Things that missed Flashcards

1
Q

After battery master selected on what must be checked?

A

■ Flight compartment standby lights
■ Master warning / master caution
■ APU & main battery 22V or more

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2
Q

Airworthiness acceptance is FOM airworthiness

A

● IS in FliteView
● DMIs reviewed
● MEL / CDL on release
● Review MX log (14 days if paper)

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3
Q

When completing preflight checks task, what must be completed?

A

Briefings (ICE and all flights)
External inspection / security inspection
Airworthiness acceptance
Release review
+ additional duties

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4
Q

What is verified in Nav 1 & 2?

A

Auto-tuned
Transponder / ADSB

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5
Q

When are you required to calculate fuel load using FliteView manifest?

A

■ Fuel in the center tank and wing tanks are not full

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6
Q

After two min elapsed and no R FUEL LOS PRESS, what will the FO do?

A

■ Dry motor the engine for 30 seconds

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7
Q

Prior to departure the thrust reversers deploy and stow cycles must be less than
how many seconds?

A

■ 5 seconds

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8
Q

○ What is the definition of cold soaked?

A

■ 8 hours or more at -30 C or less

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9
Q

○ What pushback procedures are to be followed during pushback on a
contaminated ramp?

A

■ Delay engine start until us back complete
■ If starting an engine during pushback, only start one engine and maintain
idle thrust
● Then reposition to start the second engine
■ Headsets required for the ground crew
● Pilots can only NOT have headset if audio is deferred

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10
Q

○ How do you perform the rapid alignment procedure?

A

■ Compass switches (both) set to MAG
● If one set to DG, set it to MAG and see if it slews
■ Taxi away from ramp
■ Crosscheck against compass to identify which PFD is wrong
■ Affected compass set to DG then back to MAG
■ If it doesn’t work, continue with taxi

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11
Q

When is the before takeoff check to the line accomplished?

A

approaching to the runway as approaching to the runway.

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12
Q

If EFIS COMP MON message remains prior to takeoff, what is the procedure to
correct this message for takeoff?

A

■ Manual alignment procedure
■ Identify the incorrect PFD
■ Remain in MAG, slew the incorrect one to rwy heading

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13
Q

When is reduced thrust prohibited for takeoff?

A

■ Windshear
■ Anti-ice on
■ A/SKID INOP
■ Tailwind >5
■ Contaminated
■ Heavy departed in front
■ Flaps 8

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14
Q

○ When would an unpressurized takeoff be used?

A

■ Performance (like FFOD bleeds closed), or
■ Anti-ice requires it, and
■ APU deferred

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15
Q

○ What precautions should be taken if there is suspected windshear during takeoff?

A

■ Always avoid if you can
■ Flaps 8
■ Longest runway with lowest chance
■ Monitor speed and trends
■ No flex takeoffs
■ AP off

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16
Q

○ What altitudes can EGPWS detect windshear?

A

■ RA 10-1500AGL

17
Q

○ What is important to note when it is annuciated?

A

■ Below 150AGL it can pitch you 2-3deg above PLI
PM should call out descending below 1000AGL

18
Q

○ What is our normal cruise speed at/below planned altitude?

A

■ Release speed

19
Q

○ What is the minimum cruise speed for all altitudes?

A

■ Vmd

20
Q

○ When are you required to advise ATC of your TAS?

A

■ 10kts or 5% different than planned

21
Q

○ On the speed cards Vmd speed line, what do dashed lines indicate?

A

not alloed to hold

22
Q

○ What V speeds are set for the landing data task?

A

■ Flaps 8 V2
■ VFTO

23
Q

What is the minimum holding speed?

A

■ Vmd
■ Found on speed cards by weight

24
Q

What is the stabilized approach criteria for instrument approaches?

A

■ FAF
Gear down
Final landing configuration
Spoilers 0
■ 1000 HAT
Above idle
< 1000FPM
-0/+10 KIAS
Before landing check complete
■ 500 HAT
Vref established

25
Q

Stabilized approach criteria for visual approaches?

A

—1500 HAT
Flaps >0
Spoilers 0
Gear down
—1000 HAT
Final landing configuration
< 1000 FPM
Airspeed -0/+10
BEfore landing check complete
Above idle
—500 HAT
Vref established

26
Q

When would a single engine turn be conducted?

A

■ Deferred APU
■ Ground power unavailable

27
Q

○ What are the post flight duties?

A

■ External inspection
■ FliteView closeout
■ Miscellaneous lights off
● General operations

28
Q
A