H&W - RC Q's Flashcards
RC 2016 - Compression sites for ulnar nerve
“<div>Arcade of Struthers<br></br></div><div>Medial IM Septum (reccurent ulnar neuropathy)</div><div>Cubital Tunnel-Medial Epicondyle/osboure lig</div><div>FCU heads</div><div>FDS arch/aponeurosis</div><div>Anconeus epitrochlearis</div><div>Guyon’s canal</div>”
<div>RC 2018 - Which of the following is associated with ulnocarpal impaction</div>
<div>a.Kienbocks</div>
<div>b.VISI</div>
<div>c.DISI</div>
<div>d.ECU subluxation</div>
B. VISI also assx with LT tears<div>theory:<b>Ulnocarpal impaction into lunate leads to LT attenuation and then VISI deformity</b></div><div><div><ul> <li>A - Keinbochs is ulnar negative (remember a tx is radial SHORTENING or Ulnar lengthening)</li> <li>B - VISI treatment can include TFCC ulnar shortening osteotomy</li> <li>C - DISI usually radial sided pain</li> <li>D - ECU subluxes usually with ulnar deviation, dunno how ulnar impaction relates to this though</li></ul></div><div><br></br></div></div>
RC 2018 - 12 y.o. Female with bilateral 5th digit camptodactyly of 25 degrees. What is most appropriate treatment? <ol> <li>Skin grafting</li> <li>PIP volar capsulotomy</li> <li>Tendon transfer</li> <li>Splinting</li></ol>
D.<div>camptodactyly is from PIP flexion - tight lumbrical or hypoplastic fds</div><div><br></br></div><div>start with splinting.</div><div>tx: fds tenotomy, or arthrodesis</div>
<div>RC 2017 - What are 8 associations with the etiology of Dupuytren’s disease</div>
<div>JAAOS 2011 Dupuytren’s Disease: An evolving understanding of an age-old disease</div>
<ul> <li>Classic: Male, age<50, smoking, EtOH, DM</li> <li>Family Hx (AD)</li> <li>Northern European descent</li> <li>Smoking hx</li> <li>Plantar fibromatosis, peyronies disease</li> <li>EtOH abuse</li> <li>Diabetes</li> <li>Epileptic medication</li> <li>Manual labour</li> </ul>
<div></div>
<div>Less solid answers:</div>
<ul> <li>Adhesive capsulitis</li> <li>Vibration exposure</li></ul>
<div><br></br></div>
“<div>RC 2018, 2012 - All associated with Dupuytren’s contracture EXCEPT</div> <ol> <li>Spiral cord</li> <li>Cleland’s</li> <li>Grayson’s</li> <li>pre-tendinous</li></ol>”
“2. cleland not affected. cleland stays cool<div><br></br></div><div>grayson = volar = affected because its palmar fascia!</div><div>cleland = dorsal = not affected<br></br><div><div><br></br></div><div><img></img><br></br></div></div></div>”
“RC 2008 - Which cord causes of decreased abduction in Dupuytren’s <ol> <li>Natatory cord</li> <li>Spiral Cord</li> <li>Pretendinous cord</li> <li>Lateral Band</li></ol>”
“1.<div><ul> <li>Natatory contracture leads to adduction of the fingers</li> <li>Spiral bands distort neurovascular anatomy</li> <li>Central cord = pretendinous cord –> MCP and PIP contracture</li> <li>Lateral Cord = contracture of lateral digital sheath</li> <ul> <li>Does not contribute to severe deformities</li> </ul></ul><div><img></img><br></br></div><div><br></br></div></div>”
RC 2015 - What is true about Dupuytren’s disease? <div> a. Skin graft acts as a barrier to recurrence</div> <div> b. Needle aponeurotomy is more successful for PIP than for MCP contractures</div> <div> c. Failure to correct contracture with fasciectomy is an indication for open PIP joint release</div> <div> d. Radical fasciectomy is associated with increased complications</div>
D
RC 2017 - What of the following is true for Dupuytren’s<ol> <li>Open palm technique has more complications</li> <li>Limited fasciectomy improves PIP contracture more than MCP</li> <li>Percutaneous release is better for MCP than PIP</li></ol>
A<div><br></br></div><div>Indications for surgical treatment</div><div>> 30deg MCP contracture</div><div>ANY PIP contracture (usually more than 15deg)<br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div><div>The MCP joint is notably more forgiving than the PIP joint in Dupuytren disease, both in surgical and nonsurgical management. MCP joints are much more likely than PIP joints to achieve full intraoperative correction and to remain this way 6 months postoperatively</div></div>
RC 2011 - All of the following are true of Dupytrens, except? <ol> <li>affects males more commonly </li> <li>affects the 4 & 5th digits more commonly</li> <li>it is associated with penile disease</li> <li>It affects DIP joints more than MCP joints</li></ol>
