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Tiltrotor Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

Actual Instrument Approach

A

When actual instrument conditions are encountered below 1,000 ft above the airport/flight deck elevation during an instrument approach.

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2
Q

For a standard instrument rating, what must have occurred within the 6 months preceding the instrument evaluation

A
  1. 6 hours in actual or simulated IMC2. 12 instrument approaches under actual or simulated IMC, of which 6 must be precision and 6 must be non-precision
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3
Q

For a standard instrument rating, what must have occurred within the 12 months preceding the instrument evaluation

A
  1. 12 hours in actual or simulated IMC2. 18 instrument approaches under actual or simulated IMC, of which 12 must be precision and 6 must be non-precision
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4
Q

Approved flight simulators may be used to meet ___ of the minimum instrument rating requirements

A

half

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5
Q

Requirements for special instrument rating

A
  1. 5 years of military and non-military flying experience2. 2,000 hours military/civil time as commercial pilot or ATP3. 100 hours of military actual instrument time
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6
Q

Requirements for special instrument rating for pilots who display exceptional judgment and proficiency in instrument flying

A
  1. 3 years of military/civil flying experience2. 1,500 hours pilot/co-pilot time
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7
Q

Pilot time minimum hours for pilots with less than 20 years aviation service (annually and semi-annually)

A

Semi-annual: 40 hoursAnnual: 100 hours

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8
Q

Night Pilot time minimum hours for pilots with less than 20 years aviation service (annually and semi-annually)

A

Semi-annual: 6 hoursAnnual: 12 hours

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9
Q

For annual and semi-annual minimum flight hour requirements how much must be First Pilot

A

50%

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10
Q

Pilot time minimum hours for pilots with more than 20 years aviation service (annually and semi-annually)

A

Semi-annual: 24 hoursAnnual: 48 hours

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11
Q

Night and Instrument Pilot time minimum hours for pilots with more than 20 years aviation service (annually and semi-annually)

A

Semi-annual: 3Annual: 6Fiscal year requirements do not reduce minimum hours between instrument checks as per NATOPS

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12
Q

Instrument renewal can occur how many days before expiration and is valid for how long?

A

Can be accomplished 60 days preceding expiration of current evaluation and is valid for 12 months from the last day of the month in which the current evaluation expires, or 12 months from the last day of the month that the evaluation is flown

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13
Q

What regions are covered in AP/1, AP/1A

A

North and South America

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14
Q

What regions are covered in AP/2, AP/2A

A

Europe, Africa, and Middle East

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15
Q

What regions are covered in AP/3, AP/3A

A

Pacific, Australia, and Antactica

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16
Q

What regions are covered in AP/4, AP/4A

A

Eastern Europe and Asia

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17
Q

What do AP/1-4 contain

A

Theatre, regional, and national procedures

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18
Q

What do AP/1A-4A contain

A

Data on special use airspace within the region

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19
Q

AP1/B

A

Information on Military Training Routes

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20
Q

When shall position lights be on

A

30 minutes before sunset to 30 minutes after sunrise, or if the prevailing visibility is less than 3 statute miles

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21
Q

When shall anti-collision lights be on

A

anytime the engine is running, except when they adversely affect ground operations, or during flight in the clouds when they reflect into the cockpit

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22
Q

Lighting for formation flights in restricted areas

A

Up to 4 aircraft can fly on NVDs with lead through dash three’s navigation and anti-collision lights off, with the last aircraft having these lights on

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23
Q

Fuel consumption for fuel requirements shall be based on ___

A

Maximum endurance operation at 10,000ft

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24
Q

Fuel Requirements Alternate Not Required

A

Fuel to fly to destination plus 10% of planned fuel requirements

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25
Q

Fuel Requirements Alternate Required

A

Fuel to fly to fix serving destination approach, then to alternate airfield plus 10% of planned fuel requirements

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26
Q

Minimum planned fuel reserve upon landing at destination or alternate

A

Minimum of that needed for 20 hours of flight

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27
Q

When is an alternate airfield required

A

When weather at destination is forecast to be less than 3000/3 at ETA +/-1 hour

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28
Q

Weather required at the alternate if weather at destination is 0-0

A

3000/3 or better

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29
Q

Weather required at alternate if weather at destination meets published minimums for an instrument approach

