should be at the level of the lateral edge of coronoid (PRUJ <1mm proximal to lateral edge of coronoid), reconstruct fragments then downsize 2mm, stable through ROM<br></br></div>
<div>-X-ray: assymetry of medial UH articular (but this is bad: requires 6mm of overlengthing for this to change); cf contralateral side</div>
<div>RC 2018,2014 Which of the following is true regarding olecranon fractures:</div>
<ol> <li>A decrease in the proximal ulna dorsal angulation (PUDA) results in a decrease in elbow extension</li> <li>When performing an olecranon excision and triceps advancement for a comminuted fracture, attaching the triceps to the anterior aspect of the ulna results in increased extension strength</li> <li>It is sometimes acceptable to leave an articular gap or bone loss in severely comminuted fractures</li> <li>A tension band results in increased compressive strength at the fracture site compared to a pre-countered plate</li></ol>
<div>Answer: C</div>
<div>RC 2015, 2012 - What is the mechanism of injury in Bado I Monteggia fractures:</div>
<div>A. Forced supination</div>
<div>B. Forced pronation</div>
<div>C. Hyperextension</div>
<div>D. Fall on flexed elbow</div>
” <div> <div>B. hyperpronation</div><div><br></br></div><div>remember: type 2 has a posterior RH (think of supination pushing the RH out the back like in PLRI). so type 1 = anterior RH = forced pronation</div><div><img></img></div><div>Note: monteggia assx with 20% risk of PIN injury</div> </div>”
RC 2018 -<div>(1) What is the superficial muscle interval of the Henry approach to the distal radius?</div><div>(2) What neurovascular structures will you encounter in the middle and distal portions of this approach?</div><div>(3)Volar muscles to elevate off radius for plating?</div>
“<ul> <li>What is the superficial muscle interval of the Henry approach to the distal radius?</li> <ul> <li>Distal: FCR (median) and brachioradialis (radial)</li> <li>Prox: PT (median) and BR (radial)</li> <li><img></img></li> </ul> </ul> <div></div> <ul> <li>What neurovascular structures will you encounter in the middle and distal portions of this approach?</li> <ul> <li>Proximal: PIN</li> <ul> <li>Supinate to incise supinator and protect PIN</li> </ul> </ul> </ul> <div><img></img></div> <div></div> <ul> <li>Middle: Superficial radial nerve, radial artery</li> <ul> <li>Pronate to take off PT</li> <li><img></img></li> </ul> <li>Distal: palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve, radial artery</li> <ul> <li><img></img></li> </ul> <li></li> </ul> <ul> <li>What 4 muscles must be taken/dissected off or divided to place a plate along the entire length of the volar radius?</li> <ul> <li>PQ, FPL, PT, FDS, supinator</li> <li><img></img></li> </ul> <li>When working in the proximal third of this approach, what nerve will you need to protect?</li> <ul> <li>PIN</li> <ul> <li><img></img></li> </ul> </ul></ul><div></div>”
<div>RC 2018 - Regarding the volar henry approach:</div>
<ul> <li>What is the superficial muscle interval of the Henry approach to the distal radius?</li><li><div>What neurovascular structures will you encounter in the middle and distal portions of this approach?</div></li><li><div><div>What 4 muscles must be taken/dissected off or divided to place a plate along the entire length of the volar radius?</div></div></li><li><div><div>When working in the proximal third of this approach, what nerve will you need to protect?</div></div></li></ul>
“<div><div><ul> <li>What is the superficial muscle interval of the Henry approach to the distal radius?</li> <ul> <li>Distal: FCR (median) and brachioradialis (radial)</li> <li>Prox: PT (median) and BR (radial)</li> <li><img></img></li> </ul> </ul> <div></div> <ul> <li>What neurovascular structures will you encounter in the middle and distal portions of this approach?</li> <ul> <li>Middle: Superficial radial nerve, radial artery</li> <ul> <li><img></img></li> </ul> <li>Distal: palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve, radial artery</li> <ul> <li><img></img></li> </ul> </ul> <li>What 4 muscles must be taken/dissected off or divided to place a plate along the entire length of the volar radius?</li> <ul> <li>PQ, FPL, PT, FDS, supinator</li> <li><img></img></li> </ul> <li>When working in the proximal third of this approach, what nerve will you need to protect?</li> <ul> <li>PIN</li> <ul> <li><img></img></li> </ul> </ul></ul></div></div>”
RC 2018 - RFs for synostosis after BBFA # and tx?