D.<div><br></br></div><div><div>Dupuytren disease is a benign fibroproliferative disorder of unclear etiology. It typically begins as a nodule in the palmar fascia and progresses insidiously to form diseased cords and finally digital flexion contractures, <b>beginning at the MCP joint and progressing distally.</b></div><div><br></br></div><div><ul> <li>Family Hx (AD)</li> <li>Northern European descent</li> <li>Smoking hx</li> <li>Plantar fibromatosis, peyronies disease</li> <li>EtOH abuse</li> <li>Diabetes</li> <li>Epileptic medication</li> <li>Manual labour</li></ul></div><div><br></br></div><div><br></br></div></div>
“RC 2009 - Fasciectomy of palm (with skin you cant close) in Dupuytren’s, tx?<ol> <li>STSG</li> <li>Delayed primary closure</li> <li>Allow to heal by secondary intention and start ROM</li></ol>”
C.<div><br></br></div><div><div>Would need a full thickness skin graft for the palm, STSG would just contract</div><div><br></br></div><div><br></br></div></div>
<div>RC 2018, 2012 - Jersey finger with retraction to the palm. What is not true</div>
<ol> <li>Ring finger most frequent</li> <li>This is the most common type of FDP injury</li> <li>Good results can be achieved if fixed within 4-6 weeks</li> <li>Often delayed diagnosis</li></ol>
“C. zone 1 injury (distal to FDS insertion) but also type 1 (Retraction to palm) so all blood supply gone - must repair early.<div><br></br></div><div><ul> <li>JAAOS 2011 - Avulsion Injuries of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus Tendon</li> <ul> <li>Zone I flexor tendon injury</li> <li>Ring finger most commonly affected</li> <ul> <li>Most tethered motion, bipennate lumbricals, weakest insertion point</li> <li>5mm more prominent than other digits therefore exposed to greater average force during pull-away</li> </ul> <li>Retraction into palm = Type I injury w/ disruption to vincular vascular supply</li> <li>Patients with retraction to the palm should be treated within 7-10 days</li> </ul> </ul> <div></div> <div> <div>Type</div> <div>Description</div> <div>Treatment</div> <div>Type I</div> <div>FDP tendon retracted to palm. Leads to disruption of the vascular supply</div> <div><br></br></div> <div></div> <div>Prompt surgical treatment within 7 to 10 days</div> <div>Type II</div> <div>FDP retracts to level of PIP joint</div> <div>Attempt to repair within several weeks for opitmal outcome</div> <div>Type III</div> <div>Large avulsion fracture limits retraction to the level of the DIP joint</div> <div>Attempt to repair within several weeks for opitmal outcome</div> <div>Type IV</div> <div>Osseous fragment and simultaneous avulsion of the tendon from the fracture fragment (““Double avulsion” with subsequent retraction of the tendon usually into palm)</div> <div>If tendon separated from fracture fragment, first fix fracture via ORIF then reattach tendon as for Type I/II injuries</div> <div>Type V</div> <div>Ruptured tendon with bone avulsion with bony comminution of the remaining distal phalanx (Va, extraarticular; Vb, intra-articular)</div> <div></div> </div></div><div><br></br></div>”
RC 2016 - When placing a suture anchor for repair of a jersey finger, in what position is pullout reduced? <ol> <li>Distal to proximal </li> <li>Proximal to distal </li> <li>Perpendicular to phalanx </li> <li>Skirting subchondral bone</li></ol>
“A.<div><br></br></div><div>jersey finger with a stump <1cm needs transosseous repair or suture anchors.<br></br><div><ul> <li>Pilot holes are typically drilled at a 45° angle from distal‐volar to proximal‐dorsal, in accordance with the deadman angle theory of suture anchors, to increase the resistance to pullout of the implant.</li> </ul> <div></div> <div><img></img></div></div></div>”
<div>RC 2008 - Which of the following is the strongest for tendon repair</div>
<ul> <li>A. Pulvertaft </li> <li>B. Kessler</li> <li>C. Bunnell</li> <li>D. Interrupted</li></ul>
“D.<div><ul> <li>Repair strength is dependent on the number of core sutures</li> <ul> <li>Bunell and Kessler are 2 strand, if interrupted had 4 core, then would be stronger</li> </ul> <li>Modified Bunnell > Kessler</li> <li>Pulvertaft is a tendon weave for tendon transfers</li><li>epitendon sutures improve strength 10-50% as well</li> </ul> <div><img></img></div></div>”
<div>RC 2009 - How do you treat quadrigia?</div>
<ul> <li>A. Release flexor</li> <li>B. Release extensor</li> <li>C. Do muscle lengthenings in forearm in CP</li> <li>D. Release gluteus medius (not kidding, something in the hip)</li></ul>
