Topics 31-34 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe wrong-way risk and contrast it with right-way risk

A
  • Wrong-way risk (WWR) is an outcome of any association, dependence, linkage, or interrelationship between exposure and counterparty creditworthiness that generates an overall increase in counterparty risk and, therefore, an increase in the amount of the credit value adjustment (CVA). WWR also results in a reduction of the debt value adjustment (DVA). WWR can be hard to determine due to difficulties assessing the relationship among variables and the lack of relevant historical data.
  • Right-way risk (RWR) is just the opposite of WWR. That is, any dependence, linkage, or interrelationship between the exposure and default probability of a counterparty producing an overall decrease in counterparty risk is described as RWR. RWR decreases the CVA and increases the DVA.
  • Hedges, in normal functioning markets, should automatically generate RWR because the fundamental purpose of hedges is to curtail counterparty risk.
  • Markets and numerous interactions (e.g., market credit interaction) do not always produce normal behavior, as evidenced by the recent global financial crisis. Those who were seeking protection against the default of debt issuers (e.g., on collateralized debt obligations) became victims of WWR when unfavorable interaction between exposures and insurers’ default probabilities (which were supposed to provide protection) intensified the amount of counterparty credit risk.
  • Note that credit quality increases actually increase WWR. This is because counterparties with high credit quality are less likely to default. As a result, the occurrence of a default by a counterparty with high credit quality is less expected than a default by a counterparty with low credit quality.
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2
Q

Identify examples of wrong-way risk and examples of right-way risk

A
  • It is estimated that conditional expected exposure will increase if the exposure (e.g., value of a forward contract) and the default probability of the counterparty are positively correlated, exhibiting WWR. On the other hand, negative correlation in this instance will lower the conditional expected exposure, showing RWR.
  • The overall counterparty risk stems from a situation in which the counterparty credit quality is linked with macro (and global) factors that also impact the exposure of transactions.

Example of Over-the-Counter Put Option

  • Out-of-the money put options have more WWR than in-the-money put options. Macroeconomic events (such as interest rates, inflation, industry- and sector-specific factors, or global factors) may deteriorate the creditworthiness of the counterparty, increasing the default probability. The same factors may trigger a fall in the underlying (e.g., stock) assets price, generating positive payoffs for the long but increasing the counterparty risk exposure.
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3
Q

Discuss the impact of wrong-way risk on collateral and central counterparties

A
  • When exposure is increasing significantly, it’s important to evaluate the overall impact of collateral on WWR.
  • With a jump in exposure, such as a currency devaluation associated with a sovereign default, it is much more difficult to receive collateral in a timely fashion.
  • Since WWR tends to increase with increasing levels of credit quality, it could be argued that CCPs should demand higher levels of margin and default fund contributions from those members with higher credit quality.
  • In addition, the collateral accepted by the CCP may also carry WWR. Some members may choose to post risky and illiquid assets as collateral, which may create higher levels of WWR for the CCP. One way to mitigate this practice is for the CCP to impose higher haircuts on specific assets that are accepted as collateral.
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4
Q

Differentiate among current exposure, peak exposure, expected exposure, and expected positive exposure

A

Four important definitions of exposure measures:

Current exposure. Also called replacement cost, current exposure is the greater of (1) zero or (2) the market value of a transaction (or a portfolio of transactions) that would be lost if the counterparty defaulted and no value was recovered during bankruptcy.

Peak exposure. Peak exposure measures the distribution of exposures at a high percentile (93% or 99%) at a given future date prior to the maturity of the longest maturity exposure in the netting group. Peak exposure is usually generated for many future dates.

Expected exposure. Expected exposure measures the mean (average) distribution of exposures at a given future date prior to the maturity of the longest maturity exposure in the netting group. Expected exposure is also typically generated for many future dates.

Expected positive exposure (EPE). EPE is the weighted average of expected exposures over time. The weights represent the proportion of individual expected exposures of the entire time interval. For the purposes of calculating the minimum capital requirement, the average is measured over the first year or over the length of the longest maturing contract.

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5
Q

Potential Future Exposure (PFE)

A

Potential Future Exposure (PFE) is the maximum expected credit exposure over a specified period of time calculated at some level of confidence (i.e. at a given quantile).