<div>injury: proximal, comminution, same level, large soft tissue injury, disruption of IOM, head injury</div>
<div>surgical: delay in tx >4weeks, single approach (Boyd), disruption of IOM (dissection, hardware, bony fragments), primary bone grafting</div>
<div><br></br></div>
<div>Treatment:</div>
<div>-operative(resection): anconeus or free fat interposition</div>
<div>-post-op: 700cGy radiation, Indomethacin 25 TID</div>
RC 2015 - Which of the following is not normal for distal radius <div> a. Ulnar variance -1mm</div> <div> b. Ulnar variance +1mm</div> <div> c. volar tilt 11 degrees</div> d. radial inclination of 18 degrees
<div>Answer: D</div>
<div><br></br></div>
<div>Normal parameters</div>
AP: radial height 12mm, <i>radial inclination 22 deg</i>, ulnar neutral (range -4 to +2)<div>Lat: volar inclication 11 deg, SL 45 deg</div><div><br></br></div><div><div> <div>View</div> <div>Measurement</div> <div>Normal</div> <div>Acceptable criteria</div> <div>AP</div> <div>Radial height</div> <div>13mm</div> <div>< 5mm shortening</div> <div></div> <div></div> <div>Radial inclination</div> <div>23°</div> <div>change < 5°</div> <div></div> <div></div> <div>Articular stepoff</div> <div>congruous</div> <div>< 2 mm stepoff</div> <div></div> <div>Lateral</div> <div>Volar tilt</div> <div>11°</div> <div>dorsal angulation < 5° or within20° of contralateral distal radius</div> <div></div> </div></div><div><br></br></div>
RC 2018, 2014 - After a distal radius fracture, a patient sustains a rupture of the EPL. What deficit will they have? <ol> <li>Thumb IP extension only</li> <li>Thumb IP extension and pronation</li> <li>Thumb IP extension and abduction</li> <li>Thumb IP extension and adduction</li></ol><div><div></div> <div>RC 2018, 2016 - Wrist 6 months post-ORIF. Patient returns unable to extend thumb DIP. What is the NEXT best step?</div> <ol> <li>Tendon transfer EIP to EPL</li> <li>Tendon transfer FDS to EPL</li> <li>Nerve conduction studies</li> <li>Thumb IP Joint Fusion</li></ol></div>
<div>A. Most common time period after a distal radius fracture for EPL rupture is 8 weeks after injury.</div>
<div>A.EIP is <i>ulnar to EDC</i></div>
RC 2018 -Regarding tension band wiring, all are true EXCEPT? <div>a.The medial malleolus is an example of a dynamic tension band</div> <div>b.Tension band wire can neutralize tensile forces, and in fact can convert them in compression forces with joint flexion</div> <div>c.A plate on the tension side of bone can act as a tension band</div> d.Using it on the tension side of a bone will lead to compression on the opposite cortex
<div>Answer: A</div>
<div><br></br></div>
-TBW can neutralize tensile forces and convert them to compressive forces at joint in flexion<div>-Plate on tension side can act as tension band</div><div>-medial mal tension band is considered <b>static (not dynamic) -</b> forces of fracture after applicaiton remain fairly constant</div><div><b><br></br></b></div>
RC 2018 - A 17 year old male is seen following an injury he sustained. After see his MRI (below), what is the recommended treatment? (the MRI shows root avulsion C8/T1) <div>a.Tendon transfers</div> <div>b.Nerve repair</div> <div>c.Neurotization</div> <div>d.Shoulder arthrodesis</div>
-<b>nerve transfer (neurotization) </b>should be done within 18 months for viability of motor end plate<div>-tendon transfer is back up for c8-t1</div><div>-cant do nerve repair (pre-ganglionic)</div>
RC 2018, 15, 12 - Open Fracture in Water tx?
-<b>delayed wound closure</b><div>-Fresh Water (Tx: FQ -<b>ciproflox)</b>: <b>Staph</b>, Vibrio, Aeromonas Hydrophilia (fresh air), Pseudomonas</div><div>-Salt water (Tx: doxy): mycobacterium marinum, clostridium</div>
<div>RC 2011 - Regarding compartment syndrome which will NOT help treat acute compartment syndrome:</div>
<div>A. Transfusing to keep HGB greater than 100</div>
<div>B. fixing hypotension</div>
<div>C. Giving O2 by mask</div>
<div>D. Cutting all circumferential dressings and casts</div>
<div>c.</div>
<div><br></br></div>
emergent fasciotomy<div>transfusion for Hb>100</div><div>fixing hypotension</div><div>cutting casts</div><div><b>not giving O2 by mask (MCQ )</b></div>
RC 2015, 2010 Leadbetter Maneuver?
“FATI CABE<div>-flexion, adduction, Traction and IR hip</div><div>-Circumduction, ABduction, extension of hip while maintaining IR</div><div><img></img><br></br></div>”
RC 2015, 2013, 2010 What are three radiographic factors indicate adequate reduction of a displaced femoral neck?