A.<div><ul> <li>Quadrigia = active flexion lag in fingers adjacent to a previously injured or repaired FDP tendon</li> <li>Caused by functional shortening of the repaired tendon</li> <li>>1cm of FDP advancement associated w/ quadrigia</li> <li>More common in the fingers that have a common FDP muscle belly = long, ring, little fingers</li> <li>Most commonly seen after Zone I injury (jersey finger)</li></ul></div>
RC 2016 - Which of the following is true regarding Zone II flexor tendon injuries? <ol> <li>Early ROM protocols reduces fibrous scar formation </li> <li>Repair both slips of FDS for improved gliding and PIP ROM </li> <li>? </li> <li>?</li></ol>
A. dont be dumb
<div>RC 2018, 2012 -All of the following are acceptable for treating a bony mallet fracture, EXCEPT:</div>
<div>a.Dorsal block pinning</div>
<div>b.Splint the DIP in neutral</div>
<div>c.Pin the DIP joint</div>
<div>d.Excise the fracture fragment and advance the extensor tendon</div>
“D.<div><ul> <li>Splint in neutral (exact wording) – yes; extension splinting of DIP x 6-8wks, avoiding hyperextension</li> <li>Pin DIP – yes, “simple pin” fixation; if volar subluxation of the distal phalanx after splinting of the DIP jt in extension</li> <li>Dorsal-block pinning - yes</li><li><img></img><br></br></li> <li>Excision bony fragment and advance extensor tendon - no need to ever excise bone as can cause you to overtighten extensor tendon and destabilize joint</li></ul><div>Chronic: swan neck. tx: spiral retinacular lig reconstruction, central slip tenotomy, arthrodesis</div></div>”
RC 2010 - What does not cause swan neck? <ol> <li>Mallet finger</li> <li>Volar subluxation of the proximal phalanx</li> <li>FDP rupture</li> <li>Tight intrinsics</li></ol>
“C. FDS rupture does - not FDP<div><img></img><br></br></div><div><ul> <li>Extrinsic:</li> <ul> <li>Disruption of terminal tendon (Mallet)</li> <li>Wrist or MP flexion contracture</li> </ul> <li>Intrinsic:</li> <ul> <li>Chronic MP volar subluxation</li> <li>Intrinsic contracture</li> <li>Tendon Adhesion</li> </ul> <li>Articular:</li> <ul> <li>Volar plate/capsule injury (hyperextension)</li> <li>Disruption of FDS</li> </ul></ul></div>”
<div>RC 2017, 2011 - Treatment of swan neck. All true except? </div>
<ol> <li>crossed intrinsic tendon transfer</li> <li>oblique retinacular repair</li> <li>DIP fusion</li> <li>FDS partial tenodesis</li></ol>
“A.<div><br></br></div><div><ul> <li>Orthobullets (simplified approach because I can’t care to learn the details)</li> <ul> <li>volar plate advancement and PIP balancing withcentral slip tenotomy</li> <ul> <li>address volar plate laxity withvolar plate advancement</li> <li>correct PIP joint muscles imbalances with either</li> <ul> <li>FDS tenodesisindicated with FDS rupture</li> <li>spiral oblique retinacular ligament reconstruction</li> <li>central slip tenotomy (Fowler)</li> </ul> <li>DIP fusion</li> </ul> </ul></ul></div>”
RC 2013, 2011, 2010 - 50 yr old female with 2 week history of inability to extend 4th and 5th fingers. List 3 common causes in a Rheumatoid patient
<ul> <li>Attritional extensor tendon rupture (Vaughan-Jackson Syndrome)</li> <li>Sagittal band attenuation rupture</li> <li>MCP dislocations (volar, joint erosions and volar plate attentuation)</li> <li>PIN palsy at RC joint</li> <li>Cervical radiculopathy</li></ul>
<div>RC 2016, 2011 - List 3 causes of swan neck from synovitis in rheumatoid arthritis</div>
“<ul> <li><img></img><br></br></li><li>Extrinsic:</li> <ul> <li>Disruption of terminal tendon (Mallet)</li> <li>Wrist or MP flexion contracture</li> </ul> <li>Intrinsic:</li> <ul> <li>Chronic MP volar subluxation</li> <li>Intrinsic contracture</li> <li>Tendon Adhesion</li> </ul> <li>Articular:</li> <ul> <li>Volar plate/capsule injury (hyperextension)</li> <li>Disruption of FDS</li> </ul></ul>”
<div>RC 2016, What is true regarding a boutonniere deformity?</div>
<ol> <li>Can be associated with MCP, PIP and DIP pathology</li> <li>Can be corrected with a fusion of the DIP joint</li> <li>Can be corrected with a tenotomy of the lateral bands</li> <li>Caused by dorsal subluxation of the lateral cords</li></ol>
“C. dorsalization/centralization of lateral bands is reconstructive option<div><br></br></div><div>a- no mcp pathology</div><div>b- can fuse pip but not dip</div><div>d- VOLAR subluxation of lateral bands</div><div><br></br></div><div><img></img></div><div><div> <div> <div><img></img></div> </div></div><div><br></br></div><div><br></br></div></div>”
<div>RC 2014 - EPL rupture, which motion is affected:</div>
<ol> <li>IP extension and thumb abduction</li> <li>IP extension only</li> <li>Thumb abduction</li> <li>IP extension and adduction</li></ol>
B.