PFE is a measure of counterparty risk/credit risk. It is calculated by evaluating existing trades done against the possible market prices in future during the lifetime of transactions. It can be called sensitivity of risk with respect to market prices. The calculated expected maximum exposure value is not to be confused with the maximum credit exposure possible. Instead, the maximum credit exposure indicated by the PFE analysis is an upper bound on a confidence interval for future credit exposure.

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6
Q

Effective expected exposure (effective EE)

A

Measures such as EE and EPE may underestimate exposure for short-dated transactions (since capital measurement horizons are typically 1-year) and not capture properly rollover risk.

For these reasons, the terms effective EE and effective EPE were introduced by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (2005).

  • Effective EE is simply a non-decreasing EE.
  • Effective EPE is the average of the effective EE.
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7
Q

Explain the treatment of counterparty credit risk (CCR) both as a credit risk and as a market risk and describe its implications for trading activities and risk management for a financial institution.

A
  • The treatment of CCR as a market risk was historically done through pricing in a credit valuation adjustment (CVA). CVA represents the market value of the CCR.
  • Treating CCR as credit risk exposes an institution to changes in CVA. CVA should, therefore, be included in valuing a derivatives portfolio, otherwise the portfolio could experience large changes in market value.
  • Treating CCR as market risk allows an institution to hedge market risk losses; however, it leaves the institution exposed to declines in counterparty creditworthiness and default.
  • Treating CCR as both credit risk and market risk is prudent, but this approach is complex and difficult to interpret.
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8
Q

Describe a stress test that can be performed on a loan portfolio and on a derivative portfolio

A

Financial institutions apply current exposure stresses to each counterparty by repricing portfolios under a scenario of risk-factor changes. Counterparties with the largest current exposures and largest stressed current exposures are typically reported to senior management. The different stress scenarios would likely include different counterparties.

Stress tests of current exposure suffer from two main shortcomings:

  1. Aggregating stress results needs to incorporate additional information for it to be meaningful. Simply taking the sum of all exposures only looks at a loss that would occur if all counterparties were to simultaneously default, which is an unlikely scenario. In addition, the stressed current exposures do not factor in the credit quality of the counterparty. The stress results, therefore, only look at the trade values and not the counterparty’s capacity or willingness to repay its obligations.
  2. The stress results of current exposure also do not provide information on wrong-way risk. Since the stress measures already omit the credit quality of the counterparty, they cannot provide meaningful information on the correlation of exposure with credit quality.
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9
Q

Describe a stress test that can be performed on CVA. Calculate the stressed CVA and the stress loss on CVA.

A
  • Stress testing CCR for market risk events looks at the losses in market value of a counterparty exposure due to market risk events or credit spread changes. Financial institutions typically only consider the unilateral CVA for stress testing, which looks at a counterparty’s default to the institution under various market events. However, financial institutions should also consider the possibility that they could default to their counterparties, and, as a result, should consider their bilateral CVA (BCVA).
  • Calculating a stressed CVA involves applying an instantaneous shock to these market variables, which could affect the discounted expected exposure or the risk-neutral marginal default probability.
  • Stress testing CCR in a credit-risk framework has similarities with stress testing in a market-risk framework.
    • Both rely on EL as a function of LGD, exposure, and PD.
    • Nevertheless, their values will differ depending on whether the view is from a market-risk or credit-risk perspective.
    • The two primary differences include the use of risk-neutral values for CVA (versus physical values for ELs), and the use of ELs over the transaction’s life for CVA (versus a specific time horizon for ELs).
  • In addition, CVA uses a market-based model for calculating the PD. The market-based approach has the advantage of being able to incorporate a correlation between the exposure and the PD. This correlation can significantly influence the CVA. Because there is uncertainty regarding the correlation, financial institutions should run stress tests to determine the effects on profit and loss from incorrect correlation assumptions.
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10
Q

Calculate the DYA and explain how stressing DVA enters into aggregating stress tests of CCR

A

Financial institutions should include the liability effects in their stress calculations to properly calculate the CVA profit and loss. As a result, institutions could adequately incorporate the value of their option to default to a counterparty through the bilateral CVA. This component is often called the debt value adjustment (DVA).

The probability of survival depends on credit default swap (CDS) spreads, and the losses depend on the financial institution’s own credit spread. Institutions should be aware that this may result in counterintuitive results, for example, implying that losses occur because the institution’s credit quality has improved. In any case, the financial institution should consider stress results for the BCVA and calculate stress losses by subtracting the current BCVA from the stressed BCVA.