“<div>-Standard parameters: Displacement <2mm, <5 deg angulation</div><div>-Specific parameters: Lovell’s lines (gentle S), Garden alignment index (>160 on AP, 180 on lat)</div><div>-‘overall impression’</div><div><br></br></div><div>-open approach - direct visualization<br></br></div>”
<div>RC 2014, 2012 - List 5 factors that increase the 30 day morbidity of a patient with a hip fracture</div>
Nottingham score (SAQ):<div>Age>65, >80</div><div>Male</div><div>Institutionalized<br></br></div><div>PMHX: MMSE<6, anemic (Hb<100), >2 comorbidities, malignancy</div><div><br></br></div><div>score >5 = high risk = 86% 30 day survival , 54% 1 year</div><div><br></br></div><div>Note:Current in-hospital mortality rates are approximately 6%, while 1-year mortality rates depending on the study are found to be between 20-30%</div>
RC 2013, 12 Elderly person suffers a Garden 3-4 fracture of the femoral neck. Concerning all arthroplasty (Hemi and THA) compared to fixation which of the following is NOT true? <div>A. Functional outcomes are better for arthroplasty</div> <div>B. Mortality is greater for fixation </div> <div>C. Revision is greater for fixation</div> <div>D. Blood loss is less for fixation</div>
<div><b>Answer: B.</b><b>increased early mortality for THA</b></div>
<div>THA has better fxnal outcome</div>
<div>fixation - less blood loss, greater risk of revision surgery</div>
<div>RC 2014 - The medial femoral circumflex travels anterior to all of the following except:</div>
<ol> <li>Obturator Internus</li> <li>Obturator externus</li> <li>Superior gemellus</li> <li>Inferior gemellus</li></ol>
“B.<div><br></br></div><div><img></img><br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div><img></img><br></br></div>”
<div>RC 2015 - In a severely displaced femoral neck fracture, what blood supply to the femoral head is likely preserved?</div>
<div> a. Medial femoral circumflex</div>
<div> b. Lateral femoral circumflex</div>
<div> c. Retinacular vessels</div>
<div> d. Obturator</div>
D<div><div>Supplies the artery of the ligamentum teres, has minimal blood supply to the head in adults, but the vessels running up the neck are disrupted in displaced femoral neck fractures</div></div>
RC 2011 - Clinical Features of varus malunion femoral neck # (list 4)?
<div>Pain, decreased walking distance</div>
Trendelenberg sign (Abductor weakness)<div>LLD, difference in rotation</div><div>prominent GT - bursitis</div><div>decreased ROM</div><div>Obligate external ROM with flexion (impingement)</div>
<div>RC Exam 2012: When performing a valgus intertrochanteric osteotomy and bone grafting for a nonunion of a femoral neck fracture in a 40 year old, all of the following are true, except?</div>
<div>A. Need to medialize the shaft as much as possible </div>
<div>B. It is best to leave at least 2 cm between entry point of blade plate and osteotomy </div>
<div>C. Aiming for angulation of fracture line to horizontal of 20-30 degrees </div>
<div>D. There is a high union rate but a limp persists</div>
<div>Answer: A</div>
<div><br></br></div>
-<b>Lateralize shaft</b>(VaLgus = Lateral) - MCQ 2012<div>-angle goal is 20-30 deg from horizontal</div><div>-leave 2cm between blade and osteotomy</div><div>-high union rate, but limp may persist</div>
RC 2017, 2013 - List 3 strategies for avoiding varus in subtroch?
-position: lateral to allow flexion, abd, IR<div>-Nail start point: medial or piriformis entry</div><div>-Closed reduction: crutch, cobb, F-tool</div><div>-Perc reduction: Schanz pin into neck, linea</div><div>-Open reduction: clamps, wires, unicortical plate</div><div>-Reaming: medial!</div>
<div>RC 2012 Inter-troch fractures. All are true EXCEPT</div>
<div>A. decreased failure with Tip to apex < 25 mm</div>
<div>B. decreased failure with 150 degree DHS</div>
<div>C. decreased failure with females</div>
<div>D. Fracture pattern</div>
<div>Answer: B</div>
<div>RFs for failure</div>
Tip Apex Distance > 25mm<div>Unstable fracture pattern</div><div>Poor reduction</div><div><b>150 degree DHS (MCQ 2012)</b></div><div>Superior and anterior/posterior screw placements (ie. Peripheral placements?) Older patient age (not associated in some)<br></br></div>
RC 2011 - Adv/Disadv for piriformis vs GT start nails?
Piriformis<div><b>-Adv (SAQ 2011):</b> less varus malunion, colinear trajectory with shaft, decrease risk of GT blowout</div><div>-Disadv: more difficult start point, less forgiving in A to P plane, risk of iatrogenic fem neck fracture, decreased blood supply to fem head in peds, increased dissection</div><div><br></br></div><div>GT</div><div>-adv: easier start point, less soft tissue damage</div><div>-disavantage: increase risk of varus malalignment, increase risk of fracture comminution (b/c you direct nail medially), GT blow out</div>
RC 2017, 2016, 2015 - Radiographic Strategies to determine femoral rotation during nailing shaft fracture?