RC 2012 - Extensor tendon subluxation at MCP, what is injured? <ol> <li>Central slip</li> <li>Sagittal Band</li> <li>Lateral Band</li> <li>Oblique retinacular ligament</li></ol>
“B<div><ul> <li>JAAOS 2015 - Sagittal Band Rupture</li> <ul> <li>EDC tendon crosses MP joint and is stabilized by the dorsal extensor hood</li> <li>Sagittal bands runs perpendicular to EDC and prevent subluxation of tendons</li> <li>Proximal radial portion is most important</li> </ul><li><img></img><br></br></li> </ul> <div></div></div>”
<div>RC 2018, 2012 All are associated with swan-neck deformity in RA patient EXCEPT?</div>
<ul> <li>A. Patient unable to passively extend MCP</li> <li>B. Positive Bunnell </li> <li>C. Chronic Mallet finger </li> <li>D. MCP collaterals demonstrating increased laxity/instability when flexed to 90 degrees</li></ul>
“<div>ANSWER: D </div> <ul> <li>JAAOS 2006 - The Rheumatoid Wrist</li> <ul> <li>Cases of Swan Neck Deformity</li> <ul> <li>Extensor tendon rupture</li> <li>Volar MCP subluxation (A = unable to passively extend MCP)</li> <li>Intrinsic muscle tightness (B = Positive Bunnell)</li> <li>Volar plate subluxation</li> <li>Mallet finger/terminal tendon rupture (C)</li> </ul> </ul> </ul> <ul> <li>Bunnell test</li> <ul> <li>Differentiates between extrinsic and intrinsic tightness</li> <li>Test of the ability to flex the PIP joint with the MCP in flexion and extension</li> <li>Inability to flex the PIP with the MCP in extension = positive test = intrinsic tightness</li> </ul> <li><img></img></li></ul>”
RC 2015, 2014 - What is the best indication for fixation of a 5th metacarpal fracture? <ol> <li>20 degree apex dorsal angulation</li> <li>short oblique minimally displaced</li> <li>shortening 5mm</li> <li>malrotation 5mm</li></ol>
D.<div><br></br></div><div>Intra-articular base/head fractures are generally reduced and pinned<br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div><ul> <li>Acceptable alignment parameters (Dhaliwal)</li> <ul> <li>NO Malrotation (RC EXAM)</li> <li> <div> <div></div> <div>Shaft (Deg)</div> <div>Neck (deg)</div> <div>Shaft shortening (mm)</div> <div>D2</div> <div>10</div> <div>20</div> <div>3-5</div> <div>D3</div> <div>20</div> <div>30</div> <div>3-5</div> <div>D4</div> <div>30</div> <div>40</div> <div>3-5</div> <div>D5</div> <div>40</div> <div>50</div> <div>3-5</div> </div> </li> </ul></ul></div>
RC 2011 - Which of the following are true in regards to metacarpal shaft fractures? <ol> <li>dorsal angulation is due to intrinsics and extensor tendons</li> <li>treat short oblique with cast immobilization</li> <li>transverse fractures reduced with longitudinal traction and fluoro</li> <li>ORIF for displaced, malrotated, and shortened shaft by 2.5mm</li></ol>
“D.<div><ul> <li>A is wrong because it’s an apex dorsal deformity caused by the intrinsics pulling on the proximal fragment and the extrinsic FLEXOR muscles acting on the distal fragment</li></ul> <ul> <li>B is wrong b/c it is difficult to control rotational deformities (common in short oblique #s) with casting alone. They usually need surgery.</li> <li>C is wrong because flexion of the MCP joints, not traction, allows reduction - Jahss maneuver</li><li><img></img><br></br></li></ul><div><ul> <li>Acceptable alignment parameters (Dhaliwal)</li> <ul> <li>NO Malrotation (RC EXAM)</li> <li> <div> <div></div> <div>Shaft (Deg)</div> <div>Neck (deg)</div> <div>Shaft shortening (mm)</div> <div>D2</div> <div>10</div> <div>20</div> <div>3-5</div> <div>D3</div> <div>20</div> <div>30</div> <div>3-5</div> <div>D4</div> <div>30</div> <div>40</div> <div>3-5</div> <div>D5</div> <div>40</div> <div>50</div> <div>3-5</div> </div> </li> </ul></ul></div></div>”
<div>RC 2008 - Oblique metacarpal fracture treated with interfrag screws</div>
<ol> <li>Length of fracture should be 2x cortical diameter</li> <li>Screws should be 90o to the metacarpal</li> <li>Screws should be 90o to the fracture</li> </ol>
<div></div>