A

Non-Precision: Published minimums plus 300-1Precision: Published minimums plus 200-1/2

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30
Q

When can you fly through a WW

A
  1. Storm has not progressed as forecast2. If VMC can be maintained3. Aircraft has operative radar and can detect and avoid isolated thunderstorms4. Aircraft performance allows flight above the storm
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31
Q

Purpose of Pilot Metro Service (PMSV)

A

To communicate weather to pilots To update the DD-175-1 Flight Weather BriefingTo receive PIREPS

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32
Q

EFAS (Enroute Flight Advisory Service) Flight Watch Frequencies

A

122.0 below 17,500ftDiscrete frequencies between 18,000 and 45,000ft

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33
Q

WST

A

Convective SIGMET

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34
Q

What conditions warrant a WST

A

Implies severe turbulence or icing, and/or low level windshearThunderstorms generating winds greater than 50 kts, hail larger than 3/4”, or tornados

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35
Q

WS

A

Non-Convective SIGMET

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36
Q

What conditions warrant a WS

A

Turbulence or icing not associated with thunderstormsDust or Volcanic eruption that reduces visibility to below 3 mi

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37
Q

WA

A

AIRMET

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38
Q

What conditions warrant a WA

A

Moderate icing or turbulenceWinds 30 kts or lessLess than 1000/3

39
Q

How often are WAs issued

A

Scheduled every 6 hours

40
Q

Takeoff minimums for a pilot with a Standard Instrument Rating

A
  1. Must have the published minimums for the available Non-Precision Approach but not less than 300/12. If precision approach is available then can takeoff with less than 300/1 if weather is at least equal to precision approach minimums, but not less than 200-1/2
41
Q

When can turn be made after an IFR departure

A

400ft unless specifically required by departure procedure by terms “immediate” or “as soon as practical”

42
Q

Climb rate required for IFR departure

A

minimum of 200ft/nm

43
Q

Trouble T

A

Identifies airports with obstacles or other than standard takeoff minimums

44
Q

When does a Trouble T apply to a SID

A

When the SID does not have a published climb gradient

45
Q

When does the controller assume responsibility for obstacle clearance

A

Not until he starts giving radar vectors.Departure instructions issued prior to takeoff do not constitute radar vectors

46
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude:1. Lowest altitude that meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment

47
Q

Navigational signal coverage of a MOCA

A

Only guarantees coverage within 22 nm of VORTAC or VOR

48
Q

Communication signal coverage of a MOCA

A

Does not guarantee communications coverage

49
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude:Lowest altitude between radio fixes which assures navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements

50
Q

When should you advise ATC of a change in airspeed

A

Change of 5% or 10kts (whichever is greater) from the filed flight plan

51
Q

Leave clearance limit when the clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins

A

Begin descent at EFC time or at the expected time of arrival as calculated from the filed ETE if no EFC is given

52
Q

Leave clearance limit when the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins

A

Leave the clearance limit at EFC time or upon arrival over the clearance limit and proceed to the fix from which an approach begins and commence descent at the ETA as calculated in the filed flight plan if no EFC is given

53
Q

When should you initiate lost communications procedures on a radar approach

A

If no transmissions are heard for:1 minute while being vectored15 seconds on ASR final5 seconds on PAR final

54
Q

Minimum fuel

A

Fuel state is such that you can accept no undue delay. It is not an emergency but an undue delay may result in an emergency

55
Q

When should you declare emergency fuel

A

When you need traffic priority to ensure safe landing. State fuel remaining in minutes

56
Q

Minimum equipment required for IFR operation in Class B Airspace

A

VOR or TACAN Receiver

57
Q

Class E Airspace for Federal Airways

A

Extends from 1,200ft up to but not including 18,000ft

58
Q

Restricted Areas

A

Flight is not wholly prohibited but is subject to restrictions due to unusual, often invisible hazards. Should get authorization from controlling agency before entering.