“-cortical step sign, width<div>-LT profile</div><div>-Tornetta technique (True anteversion angle), perfect lateral</div><div><br></br></div><div>Others: prep other limb to determine clinical rotation, intrinsic nail values, post-op CT</div><div><br></br></div><div><ul> <li>Tornetta Technique (1995): True anteversion angle. Anteversion determined off c-arm angles for perfect lateral of proximal femur and knee of non-injured limb, recreate with rotation of distal femur to match.</li> <ul> <li>Results in rotational discrepancy under 8 degrees</li> <li>Most reliable</li> </ul> </ul> <div><img></img></div> <div>Figure 1. true anteversion angle. c-arm is used to obtain a true lateral of the normal femoral neck and then rotated until the posterior aspect of the condyles lines up. Difference between these angles is the true anteversion angle (angle A)</div> <div><img></img></div> <div>Figure 2. Nail has been placed and locked proximally. c-arm is used to obtain a true lateral of the femoral neck. Current degree of anteversion is represented by angle B. In this example, the femur has an IR deformity.</div> <div><img></img></div> <div>Figure 3. c-arm is internally rotated to reproduce the correct anteversion for this patient, as measured on the normal side (angle A), and it is moved to the knee. T<b>he surgeon now stabilizes the proximal fracture fragment by holding the locking jig while an assistant rotates the distal fragment via the traction pin or foot holder (arrow</b>). Distal fragment is rotated until the posterior aspect of the condyles line up perfectly on the image.</div> <div><img></img></div> <div>Figure 4. Patient’s normal anteversion (angle A) has now been restored, and distal locking can be done by instrument protocol.</div></div>”
RC 2017 - Design features of reamers to decrease IM pressure during nailing?
<div><div><ol> <li>Sharp reamers</li> <li>Deeper reaming flutes</li> </ol><ul> <li>Shallower flutes get clogged and act like a piston</li> </ul> <li>Longer reamer heads</li> <li>Small diameter of reamer drive shaft</li> <li>Suction/irrigation reamer (RIA)</li> <li>Angled reamers (vs blunt reamers)</li> <li>smaller reamer sizes – this may be due to smaller reamer drive shaft diameter</li> <li>Technical point = faster reamer advancement and non-forceful advancement</li> <li>Distal vent hole</li></div></div>
<div><div>RC 2014, 2012. List 4 complications associated with the hemi-lithotomy position and the fracture table when nailing a midshaft femur fracture</div></div>
<ul><li><div>Complications</div></li><ul><li><div>Malunion - rotational, angular</div></li><li><div>Non-union - <10%</div></li><li><div>LLD - 43% if comminuted</div></li><li><div>Infection - 1-3.8%</div></li><li><div>Well leg compartment syndrome - hemilithotomy</div></li><li><div>HO</div></li><li><div>Pudendal Nerve palsy - Most common symptoms are pain, numbness</div></li><ul><li><div>Can get incontinence and altered ejaculation</div></li></ul><li><div>Femoral Nerve - AP locking screw in retrograde nail (lock prox to LT to prevent)</div></li><li><div>Vascular injury</div></li><li><div><b>Erectile dysfunction 40% (mcq 2018)</b></div></li><ul><li><div>Mallet R, Tricoire JL, Rischmann P, Sarramon JP, Puget J, Malavaud B. High prevalence of erectile dysfunction in young male patients after intramedullary femoral nailing. Urology. 2005;65(3):559-563.</div></li></ul></ul></ul>
<ul><ul><ul><li><div>Recommendations : Surgical time and/or traction time should be minimized.When surgical</div></li></ul></ul></ul>
<div>time exceeds 120 minutes, intraoperative</div>
<div>traction should be released.</div>
<div>It has been shown that tissue</div>
<div>pressures of 70 mm Hg applied for</div>
<div>120 minutes result in microscopic</div>
<div>tissue damage.42 This idea is further</div>
<div>validated by the knowledge that</div>
<div>tourniquet times are commonly limited</div>
<div>to 120 minutes. Periodic release</div>
<div>of traction is required when traction</div>
<div>is prolonged</div>
RC 2013 - advantages of locking plate over DCS for DF #s?
Better fixation in osteoporotic/comminuted bone (multiple points of fixation)<div>Ability to control multiple fracture fragments</div><div>Anatomic contour helps with reduction of joint</div><div>Biomechanically superior in cyclic load and ultimate strength</div><div>Preserves more distal bone stock</div><div>Less soft tissue stripping<br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div>Note: COTS 2016 - LISS vs DCS</div><div>-LISS: 52% healed without intervention, failures 28%, revisions 7/22</div><div>DCS: 91% healed, failures 12.5%, revisions 2/22</div>
<div>RC 2014 - For a 95 degree distal femoral locking plate, where should the first guidewire go?</div>
<div>A. Parallel to the joint line, proximal to Blumensaat’s line</div>
<div>B. Parallel to the joint line, distal to Blumensaat’s line</div>
<div>C. Perpendicular to the femoral shaft, proximal to Blumensaat’s line</div>
<div>D. Perpendicular to the femoral shaft, distal to Blumensaat’s line</div>
“A.<div><br></br><div>-parallel to joint line, proximal to Blumensaat’s</div><div><img></img><br></br></div></div>”
RC 2013, 11, 10 - LIst 8 Parameters to consider in a trauma patient for DCO vs Early total care
“<b><u>Physiologic Factors</u></b><div>-MAP>60</div><div>-HR<100</div><div>-U/O>0.5cc/kg/hr</div><div>-PaO2/FiO2>300</div><div>-Temp>35</div><div><br></br></div><div><b><u>Acidosis Factors</u></b></div><div><i>-Lactate<2.5</i></div><div><i>-BE N= -2 to +2 (do not want >6-8) *best as per MCQ 2015</i></div><div>-pH>7.25</div><div>-gastric mucosal pH>7.3</div><div><br></br></div><div><b><u>Coag Factors</u></b></div><div>-Plts>90</div><div>-Fibrinogen>1</div><div>-low D-dimer, PTT</div><div><br></br></div><div><b><u>Conceptual framework: SSCC</u></b></div><div>-soft tissue: extremity, chest, abdo</div><div>-shock</div><div>-cold: low temp</div><div>-coag</div><div><br></br></div><div><br></br></div>”
RC 2014, 11 - List 4 signs of Class 4 hypovolemic shock?