<div></div>
A. (if shorter, would either do plate or pins)<div><ul> <li>Screws:</li> <ul> <li>Fracture length must be 2x metacarpal diameter (RC EXAM)</li> <li>Screw hole must be at least 2 screw diameters from fracture margin</li> <li>Minimum of 2 screws</li> <ul> <li>One perpendicular to fracture, on perpendicular to shaft</li> </ul> </ul></ul></div>
<div>RC 2016, 2014 - What is the treatment for a dorsal PIP fracture/dislocation with 50% volar bone loss from base of middle phalynx?</div>
<ol> <li>Hemi-hamate resurfacing</li> <li>Dorsal block splinting</li> <li>Dorsal block pinning</li> <li>Buddy taping</li></ol>
“A. ideally orif would be first choice.<div><br></br><div>-tx: reduce and determine if stable</div><div>-if stable: buddy tape</div><div>-if unstable: OR</div><div><ul> <li>Options for acute unstable injuries</li> <ul> <li>Closed reduction and trans-articular or extension block pinning</li> <li>Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning of volar fracture fragment</li> <li>ORIF</li> <li>Dynamic distraction and external fixation</li> <li>Volar plate arthroplasty</li> </ul> <ul> <li>DJ: Hemi-hamate is more used as a late reconstruction procedure. There is one case series that describes using the hemihamate acutely:</li> </ul></ul></div><div><ul> <li>Eaton Type III (fracture dislocation)</li> <ul> <li>If <40% of articular surface involved, will be stable once reduced</li> <li>If >40% of the palmar articular segment involved, ligamentous support will not be sufficient to hold reduction</li> </ul></ul><div><img></img><br></br></div></div><div><img></img><br></br></div></div>”
RC 2015 - Young male with dorsal PIP fracture/dislocation involving 25% of the articular surface. What is the most important factor for good outcome? <ol> <li>Anatomic articular reduction</li> <li>Hand therapy</li> <li>Congruent reduction of the dislocation</li> <li>ORIF</li></ol>
“C.<div><ul> <li>JAAOS 2013 - Fracture dislocation of the proximal IP joint</li> <ul> <li>Quality of reduction not shown to correlate with post-traumatic arthritis</li> <li>As long as there isn’t hinging motion or unstable joint</li> </ul></ul></div>”
<div>RC 2017, 2014, 2008 - Regarding a volar PIP dislocation, what is the block to reduction?</div>
<ol> <li>Oblique retinacular ligament</li> <li>Transverse retinacular ligament</li> <li>Lateral band</li> <li>Collateral ligament</li> </ol>
<div></div>
C.lateral band.<div><br></br></div><div><ol> <li>Lateral band is separated from central slip and in the joint, joint reduces once lateral band is fixed</li> <li>All volar PIP dislocations tear central slip and one lateral band and volar plate</li></ol><div><ul> <li>Volar PIP dislocations result in injury to central slip and at least one collateral ligament</li> <li>Middle phalanx displaces volarly on proximal phalanx, and condyles of proximal phalanx can get caught between central slip and lateral bands</li> <li>Often require open reduction due to entrapped soft tissues</li> <li>Treatment is much slower than dorsal dislocations à require immobilization in extension to allow for central slip to heal</li> <li>Fracture dislocations that are unstable in full extension require surgical fixation (pinning vs ORIF) à best approach for reduction/fixation is dorsal through torn central slip</li></ul></div></div>
RC 2011 - Primary stabilizer of PIP joint? <ol> <li>volar plate</li> <li>collateral ligament</li> <li>extrinsic tendons</li> <li>intrinsic tendons</li></ol>
B.<div><ul> <li>The volar plate resists joint hyperextension, while the collateral ligaments are the primary restraints to motion in the coronal plane</li> <li>At terminal extension, the volar plate and the accessory collateral ligaments assume a larger role.</li> <li>In flexion, the proper collateral ligament is tightened over the flare of the condyle and becomes the primary stabilizer against lateral displacement. </li> <li>Both the volar plate and at least one collateral ligament must be injured for dislocation of the PIP joint to occur</li></ul></div>