The benefit of incorporating BCVA is that it allows CCR to be treated as market risk, which enables CCR to be included in market risk stress testing consistently. Any gains or losses from the BCVA stress could then be added to the institution’s stress tests from market risk.

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11
Q

Describe the common pitfalls in stress testing CCR

A

Stress testing CCR includes the following pitfalls:

  • Stress testing CCR is a relatively new method, and institutions typically do not aggregate CCR with loan portfolio or trading position stress tests.
  • Institutions typically stress test current exposure when incorporating the losses with loan or trading position. This is a mistake, because institutions should instead use expected exposure or positive expected exposure.
  • Using current exposure can lead to significant errors, which is particularly evident in at-the-money exposures when measuring derivatives market values.
  • When calculating changes in exposures, using delta sensitivities is also challenging for CCR since delta is nonlinear. The linearization of delta sensitivities in models can lead to significant errors.
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12
Q

Analyze the credit risks and other risks generated by retail banking

A

Although credit risk is the primary risk in retail banking, several other risks also impact the industry. These risks include:

  • Operational risks: day-to-day risks associated with running the business.
  • Business risks: strategic risks associated with new products or trends and volume risks associated with measures like mortgage volume when rates change.
  • Reputation risks: the bank’s reputation with customers and regulators.
  • Interest rate risks: the bank provides specific interest rates to its assets and liabilities and rates change in the marketplace.
  • Asset valuation risk: a form of market risk associated with the valuation of assets, liabilities, and collateral classes. An example includes prepayment risk associated with mortgages in decreasing rate environments. Valuation risk also exists in situations when car dealers assume a residual value for a vehicle at the end of the life of a lease.
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13
Q

Explain the differences between retail credit risk and corporate credit risk

A
  • There are several features that distinguish retail credit risk from corporate credit risk.
  • As mentioned earlier, retail credit exposures are relatively small as components of larger portfolios such that a default by any one customer will not present a serious threat to a lending institution. Due to the inherent diversification of a retail credit portfolio and its behavior in normal markets, estimating the default percentage allows a bank to effectively treat this loss as a cost of “doing business” and to factor it into the prices it charges its customers. A commercial credit portfolio is subjected to the risk that its losses may exceed the expected threshold, which could have a crippling effect on the bank.
  • Banks will often have time to take preemptive actions to reduce retail credit risk as a result of changes in customer behavior signaling a potential rise in defaults. These preemptive actions may include marketing to lower risk customers and increasing interest rates for higher risk customers. Commercial credit portfolios typically don’t offer these signals, as problems might not become known until it is too late to correct them.
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14
Q

Discuss the “dark side” of retail credit risk and the measures that attempt to address the problem

A

An unexpected, systematic risk factor may cause losses to rise beyond an estimated threshold, damaging a bank’s retail portfolio through declines in asset and collateral values and increases in the default rate. This represents the “dark side” of retail credit risk.

Primary causes include:

  • The lack of historical loss data due to the relative newness of specific products.
  • An across the board increase in risk factors impacting the economy overall that causes retail credit products to behave unexpectedly.
  • An evolving social and legal system which may inadvertently “encourage” defaults.
  • An operational flaw in the credit process due to its semi-automated structure that results in credit granted to higher risk individuals.

The Consumer Financial Protection Act (CFPA), in an attempt to manage the dark side of retail credit risk, requires credit originators to evaluate qualified mortgages and ability to repay.

A borrower with a “qualified mortgage” is assumed to have the capacity to repay. A qualified mortgage will put a limit on the amount of income allocated to debt repayments (e.g., debt-to-income ratio < 43%). A qualified mortgage cannot have excess upfront fees and points, may not be balloon payment loans or interest-only loans, may not be for longer than 30 years, and may not be negative amortization loans.

When a lender is evaluating a customer’s “ability to repay” the following underwriting standards must be considered:

  • Credit history.
  • Current income and assets.
  • Current employment status.
  • Mortgage monthly payments.
  • Monthly payments on mortgage-related items such as insurance and property taxes.
  • Monthly payments on other associated property loans.
  • Additional debt obligations of the borrower.
  • The monthly debt-to-income ratio resulting from the mortgage.
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15
Q

Define and describe credit risk scoring model types, key variables, and applications

A

Three model types exist in regard to scoring applications for consumer credit:

  • Credit bureau scores: this refers to an applicant’s FI CO score, and is very fast, easy, and cost effective to implement and evaluate. Scores will typically range from a low of 300 to a high of 830, with higher scores associated with lower risk to the lender and lower interest rates for the borrower.
  • Pooled model: this model, built by outside parties, is more costly than implementing a credit bureau score model; however, it offers the advantage of flexibility to tailor it to a specific industry.
  • Custom model: created by the lender itself using data specifically pulled from the lenders own credit application pool. This model type allows a lender to evaluate applicants for their own specific products.