“-BL >2000cc (40% blood volume)<div>-decreased BP</div><div>-decrease PP</div><div>-HR>140</div><div>-U/O - none</div><div>-MS: comatose</div><div>-RR>35</div><div><br></br></div><div><img></img><br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div>MASSIVE TF protocol: 1:1:1 pRBC: plts:plasma</div>”
RC 2017, 16, 15 - 8 Xray signs of traumatic aortic rupture?
“<div><b><u>Stay organized! - aorta, trachea, esophagus, lungs, pleura, fractures</u></b></div><div><b><u><br></br></u></b></div><div><b><u>Findings from loss of aortic arch</u></b></div>-Widened mediastinum (more than 8cm)<div>-Obliteration of aortic knob i.e. Disuption of the calcium ring of the aortic knob (broken halo sign)</div><div>-Loss of outline of the descending aorta</div><div>-Loss of the aorto pulmonary window (the space between the pulmonary artery and the aorta)</div><div>-Widened paraspinal interfaces (this the line on xray that outlines the aorta on either side of the spine) <div></div> <div><b><u>Trachea and esophageal findings:</u></b></div>-Trachea deviated to right</div><div>-Deviation of the esophagus (or NG tube) to the right of the T4 spinous process (more than 1-2cm)</div><div>-Widened paratracheal stripe <div></div> <div></div> <div><b><u>Intra-pulmonary and chest wall findings:</u></b></div>-Presence of a left apical cap (indicates an apical pleural hematoma)</div><div>-Left hemothroax</div><div>-Depression of left mainstem bronchus of lung (more than 40 degrees)</div><div>-Elevation of right mainstem bronchus</div><div>-Fractures of the first or second rib or scapula<br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div><div> <div> <div><img></img></div> </div></div></div>”
RC 2017, 2014 - List 4 major and 4 minor criteria of FES?
<div><u>DX:</u> 2 maj + 1 min or 1 maj + 4 min</div>
<u>Major = cope = coma, oxygen, petechial rash, edema</u><div>-CNS depression</div><div>-Resp: Hypoxemia, pulm edema</div><div>-derm: petechial rash</div><div><br></br></div><div><u>Minor = FPRTTD</u></div><div>-fat in urine</div><div>-pyrexia</div><div>-retinal emboli</div><div>-tachycardia</div><div>-thrombocytopenia</div><div>-decrease hct</div><div><br></br></div><div>Tx: supportive, ICU, maybe steroids (no mortality benefit)</div>
<div>RC 2012 - A patient presents with a distal pole patella fracture with displacement and comminution. The patient has a large hemarthrosis and extensor mechanism disruption. What is the best treatment option?</div>
<div>A. Complete patellectomy</div>
<div>B. ORIF maintaining all fragments</div>
<div>C. Partial patellectomy with repair to posterior patella </div>
<div>D. Inferior pole patellectomy with repair to anterior patella</div>
<div><b>B.</b></div>
<b><div><b><br></br></b></div>ORIF (</b>is better than partial patellectomy)<div>If resecting, then put patellar tendon anteriorly (Reduces contact stresses)</div><div><br></br></div><div><ol> <li>Vaselko M (JBJS 2005) Inferior Patellar Pole Avulsion Fractures: Osteosynthesis Compared with Pole Resection</li> </ol><ul> <li>Retrospective review of 14 vs 11 fractures</li> <li>Average patellofemoral score better in internal fixation group than resection with patellar ligament repair (94 vs 81)</li> <li>Normal patellar height in 10/11 ORIFs, 3/13 tendon advancements</li> </ul> <div></div> <ol> <li>JAAOS 2011 - Patellar Fractures in Adults</li> </ol><ul> <li>Partial Patellectomy and Inferior Pole Fracture</li> <ul> <li>Saltzman et al, Marder et all found that reattachment of the patellar tendon to the anterior surface of the remaining patella - which most resembles the native anatomy-substantially minimized contact stresses</li> <li>Saltzman –> 40 patients with partial patellectomy</li> <ul> <li>78% good or excellent, quads strength 85%</li> </ul> <li>Bostman –> poor outcomes if >40% of patella removed</li> <li>Marder –> increased PF contact forces with patellectomy</li> </ul> </ul></div>
<div>RC 2017 - Which defect filler will have the least subsidence with tibial plateau fractures?</div>
<ol> <li>Calcium sulfate</li> <li>Calcium phosphate</li> <li>Iliac crest autograft</li> <li>Cancellous allograft</li></ol>
b. Ca PO4<div>(equivalent union rates to iliac crest)</div>
<div>RC 2015, 2011 Regarding fixation of a tibial plateau fracture, which is true?</div>
<div> a. Locking plates have better outcomes and less complications than non-locking plates</div>
<div> b. Locking plates have better outcomes and more complications than non-locking plates</div>
<div> c. Locking plates have equal outcomes and less complications than non-locking plates</div>
<div> d. Locking plates have equal outcomes and equal complications as non-locking plates</div>