<div>RC 2016 - Which of these is best indicated for replantation?</div>
<ol> <li>2 hrs warm ischemia time through distal thumb</li> <li>2 hrs warm ischemia time through the wrist</li> <li>2 hrs warm ischemia time through the middle phalanx</li> <li>7 hrs warm ischemia time through the distal forearm</li></ol>
B.<div><br></br></div><div>a-not complete loss of thumb</div><div>c-middle phalanx = zone 2 = contraindications</div><div>d-7 hrs warm ischemia too long</div><div><ul> <li>Indications:</li> <ul> <li>Loss of a thumb</li> <li>Multiple digit amputation</li> <li>Amputations at or proximal to the palm</li> <li>Pediatric finger amputations at any level</li> <li>Single digit amputation in flexor tendon zone 1</li> </ul> <li>Contra-indications:</li> <ul> <li>Single digit amputations through zone II</li> <li>Severe crush</li> <li>Mangling</li> <li>Heavy contamination</li> <li>Segmental injuries</li> <li>Prolonged warm ischemia time</li><li><br></br></li><li><br></br></li><li>Warm ischemia time should not exceed 12 hours for digits and 6 hours for amputated parts with substantial muscle</li> <li>Cold ischemia time 24 hours for digits and 10-12 hours for limbs</li> </ul></ul></div>
“<div>RC 2018, 2014, 2008 - What ligament holds the articular fragment in place in a Bennet’s fracture?</div> <ol> <li>anterior oblique </li> <li>posterior oblique</li> <li>radial</li> <li>Collateral</li></ol>”
“A. tx: reduce then pin<div><br></br></div><div><img></img><br></br><div><ol> <li>Bennett fracture = avulsion of beak ligament from base of 1st MC; unstable due to pull of adductor pollicis and abductor pollicis longus resulting in supination and dorsoradial displacement of 1st MC</li> <li>Beak ligament (aka. Palmar oblique ligament, anterior oblique ligament) runs from trapezium to ulnar/volar aspect of 1st MC</li> </ol> <div>REDUCTION (MCQ)</div></div></div><div>traction, extension, PROnation, ABduction</div>”
RC 2014, 2009 - X-ray of volar bartons with carpus dislocation volarly and 1st CMC dislocation. Tx? <ol> <li>ORIF scaphoid</li> <li>closed reduction and casting</li> <li>ORIF distal radius, CRPP 1st CMC</li> <li>closed reduction and percutaneous pinning of scaphoid and 1st CMC</li> </ol> <div></div>
C.
RC 2013 - Delayed healing of an ulnar collateral ligament of 1st MCP lesion results from interposition of what structure? <ul> <li>A. Adductor fascia</li> <li>B. Abductor Pollicis </li> <li>C. Interossei</li> <li>D. Capsule</li></ul>
“A. adductor aponeurosis<div><img></img><br></br></div><div><br></br></div><div><ul> <li>Note: grade 1/2 = nonop, grade 3 = op</li><li>Grade 1 - sprain with no instability</li> <li>Grade 2 - incomplete tear with asymmetric joint laxity</li> <li>Grade 3 - complete tear with joint instability</li> <ul> <li>Test in 0 and 30o</li> <ul> <li>0deg tests accessory UCL and 30deg tests UCL proper</li> </ul> <li>Instability = radial deviation >30-35o</li> <ul> <li>Or > 10-15o compared to other side</li> <ul> <li>However high proportion of people have this normally</li> </ul> </ul> </ul></ul></div><div><br></br></div>”
RC 2008 - 12 yr-old girl with a dislocated thumb MCP joint. You are told that you can feel the metacarpal head through the palmar skin. The X-ray shows a dislocation with no obvious fracture. The sesamoids are not obvious but may be in the joint (Ottawa/MUN thought was in joint). What is the treatment? <div>A. Thumb spica</div> <div>B. Open reduction</div> <div>C. Volar plate advancement arthroplasty</div> <div>C. Immobilization with late ligament repair</div>