Every individual with a credit history will have credit files containing the following information:

  • Personal (identifying) information which doesn’t factor into scoring models.
  • Records of credit inquiries when a file is accessed. Requests for new credit will be visible to credit grantors.
  • Data on collections, reported by entities that provide credit or agencies that collect outstanding debts.
  • Legal (public) records on bankruptcies, tax liens, and judgments.
  • Account and trade line information gathered from receivables information sent to credit bureaus by grantors.
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16
Q

Discuss the key variables in a mortgage credit assessment and describe
the use of cutoff scores, default rates, and loss rates in a credit scoring model

A

In assessing an application for mortgage credit, the key variables include:

  • FICO score: a numerical score serving as a measure of default risk tied to the borrower’s credit history.
  • Loan-to-value (LTV) ratio: the amount of the mortgage divided by the associated property’s total appraised value.
  • Debt-to-income (DTI) ratio: the ratio of monthly debt payments (mortgage, auto, etc.) to the monthly gross income of the borrower.
  • Payment (pmt) type: dictates the type of mortgage (adjustable rate, fixed, etc.)
  • Documentation (doc) types, which include:
    • Full doc: a loan which requires evidence of assets and income.
    • Stated income: employment is verified but borrower income is not.
    • No ratio: similar to stated income, employment is documented but income is not. The debt-to-income ratio is not calculated.
    • No income/no asset: Income and assets are provided on the loan application but are not lender verified (other than the source of income).
    • No doc: no documentation of income or assets is provided.

Cutoff scores represent thresholds where lenders determine whether they will or will not lend money (and the terms of the loan) to a particular borrower. As noted earlier, the higher the score, the lower the risk to the lending institution.

17
Q

Discuss the measurement and monitoring of a scorecard performance including the use of cumulative accuracy profile (CAP) and the accuracy ratio (AR) techniques

A

In assessing the performance of the scorecard, a cumulative accuracy profile (CAP) and the accuracy ratio (AR) are often used. The CAP shows the population distribution based on credit scores (and therefore risk) versus the percentage of actual defaults.

18
Q

Describe the customer relationship cycle and discuss the trade-off
between creditworthiness and profitability

A

Along with credit default scoring, lenders are using product and customer profit scoring measures to evaluate the potential profitability of a specific product and the potential profitability of a specific customer.

In utilizing scorecards to evaluate customers, there are several variations beyond just the credit bureau (FICO) scores. These additional scorecards can be used to evaluate both creditworthiness and profitability. They include:

  • Revenue scores: used to evaluate existing customers on potential profitability.
  • Application scores: used to support the decision to extend credit to a new applicant.
  • Response scores: assign a probability to whether a customer is likely to respond to an offer.
  • Insurance scores: assign a probability to potential claims by the insured.
  • Behavior scores: assess existing customer credit usage and historical delinquencies.
  • Tax authority scores: predict where potential audits may be needed for revenue collection.
  • Attrition scores: assign a probability to the reduction or elimination of outstanding debt by existing customers.

The customer relationship cycle involves the process a lender goes through to market its products/services, screen applications from customers, manage customer accounts, and then cross-sell to those customers.

19
Q

Discuss the benefits of risk-based pricing of financial services

A

RBP (risk-based pricing) involves lenders charging different customers different prices based on their associated risks.

Key external and internal factors which account for risk and play into the interest rates and prices charged by lenders include:

  • The probability of take-up (i.e., acceptance by the customer of the offered product).
  • The probability of default (PD).
  • The loss given default (LGD).
  • The exposure at default (EAD).
  • The cost of equity capital to the lender.
  • Capital allocated to the transaction.
  • Operating expenses of the lender.
20
Q

Discuss the flaws in the securitization of subprime mortgages prior to the financial crisis of 2007