D. equivalent outcomes and complications
<div>RC 2013 Proximal tibia fracture. What has the lowest rate of ligament injury</div>
<div>A. Bicondylar</div>
<div>B. Lateral joint depression</div>
<div>C. Lateral joint split</div>
<div>D. Lateral joint split depression</div>
C. Lateral joint split (Schatzker 1) - least energy (MCQ 2013)
<div>RC 2016 Tibial external fixator is placed. In converting to definitive treatment all of the following are acceptable EXCEPT: </div>
<div>A. 2 weeks convert to IM nail </div>
<div>B. 2 weeks convert to plate </div>
<div>C. 5 weeks, curettage pin sites, IM nail </div>
<div>D. 5 weeks, curettage pin sites, delayed IM nail</div>
<div>C.</div>
<div><br></br></div>
If >28 days, then remove ex-fix, curretage pin sites and delay IMN or plate<div>PIN SITE HOLIDAY</div><div>MCQ 2016</div>
RC 2018, 2015, 2012 - List 5 intra-op techniques to aid reduction of proximal tibial shaft fracture when nailing?
-position: semi-extended<div>-approach: supra-patellar</div><div>-start point: lateral</div><div>-perc: blocking screws, femoral distractor</div><div>-open: unicortical plate</div><div>-nail: increased Herzog angle (or more proximal)</div>
RC 2018 - 3 tibial fracture patterns that increase risk of distal ankle injury?
<ul> <li>A spiral pattern tibia fracture</li> <li>A distal one-third tibial shaft fracture location, </li> <li>Spiral pattern fibula fracture </li> <ul> <li></li> <li>JOT 2014 - Predictive Radiographic Markers for Concomitant Ipsilateral Ankle Injuries in Tibial Shaft Fractures</li> <li>Thirty-five of 71 (49.3%) tibial shaft fracture patients had a concomitant ipsilateral ankle injury. Of these, 31 (88.6%) ankle injuries occurred in patients with a spiral pattern tibia fracture of the distal third diaphysis (P , 0.001).</li> </ul></ul>
<div>RC 2013, 2015 In a grade IIIA open tibia fracture, which of the following is true?</div>
<div> a. Delayed closure results in decreased wound complications</div>
<div> b. Delayed closure results in increased wound complications</div>
<div> c. Delayed closure results in decreased infection</div>
<div> d. Delayed closure results in increased infection</div>
<div><b><u>D.</u></b></div>
<b><u>increased infection </u></b>(MCQ 2013, 2015)<div><div><br></br></div>Primary Closure - 3% infection</div><div>Delayed Closure - 17% infection<br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div>JBJS 2014 Delayed Wound Closure Increases Deep Infection Rates Associated with Lower-Grade Open Fracture<br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div><div>Bhattacharyya (Plast Reconstr Surg 2008)</div> 12.5% infection for <7 days, 57% > 7 days<br></br></div>
<div>RC 2013, 12 “Type II” open tibia treated with bmp 2 at definitive procedure. What is NOT true? (These are the answers we were given; absolutely they meant type II open)</div>
<div>A. Lower rate of subsequent bone grafting procedures</div>
<div>B. Lower rate of subsequent soft tissue procedures</div>
<div>C. Higher infection</div>
<div>D. Lower infection</div>
<div>C</div>
-<b>lower infx (NOT higher)</b><div>-lower rate of subsequent bone grafting</div><div>-lower rate of subsequent soft tissue procedures</div><div><br></br></div><div><div>Govender S (JBJS 2002) Recombinant human BMP-2 for treatment of open tibial fracture</div> <ul> <li>94% follow up at 2 years (unreamed nail)</li> <li>BMP-2 group:</li> <ul> <li>44% reduction in risk of failure</li> <ul> <li>secondary intervention because of delayed union</li> </ul> <li>Fewer intervention</li> <li>Faster fracture healing</li> <li>Fewer hardware failures</li> <li>Fewer infections (type IIIA/B injuries)</li> <li>Faster wound healing</li> </ul></ul></div>
<div>RC 2016 - Proximal tibia fracture. Where do you place your blocking screws to prevent deformity?</div>
<div>A. Anterior and medial</div>
<div>B. Anterior and lateral</div>
<div>C. Posterior and medial</div>
<div>D. Posterior and lateral</div>
“<div>D.</div><div>At risk of valgus and procurvatum</div><div><br></br></div><div><ul> <li>Aids to reduction:</li> <ul> <li>Nail in extension</li> <li>Blocking screws</li> <ul> <li>Increase strength and rigidity of fixation</li> <li>Place on concave side of deformity</li> </ul> <li>Lateralize start point</li> <li>Increase Herzog angle</li> <li>Unicortical Plate at the fracture site</li> </ul></ul></div><div><img></img> <img></img><br></br></div>”
<div>RC 2015 - What is a described complication of antegrade nailing a proximal femur fracture using a lateral entry nail</div>
<div>A. varus malunion</div>
<div>B. valgus malunion</div>
<div>C. increased disruption of femoral head blood supply</div>
<div>D. Increased hoop stresses and fracture</div>
A.