B.<div><div>Wheeless – MCP dislocation, index > thumb > small > others, widened joint space results from interposition of volar plate or interposed sesamoid within joint (in children older than 10 yrs), presence of sesamoid in joint space indicates presence of volar plate with in joint, volar plate generally tears with this injury with complete disruption, wide joint space indicates complex DL (volar plate, sesamoids in joint), proximal volar plate disruption has sesamoids follow it into joint, distal volar plate disruption does not, OR indicated when irreducible, radial/ulnar instability of > 40 deg post reduction (collateral ligament tears), sesamoid #s</div> <div>Management- if reducible is usually dorsal. If irreducible – volar</div> <div>Treat in thumb spica</div></div>
RC ORAL - DDX for RA pt unable to extend fingers
<ul> <li>Extensor tendon rupture</li> <li>Extensor tendon subluxation (usually ulnarly from sagittal band rupture)</li> <li>MCP dislocation (proximal phalanx volar)</li> <li>Joint contracture after any of above</li> <li>PIN compression at elbow (rare)</li> <li>Cervical spine destruction with radiculopathy/myelopathy</li></ul>
RC 2017 - Treatment of swan neck. All true except? <ol> <li>crossed intrinsic tendon transfer</li> <li>oblique retinacular repair</li> <li>DIP fusion</li> <li>FDS partial tenodesis</li></ol>
A.<div><br></br></div><div><ul> <li>JAAOS - Operative Correction of Swan Neck and Boutonniere</li> <ul> <li>FDS tenodesis</li> <li>Oblique retinacular ligament reconstruction</li> <li>DIP Fusion</li> </ul></ul></div><div><br></br></div>
RC 2012, 2008 - Mannerfelt lesion is progressive erosion and rupture of what tendon? <ul> <li>A. EDC</li> <li>B. EPL</li> <li>C. FPL</li> <li>D. ECU</li></ul>
C.<div><br></br></div><div><div>Mannerfelt Lesion = distal scaphoid penetrates volar wrist capsule and causes attritional wear of the FPL</div></div><div><br></br></div><div>Tx: FDS4 to FPL</div>
<div>RC 2014, 2008 - A 47yo female with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis presents to your clinic with an inability to extend her 4th and 5th digits. On exam you note an ulnar prominence. She has pain with supination/pronation but not with flexion/extension. What is the best treatment?</div>
<ul> <li>A. Splint (unsure if tenosynovectomy and tendon transfers included)</li> <li>B. Tendon transfers, tenosynovectomy and sauve-kapanji</li> <li>C. Tendon transfers, tenosynovectomy and distal ulnar resection</li> <li>D. Tendon transfers, tenosynovectomy and wrist fusion</li></ul>
“B<div><br></br></div><div><ul><li>Jer: Given she’s relatively young, I would pick B - Sauve-Kapanji over C</li></ul><ul> <li>At CORF, people were split 50:50 between Darrach and Sauve-Kapandje on this one. We went with B because the patient is >45years. The true stem would really have to be convincing for an active, high-functioning, RA patient.</li> <ul> <li>CORF 2017 - Ruby Grewal says do Darrach, then leaves prior to any questions…was in combination with a wrist fusion though</li> </ul></ul></div>”
RC 2008 - Which of the following is not correct regarding trigger finger in rheumatoid arthritis? <ul> <li>A. Type I involves focal Tendinopathy</li> <li>B. Type II involves nodularity in distal palm</li> <li>C. Type III involves nodularity adjacent to the A2 pulley</li> <li>D. Type IV involves diffuse nodularity throughout the tendon</li></ul>
A.<div><br></br></div><div><div>Four types of trigger finger occur in RA.</div> <ul> <li>Type 1 = is similar to nonrheumatoid stenosing tenosynovitis, in which the tendons catch at the first annular pulley during flexion secondary to small, localized hyperproliferation of the synovium.</li> <li>Type 2 = the nodules form in the distal palm and cause the finger to lock in flexion</li> <li>Type 3 = nodules on the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon near the second annular pulley (over the proximal phalanx) lock the finger in extension.</li> <li>Type 4 trigger finger results from generalized tenosynovitis within the fibroosseous canal. Active motion is more restricted than passive motion, and contracture and stiffness result.</li></ul></div>
RC 2015, 2014, 2013… DDx for 65yo lady with ulnar sided wrist pain, unable to play tennis.