A
  • The gains in the securitization supply chain were linked solely to deal completion and not to the potential risk of the borrowers. In this process, U.S. financial institutions misjudged the liquidity and credit concentration risks inherent in mortgage lending. This paradoxical deviation from the traditional risk-reward tradeoff created less incentive to monitor the creditworthiness of borrowers and reduced accountability. It is one of the key flaws in the securitization process.
  • Another flaw in the securitization process is the opaqueness of the end product. Neither investors nor the rating agencies, whom the investors relied upon, fully understood how to evaluate the multilayered securitized products. Investors did not fully understand either the credit quality of the underlying loans or the potential correlation within the loan pool should an unexpected shock occur. This created a very fragile system based on trust, which was later broken when the expected low default rates exceeded a margin of safety.
  • A third flaw is that as time progressed without any initial problems, many banks elected to start retaining the risk of structured products. In fact, in mid-2007, U.S. financial institutions directly held $900 billion of subprime mortgage-backed products on their books. They used rolling short-term debts to finance purchases of long-term mortgage-backed structured products in off-balance-sheet entities known as structured investment vehicles (SIVs) partly because mortgages earned much higher returns than corporatebonds. Banks thought that they were earning a riskless spread over corporate bonds with comparable ratings. By using a leveraged SIV instead of holding the actual loans on their balance sheets, banks were able to use far less capital to hold a pool of mortgages. On one hand, this flaw appears to be a partial correction for the first flaw. Banks did start to retain some risk, but they used a mechanism that still prevented investors from evaluating the full extent of the risk.
21
Q

Identify and explain the different techniques used to mitigate credit risk,
and describe how some of these techniques are changing the bank credit function

A

When conducted properly, the credit risk transfer process can be revolutionary for financial institutions. Proper techniques can include bond insurance, collateralization, termination, reassignment, netting, marking to market, syndication of loan origination, or outright selling of a loan portfolio in the secondary market.

  • As its name suggests, bond insurance is a formal process of purchasing insurance against the potential default of an issuer. In the municipal bond market, insurance is purchased by the issuer (not the investor!) of the municipal obligation. This insurance coverage enables these municipalities to issue debt at reduced rates.
  • The use of collateralization is perhaps the longest running form of credit risk mitigation. The losses sustained by the lender will be offset by the value of the collateral in the event of a default.
  • Another risk mitigation option is termination. Using this tool means that the debt obligation is canceled prior to maturity at a mid-market quote. Usually, this means that a certain trigger event, such as a downgrade, has occurred and the issuer was obligated to repay the loan early. An alternative to outright termination is known as reassignment, which gives the right to assign one’s position as a counterparty to a third party if a trigger event occurs.
  • Sometimes a counterparty will enter into numerous derivative transactions with the same financial institution. Some of these derivatives will have a positive replacement value while others will have a negative replacement value. All over-the-counter (OTC) derivatives transactions between common counterparties can be aggregated together so that the net replacement value represents the true credit risk exposure. This process is known as netting.
  • Marking to market is another option. This tool involves periodically acknowledging the true market value of a transaction. This transparency will result in immediately transferring value from the losing side to the winning side of the trade. This process is extremely efficient, but it does require sophisticated monitoring technology and back-office systems for implementation.
  • Some financial institutions also utilize loan syndication when an issuer needs to raise a significant amount of capital or perhaps the credit risk is more than a single lender would choose to absorb. The syndication process will involve multiple lenders all working together as a team to provide funding to a given borrower. The lead syndicator will receive a fee from the issuer for arranging the syndicate.

Credit mitigation techniques enable banks to continue extending credit to riskier borrowers and to more concentrated pools of issuers and then transfer the credit risk to keep overall risk within an acceptable margin.

22
Q

Describe the originate-to-distribute model of credit risk transfer and discuss the two ways of managing a bank credit portfolio

A

OTD models have produced three primary benefits:

  • The first benefit is that loan originators enjoy increased capital efficiency and decreased earnings volatility because the credit risks have been largely outsourced.
  • The second benefit is that investors have a wider array of diversification options for the fixed income portion of their portfolios.
  • The third benefit is that borrowers have expanded access to credit and lowered borrowing costs.

Under the traditional originate-to-hold (OTH) lending model, credit assets are retained at the business unit level. Loans are originated using a binary (accept or reject) approval process. At loan origination, risk is measured based on notional value and then left unmonitored thereafter. The compensation structure in the OTH system is based on loan volume. More loans mean more profit potential.