RC 2012 - List 4 principles of managing pilon excluding soft tissue?
“<div>LENGTH, ALIGNMENT, (ROTATION)</div>-reduce/fix fibula for length<div>-correct varus/valgus tibia</div><div>-ligamentotaxis to reduce anterolateral and posterior fragments</div><div>-anatomically reduce and fix articular block</div><div>-autologous bone grafting of metaphyseal defect</div><div>-buttress plating to prevent angulation</div>”
<div>RC 2014 - A patient suffers an open pilon fracture. You are shown an x-ray with a huge piece of the medial malleolus and distal articular surface. They tell you it is devoid of soft tissue attachment. How do you manage this patient?</div>
<ul> <li>A. Autoclave and reimplant</li> <li>B. Send to the bone bank for later reimplantation</li> <li>C. Discard</li> <li>D. Clean thoroughly and reimplant</li></ul>
D. clean thoroughly and re-implant<div><br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div><div>Van Winkle, on the other hand, advocated chlorhexidene lavage and antibiotic emersion as a 100% effective method of clearing microbial contamination. Case reports of total talar extrusion have succeeded with reimplantation through various techniques. Assal et al reported no infection with use of pulsatile normal saline lavage and emergent reimplantation. Smith reported on 27 cases of talar extrusion, all with use of Bacitracin baths and reimplantation. They averaged 6.7 hours before operative debridement and had one infection.</div></div>
RC 2017 - 5 indications for amputations after trauma? 2017 SAQ/CORF
“Near or complete amputation at presentation<div>-Complete anatomic disruption of tibial nerve</div><div>-Irreparable vascular injury</div><div>Crush injury w/ > 6 hrs warm ischemic time</div><div>Serious associated polytrauma</div><div>Severe ipsilateral foot trauma</div><div>Anticipated protracted reconstructive course<br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div>MESS score (not predictive in LEAP study)</div><div><img></img><br></br></div>”
RC 2016, 2013 - List 3 xray findings of syndesmosis injury?
“<div>clear space >6mm (AP/mortise) is ABNORMAL</div><div>overlap <6mm (AP) or <1mm (mortise) is ABNORMAL</div><div>medial clear space >6mm</div><div>PM fracture</div><div>—</div><div><br></br></div><div>AP Normal: overlap >6mm on AP, clear space <6mm</div><div>AP injury: overlap <6mm on AP, clear space >6mm</div><div><br></br></div><div>Mort Normal: overlap >1mm, clear space <6mm</div><div>Mort injury: NO overlap, clear space >6mm</div><div><br></br></div><div><br></br></div>AP: overlap>6mm, clear space<6mm<div>Mo: overlap>1mm, clear space<6mm, med clear space<6mm</div><div>Lat: avulsion off post mal</div><div>other: proximal spiral fibula fracture</div><div><img></img><br></br></div><div><br></br></div>”
<div>RC 2018, 2014 - What is the most common fracture associated with a talar neck fracture?</div>
<ol> <li>Medial malleolus</li> <li>Fibula</li> <li>Calcaneus</li> <li>Lisfranc</li></ol>
1.<div><div>In a study by Hawkins,8 15 of 57 patients (26%) had associated fractures of the medial malleolus.</div><div><br></br></div><div>Canale and Kelly9 found that 11 of 71 pa- tients (15%) with fractures of the talar neck had associated fractures of the medial and lateral malleoli (10 and 1, respectively).</div><div><br></br></div><div><br></br></div></div>
<div>RC 2016, 2013 - All of the following are true regarding a Hawkin’s sign following a talar neck fracture, except: </div>
<ol> <li>It is a radiolucent line underneath the subchondral surface on xray</li> <li>It is useful as evaluation for vascularity of the talus</li> <li>It usually shows up at 3 weeks post injury</li> <li>It is caused by osteopenia from bone resorption.</li></ol>
<div>C.</div>
<div><br></br></div>
-evidence of preserved vascularity of talus<div>-radiolucency in subchondral bone (caused by osteopenia from bone resorption)</div><div><b>-6-8 weeks after #</b></div>
RC 2017 - Patient comes in with a talar dislocation, after anterolateral and anteromedial incisions you are still unable to reduce the talus. What is the next step?<ol> <ol> <li>Fibular osteotomy</li> <li>Medial malleolar osteotomy</li> <li>Inline traction</li> <li>Femoral Distractor</li> </ol></ol>