“<ul> <li>Osseous</li> <ul> <li>Non-union/malunion after fractures</li> <ul> <li>Malunion of radius leading to intra-articular problems or ulnar +</li> <li>Non-union of hamate</li> <li>Non-union of pisiform</li> <li>Non-union of triquetrum</li> <li>Non-union 5th MC</li> <li>Non-union ulnar styloid</li> </ul> <li>Degenerative processes</li> <ul> <li>Pisotriquetral joint</li> <li>Midcarpal articulation</li> <li>5th CMC joint</li> <li>DRUJ –> Arthritis/Instability</li> </ul> <li>Ulnar impaction</li> </ul> <li>Ligamentous</li> <ul> <li>TFCC tears</li> <li>Intrinsic tears (lunotriquetral/capitohamate)</li> <li>Extrinsic tears (ulnolunate, triquetrocapitate, triquetrohamate)</li> </ul> <li>Tendinous</li> <ul> <li>ECU tendinopathy/subluxation</li> <li>FCU tendinopathy</li> <li>EDM tendinopathy</li> </ul> <li>Vascular</li> <ul> <li>Ulnar artery thrombosis/aneurysm</li> <li>hemangiomas</li> </ul> <li>Neurologic</li> <ul> <li>Ulnar nerve entrapment at Guyon’s canal</li> <li>Dorsal sensory ulnar nerve branch neuritis</li> <li>CRPS</li> </ul> <li>Neoplastic</li> <ul> <li>Osteoid osteomas</li> <li>Chondroblastomas</li> <li>Aneurysmal bone cysts</li> </ul></ul>”
<div>RC 2013, 2009 - Golfer with gradually increasing ulnar sided wrist pain. Recently has also been getting tingling in the 4th and 5th fingers. What is the best test?</div>
<ul> <li>A. Nerve conduction studies</li> <li>B. MRI of Wrist</li> <li>C. CT of carpus</li> <li>D. AP and Lateral xray of wrist</li></ul>
C<div><ul> <li>JAAOS 2001 - Acute hand and wrist injuries in athletes</li> <ul> <li>Hook of hamate fractures are endemic in sports such as golf, baseball and hockey</li> <li>Hook makes up one of the borders of guyons canal –> dyethesthesias of ulnar nerve from fracture or fibrous tissue encroaching on canal</li> <li>CT is most reliable test to identify a fracture</li> </ul></ul></div>
<div>RC 2011 - Matt Furey has painful ECU subluxation. Where does he get painful pop on exam?</div>
<ul> <li>A. supination </li> <li>B. pronation</li> <li>C. flexion</li> <li>D. ulnar deviation</li></ul>
“A.<div><div>Avoid the ““ice cream scooping”” position of supination, wrist flexion and ulnar deviation, which allows tendon subluxation</div></div>”
RC 2008 - An elderly lady comes to clinic, one year following a distal radius fracture. She complains of ulnar sided wrist pain. What is the best option for treatment at this point? (assuming it is healed in mal union?) <div>A. Observe and have continued follow-up </div> <div> B. Resects the ulnar styloid</div> <div> C. Resects the distal 2 cm of the ulna </div> <div> D. Place her in a pronated wrist splint</div>
C.<ul> <li>Lots of evidence in old answer which is loosely related but not directly getting at question, too irritated with the distal radius questions to look it up now</li> <li>Current logic:</li> </ul> <ol> <li>Maximize non-operative treatment…but if she wants an OR then why do a procedure which may fail (i.e. the styloid) when this is a low demand patient….just chop it out</li></ol>
<div>RC 2017, 2015, 2014 - All of the following are true regarding DISI deformity EXCEPT?</div>
<ul> <li>A. Scapholunate ligament disruption</li> <li>B. Lunate extends</li> <li>C. Scaphoid supinates</li> <li>D. Incongruent radiolunate joint</li></ul>
“C. scaphoid pronates<div><br></br></div><div><div>SLIL is incompetent, the lunate tends to extend due to the pull of the triquetrum, which is now unopposed by the scaphoid’s tendency to flex. Thus, the scaphoid rotates into flexion and pronation while the lunate extends</div></div><div><div> <div> <div><img></img></div> </div></div></div>”
<div>RC 2012 - Two motion sparing techniques to manage a stage II SLAC wrist</div>
PRC<div>Scaphoidectomy and 4 corner fusion (Luno-capitate, Triquetro-hamate)</div>
<div>RC 2011 - All are true about SLAC wrist except? </div>
<ul> <li>A. 4 corner fusion is preferential b/c it transfers load to the TFCC and distal ulna</li> <li>B. triquetrum is dorsiflexed</li> <li>C. scaphoid is flexed</li> <li>D. Type I has severe involvement of the radial styloid</li></ul>
A. there is a nonsignificant increase in load on the TFCC after scaphoid excision and four-corner fusion<div><br></br></div><div>BCD all true<br></br><div><br></br></div><div><br></br></div></div>
<div>RC 2015, 2013, 2012 - What is an expected xray finding of LT dissociation:</div>
<ul> <li>A. Flexed scaphoid</li> <li>B. No cortical ring sign</li> <li>C. Lunotriquetral gap</li> <li>D. Scapholunate angle of 45deg</li></ul>
“A.<div><br></br></div><div>b - cortical ring sign is present from flexed scaphoid</div><div>c - no LT gap</div><div>d - SL<30</div><div><br></br></div><div>tx: perc pin vs fusion</div><div><img></img><br></br></div>”
<div>RC 2010, 2014 - List 5 stabilizers of the DRUJ</div>
<ul> <li>TFCC</li> <li>Pronator quadratus</li> <li>ECU tendon (subsheath or actual tendon?)</li> <li>Distal oblique band of the Interosseous membrane</li> <li>Bony congruency</li></ul>