At its core, the OTD model involves dividing loans into two groups: core loans and noncore loans. The bank will typically hold the core loans and either securitize or outright sell the non-core loans it has originated. Here, loan origination focuses on charging a sufficient risk-adjusted spread over the bank’s hurdle rate. After origination, the OTD model transfers credit assets to the credit portfolio management group who monitors the apparent risks until the asset is transferred off the originator’s books.

23
Q

Describe the different types and structures of credit derivatives

A
  • One critique of traditional credit risk mitigation techniques is that they do not unbundle the credit risk from the underlying asset. Credit derivative products, such as credit default swaps, first-to-default puts, total return swaps, and asset-backed credit-linked notes, are over-the-counter financial contracts that respond directly to this critique. Payoffs for these instruments are contingent on changes in the credit performance or quality of a specific underlying issuer. Therefore, these tools directly enable one party to transfer the credit risk of a reference asset to another party without ever selling the asset itself. In doing so, credit derivative products also aid in price discovery aimed at isolating the economic value of default risk.
  • Investors and financial institutions can use credit derivatives to accomplish several different goals:
    • Credit derivatives can provide access to specialized risk factors for both risk mitigation and for speculation.
    • Credit derivatives also provide yield enhancement and a mechanism to hedge industryspecific and country-specific risks borne by an investor or institution.
    • Hedge funds, and other speculative investors, also use credit derivatives to exploit arbitrage opportunities.
24
Q

Credit Default Swaps

A

A single-name CDS operates essentially as an insurance contract but a key difference is that the protection buyer need not actually own the underlying asset.

If a payment is triggered, the payment could be made in one of three ways:

  • The first payment option is the par value of the underlying asset minus the post-default price. This is essentially a “make me whole” payment.
  • The second payment option is par value minus a stipulated recovery factor. Most corporate bonds have a contractually stipulated 40% recovery rate. This means that the CDS was priced so that the most that a protection buyer could recover is 60% of the notional principal.
  • The third payment option is the full payment of the par value, without any subtractions, but the protection buyer must also physically deliver the underlying asset to the protection seller. This is also a “make me whole” payment.
25
Q

First-to-Default Puts

A

A variation of the CDS is known as a first-to-default put. To explain this innovation, it will be easiest to consider a bank that holds four different B-rated high yield loans. Each loan has notional principal of $100 million, a five-year maturity, and an annual coupon of LIBOR plus 250 basis points. The idea is that this pool of loans has very low default correlations. The bank could purchase a first-to-default put for two years at perhaps 400 basis points. This means that the bank would pay $4 million annually for two years. In return for this “insurance” premium, the bank would be made whole in the event that any one of the four bonds defaulted. If two bonds default, then they still are only paid for the first bond and the second becomes a loss event. This is a much more cost effective option for the bank if the loans truly have uncorrelated default risks.

The cost of the first-to-default put will lie between the cost of a CDS on the riskiest bond and the total cost for a CDS on all bonds.

26
Q

Total Return Swaps

A

While a CDS contract outsources only the credit risk, a total return swap (TRS) outsources both credit risk and market risk. A TRS is designed to mirror the return on an underlying investment, such as a loan, a floating rate note, a coupon bond, a stock, or a basket of assets. There are two parties to a TRS contract. The “payer” is the owner of the underlying asset.

  • The payer will agree to pay the underlying asset’s total return, including any price appreciation and coupon or dividend payments, to a “receiver.”
  • The receiver is responsible to pay the payer for any depreciation in the asset. The receiver will also pay LIBOR plus a predetermined spread to the payer regardless of what happens with the reference asset.
27
Q