“4.<div><br></br></div><div>old answer: 2. MM osteotomy</div><div><ul> <li>Rockwood’s:</li> <ul> <li>Mentions distractor, and no mention of osteotomy</li> <li>Additional traction, if needed, can be performed with a Schanz pin or a mini-distractor. Associated osteochondral fragments are debrided.</li> </ul> <li>JAAOS on talar neck fracture said medial mal osteotomy should be last resort. First step after open reduction should include using shxantz pins and universal distractor)</li></ul></div>”
RC 2017, 2012 Talar neck goes onto <u> </u>malunion, best seen on <u> </u>xray. treatment may include <u> </u>given the affected <u> </u>motion<div><br></br></div><div>RC MCQ Young patient has talar neck fracture that is fixed but goes on the malunion, what is true:<div><ol> <ol> <li>Subtalar motion will not be affected</li> <li>AP radiograph is best for seeing it</li> <li>Varus Malunion</li> <li>Osteotomy is contra-indicated</li> </ol></ol></div></div>
“<b>varus malunion</b><div>Canale Xray - 15 deg inverted, 15 deg from vertical</div><div>Osteotomy (if no arthrosis)</div><div>subtalar motion is abnormal!</div><div><br></br></div><div><img></img><br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div>Answer: 3</div>”
RC EXAM - A 35-year-old woman is involved in a head-on collision while driving and suffers a Hawkings 3 talus. Injury to what vessel increases the risk for osteonecrosis of the injured bone? <div>1- Dorsalis pedis artery</div> <div>2- PerforaFng peroneal artery </div> <div>3- Lateral tarsal artery</div> <div>4- Artery of the tarsal canal</div> <div>5- Artery of the tarsal sinus</div>
“4 - Tarsal canal (From the post tib)<div><img></img><img></img><br></br></div><div><br></br></div>”
RC 2016 - Canale view position?
“<div>FOR TALAR NECK FRACTURE</div>casette under PF foot<div>15 deg pronation</div><div>15 deg from vertical (Tube at 75 deg from horizontal)</div><div><br></br></div><div><img></img><br></br></div>”
<div>RC 2018, 2014, 2012 - A patient with a lateral subtalar dislocation, what is a block to reduction?</div>
<ol> <li>Tib ant</li> <li>FHL</li> <li>EHL</li> <li>TN capsule</li></ol>
<div><div>RC 2018, 2015, 2013 - What is a block to reduction in a medial subtalar dislocation:</div> <ol> <li>FHL</li> <li>TN capsule</li> <li>FDL</li> <li>Talar body impaction fracture</li></ol></div>
<div><div>ANSWER - B </div><div>ANSWER - B</div> <div>Lateral - its the (postero-) medial structures:</div><div>-tom dick and nervous harry</div><div>-Tib post</div><div>-<b>FHL</b>(MCQ 2012, 2014,2016)</div><div>-FDL</div></div>
<div><br></br></div>
Medial - its the lateral structures:<div>-Boney: Talar head fracture, navicular #</div><div>-soft-tissue: <b>TN capsule (MCQ 13,15,18)</b>, extensor retinaculum, EDB, peroneals, NVB</div><div><br></br></div><div><ul> <li>Associated fractures (Bibbo C (FAI 2003))</li> <ul> <li>Medial:</li> <ul> <li>Dorsomedial talar head</li> <li>Posterior tubercle of talus</li> <li>Lateral Navicular</li> </ul> <li>Lateral:</li> <ul> <li>Cuboid</li> <li>Anterior calcaneus</li> <li>Lateral process of talus</li> <li>Lateral mal (Fibula)</li> </ul> </ul></ul></div>
<div>RC Exam 2012, 2015 - What is the most important part of your surgical plan in a depressed calcaneal fracture?</div>
<div><div> a. Build off the sustentaculum</div> <div> b. Elevate joint with graft or substitute</div> <div> c. Must use locking plate</div> <div> d. Must use two approaches</div></div>
A. Build off sustentaculum
<div>RC 2018 - Regarding ligamentous lisfranc injuries, what has the best outcomes in terms of patient pain (yes, they said pain)?</div>
<ol> <li>Midfoot arthrodesis</li> <li>ORIF</li> <li>Casting</li> <li>CRPP</li></ol>
<b>A.</b>Better pain management with arthrodesis for primary ligamentous regardless of age
<div>RC 2016, 13, 11, 10 List 4 radiographic features you study when assessing for Lis Franc injury? </div>
AP<div>-disruption of medial 2nd MT and medial cuneiform</div><div>-diastasis between MT1 and MT2</div><div>-flec sign (avulsion of 2nd MT or med cuneiform)</div><div><br></br></div><div>Oblique</div><div>-disruption of medial MT4 and medial cuboid</div><div><div>-disruption of medial column line (line tangential to the medial aspect of the navicular and the medial cuneiform)</div></div><div><br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div>Lateral</div><div>-collapse of mid arch (cant see MT5 base from medial cuneiform collapse)</div>