59
Q

Warning Areas

A

Airspace from 3nm outward from the coast of the US which contains activity that may be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. Purpose is to warn non-participating aircraft of potential danger.

60
Q

Who should you contact to receive information about operations within a MOA

A

Any FSS within 100 miles of the MOA

61
Q

Alert Area

A

Purpose is to warn nonparticipating aircraft of an area that contains high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity

62
Q

When a controller gives a speed to be maintained it must be maintained within ___

A

10 kts

63
Q

Holding pattern maximum outbound timing (when the pattern is based on timing)

A

1 minute below 14,000ft1.5 minutes above 14,000 ft

64
Q

When does outbound timing for a holding pattern begin

A

When abeam the holding fixIf the fix cannot be determined, when wings are level outbound

65
Q

Maximum holding airspeed at Navy Airfields

A

230 KIAS

66
Q

When should airspeed be reduced to holding airspeed

A

Within 3 minutes of reaching the holding fix

67
Q

Maximum holding airspeed at 6,000ft and below

A

200 KIAS

68
Q

Maximum holding airspeed from 6,001ft to 14,000ft

A

230 KIAS

69
Q

Maximum holding airspeed above 14,000ft

A

265 KIAS

70
Q

TWEB

A

Transcribed Weather Broadcast - On selected NAVAIDS and/or VORs. Identified within a white T in a black circle at the VOR facility

71
Q

HIWAS

A

Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory - Broadcast over selected NAVAIDs as necessary with SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Center Weather Advisories

72
Q

Restriction for Instrument Approaches by Aircraft in Formation

A

Instrument approaches with or without the intent to land in IMC by formations of more than 2 aircraft are not authorized. Formation flights shall not commence an instrument approach when weather is less than circling minimums.

73
Q

Weather minimums for a formation flight if circling approach is not authorized

A

1000/3

74
Q

What does “Established on a Segment” of an instrument approach mean?

A

Within one-half full scale deflection of ILS or VOR and +/-5 degrees of NDB bearing

75
Q

Minimum approach visibility minimum for helicopter and tiltrotor aircraft

A

May reduce visibility minimum to one-half the visibility minimum for CAT A aircraft, but in no case can it be lower than 1/4 sm or 1,200 RVR (Except for COPTER approaches)

76
Q

Where is obstruction clearance provided on VASI

A

Within +/-10 degrees of centerline out to 4 nm from the threshold

77
Q

PAPI Indications

A

3 white: 0.2 degrees above glidepath4 white: 0.5 degrees above glidepath3 red: 0.2 degrees below glidepath4 red: 0.5 degrees below glidepath

78
Q

Runway edge lighting colors

A

WhiteAmber for last 2,000ft or half of the runway whichever is less

79
Q

Runway centerline lighting colors

A

WhiteAlternate red and white from last 3,000ft to last 1,000ftRed for the last 1,000ft

80
Q

How long will lights remain on when using pilot controlled lighting

A

15 minutes after most recent activation

81
Q

Approach Category A

A

below 91 knots

82
Q

Approach Category B

A

91 to 121 knots

83
Q

Approach Category C

A

121 to 141 knots

84
Q

Approach Category D

A

141 to 166 knots

85
Q

Approach Category E

A

above 166 knots

86
Q

During missed approach, delay turns until ___

A

Above 400ft AGL and past the departure end of the runway (if visibility permits)

87
Q

What altitude should be flown if a mountain wave is unavoidable

A

At least 50% higher than the height of the mountain that is causing the wave

88
Q

At what temperatures is structural icing possible

A

Between 0 and -40 degrees C, but most icing occurs between 0 and -17 degrees

89
Q

What is the most serious form of icing

A

Clear, because it adheres so firmly to the aircraft

90
Q

Temperature range where clear ice is most likely to form

A

between 0 and -8 degrees C

91
Q

Temperature range where rime ice is most likely to form

A

between 0 and -15 degrees C

92
Q

What engine indications are should make you suspect engine icing

A

Rise in EGT with a drop in RPM

93
Q

Conditions that are clues that wind shear may exist in a thunderstorm

A

Temperature change of 10 degrees F or more across a frontFront that is moving 30 kts or more

NR (20 decks)

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