Asset-Backed Credit-Linked Notes

A
  • A further innovation called an asset-backed credit-linked note (CLN) embeds a default swap into a debt issuance. A CLN is a debt instrument with its coupon and principal risk tied to an underlying debt instrument, like a bond, a loan, or a government obligation. Unlike a CDS contract, principal is exchanged when a CLN is sold to an investor, although the CLN seller retains ownership of the underlying debt instrument.
  • A CLN is best understood with an example. Assume there is a hedge fund that wants to capture $123 million of exposure to a fixed income instrument, but it only wants to invest $25 million as collateral. A bank agrees to help in the process. The bank will borrow $123 million at LIBOR and purchase the reference asset, which is currently yielding LIBOR plus 250 basis points. The reference asset is placed in a trust, which then issues a CLN to the hedge fund. The hedge fund will then give the bank $25 million, which is invested in a riskfree U.S. government obligation yielding 4%. This investment now represents the collateral on the bank’s borrowing. That means there is 20% ($23 million / $ 123 million) of collateral and a leverage multiple for the hedge fund of 5 times ($125 million / $25 million).
  • Remember that the reference asset is yielding LIBOR plus 250 basis points. The bank will keep LIBOR plus 100 basis points, using the LIBOR return to fund the cost of acquiring the reference asset and the additional 100 basis points as compensation for assuming the risk of default above the collateral of $25 million. The hedge fund will receive the 4% earned on the $25 million of collateral ($ 1 million) and will also receive the additional 150 basis point spread over the funding cost on the full $125 million ($1,875 million in additional return). This means that the hedge fund has captured an 11.5% leveraged return [($1 million + $1,875 million)/$25 million initial investment]!
  • There are no margin calls with a CLN, but there is still risk on the table for the hedge fund and for the bank. Should the reference asset lose more value than the $25 million in collateral, the hedge fund will default on its CLN obligation and lose the full $25 million investment. The bank will be responsible for any losses greater than the $25 million of hedge fund collateral. Thus, the bank will likely look to outsource this risk using a CDS contract.
28
Q

Collateralized loan obligation

A

Perhaps the most well-known form of a CDO is called a collateralized loan obligation (CLO). CLOs focus on repackaging high-yield bank loans.

29
Q

Describe synthetic CDOs and single-tranche CDOs

A
  • In a traditional CDO, which is also called a “cash CDO,” the credit assets owned by the SPV are fully funded with cash, and the repayment of the obligation is tied directly to cash flow from the underlying debt instruments. There is an alternative form of CDO called a synthetic CDO, which takes a different approach. With a synthetic CDO, the originator retains the reference assets on their balance sheet, but they transfer credit risk, in the form of credit default swaps, to an SPV which then creates the tradable synthetic CDO. This process is typically used to provide credit protection for 10% of the pool of assets held on the originator’s balance sheet. The other 90% of the default risk is hedged with a highlyrated counterparty using a senior swap. This complex derivative is a way of betting on the default prospects of a pool of assets rather than on the assets themselves.
  • There is also a form of CDO that is highly customizable. This is called a single-tranche CDO. With this credit derivative, an investor is trying to earn a better spread than on comparably rated bonds by selecting a specific reference asset with customizable maturity, coupon, collateral, subordination level, and target rating. This customization feature creates open dialogue between the single-tranche CDO buyer and seller, and by default will help prevent the seller from dumping unwanted risks on the buyer without prior knowledge. One key customizable feature is the attachment point, which is the point at which default begins to be the financial responsibility of the single-tranche CDO buyer.
30
Q

Assess the rating of CDOs by rating agencies prior to the 2007 financial crisis

A
  • Part of the push for solidly investment-grade ratings is that insurance companies, pensions, and money market funds have regulatory and internal requirements that only allow investments in investment-grade assets. Based on this level of demand and the fact that the rating agencies all had a profit motive, they were very willing to provide high ratings for many securitized products. The process would start with rating any tranche possible with a AAA rating. Then the typical next step was to repackage below-AAA rated tranches into new CDOs whereby another group emerged as AAA-rated because the default risk kept being pushed down further and further to the lowest equity tranches. This process would be repeated a few times until a substantial portion of securitized products received the coveted AAA stamp of approval.
  • It is also important to understand an alternate interpretation beyond merely a profit motive that caused the inaccurate ratings. The Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission (FCIC) found that the rating agencies were influenced by “flawed computer models, the pressure from financial firms that paid for the ratings, the relentless drive for market share, the lack of resources to do the job despite record profits, and the absence of meaningful public oversight.”
31
Q

Incremental and marginal CVA

A
  • Incremental CVA makes the most sense when the CVA needs to be charged to individual traders and business. The incremental CVA depends on the order in which trades are executed but does not change due to subsequent trades. A CVA desk charging this amount will directly offset the impact on their PnL from the change in CVA from the new trade.
  • Marginal CVA may be useful to break down a CVA for any number of netted trades into trade-level contributions that sum to the total CVA. Whilst it might not be used for pricing new transactions (due to the problem that marginal CVA changes when new trades are executed, implying PnL adjustment to trading books), it may be required for pricing trades transacted at the same time (perhaps due to being part of the same deal) with a given counterparty. Alternatively, marginal CVA is the appropriate way to calculate the trade-level CVA contributions at a given time. This may be useful where a CVA desk is concerned about their exposure to the default of a particular counterparty.