Things Rosh Humbled me on Flashcards

1
Q

…..are the only medications that manage CHF diuresis in the presence of impaired renal function.

A

loop diuretics

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2
Q

BP and HR in neurogenic shock

A

hypotension and bradycardia

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3
Q

Asthma treatment

A
  • mild int asthma = SABA PRN
  • mild pers asthma = Low ICS
  • Mod pers asthma = Low ICS + LABA or High ICS
  • Severe = High ICS + LABA
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4
Q

Normal ABG values

A
  • PaCO2 - 35-45
  • PaO2 - 80-95
  • pH 7.35-7.45
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5
Q

ABG in COPD exacerbation

A

compensatory respiratory acidosis (normal pH, borderline high/normal CO2, low pO2.)

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6
Q

Hypovolemic shock treatment

A
  1. NS or LR.
  2. dopamine if SBP <90, dobutamine if >90.
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7
Q

tx pericarditis

A

NSAIDS or colchicine

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8
Q

pnuemonia + verrusous skin leasion is probs what diagnosis? how do you treat it

A

Blastomycosis, tx with amphotercin B. (from great lakes. moist because its a fungus). HIV patients MC.

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9
Q

Trigger: bence jones protein

A

Multiple Myeloma. Causes Pathologic fractures = MC in rib, pelvis, femoral neck and vertebre.

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10
Q

high serum protein and Rouleaux formation on smear suggests what

A

multiple myeloma

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11
Q

blunting of the costophrenic angles or complete opacification of hemithorax on CXR suggests what

how would it present

A

plaural effusion.
would present with decreased chest expansion, breath sounds and tactile fremitus. also dullness to percussion.

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12
Q

trigger: BCR-ABL1 gene

A

CML

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13
Q

active TB tx

A

“RIPE” rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol.

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14
Q

Latent TB tx

A

Isoniazid for 9 months + pyridoxine
OR
rifampin alone for 4 motnhs

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15
Q

MC valve abnormality in MI is …

A

Mitral regurg (“M” i for “mitral”)

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16
Q

WPW EKG presentation

A

short PR and slurred upstroke of QRS (delta wave)

tx w procainamide

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17
Q

Rheumatoid arthritic pleural effusions show what on pleural effusion testing

A

high protein, low glucose, low compliment level.

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18
Q

MC SE of CCB

A

constipation

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19
Q

Stable Ventricular Tachycardai tx

A
  1. procainamide
  2. amiodarone and lidocaine second line
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20
Q

unstable VT tx

A
  1. synchronized cardioversion.
  2. amiodarone.
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21
Q

pulseless VT tx

A
  1. defibrillation + CPR. then follow cardiac rescusitation algorithm
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22
Q

Acute (<48hrs) hyponatremia tx

A

3% hypotonic saline/10min

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23
Q

Chronic (>48hrs) hyponatremia tx

A

3% hypotonic saline over 24 hrs.

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24
Q

DVT w kidney failure treatment

A

Unfrac heparin bridged to warfarin.

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25
Q

if on warfarin, avoid what foods

A

leafy green veggies

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26
Q

chronic purulent sputum prod. High resolution CT scan with tram tracks.

A

bronchiectasis

tx w abx based on culture, chest physiotherapy and bronchodilators

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27
Q

Hypertensive urgency tx

A

clonidine or captopril

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28
Q

hypertensive emergency tx

A

nicardipine aor labetelol.

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29
Q

MC underlying cause for torsades de pointes.

A

Prolonged QT interval

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30
Q

MVP can cause what as a complications

A

MR

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31
Q

anti-histidyl-transfer RNA synthetase antidodies are seen when

A

polymyositis

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32
Q

greatest immediate risk reduction for abdominal aortic aneurysm.

A

smoking cessation

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33
Q

DM diagnostic criteria

A
  1. DM symptoms + random BG >200
  2. fasting BG >125
  3. BG>200 2 hours after 75g glucose load
  4. HbA1C>6.5

any of these 2 times

34
Q

gout treatment

A

Indomethacin (NSAID), colchicine, glucocorticoids.

allopurinol for PREVENTION

35
Q

treatment of bells palsy

A

glucocorticoids.
add antiviral if vesicles present in ear or if super severe.

36
Q

reactive arthritis presentation

A

swelling, warm, painful joint several weeks after infection.

37
Q

septic arthritis presentation

A

fever and chills with swelling/pain in joint. synovial fluid will show 50-150k WBCs and have a positive culture.

38
Q

how to diagnose PE in person w renal fialure

A

ventilation perfusion scan

39
Q

Cor pulmonale can result in what valvular disorder

A

tricuspid regurgitation

40
Q

HFE gene =

A

hereditary hemachromatosis

41
Q

atrophy of caudate nucleus and putamen is seen with…

A

huntingtons

42
Q

lewy bodies in substantia nigra is seen with..

A

parkinsons

43
Q

how do labs appear in anemia of chronic disease.

A

High ferritin + normal MCV + low hbg

44
Q

EKG reading w 3 different P wave morhpologies is called …….. and is usually seen in COPD exacerbation and other hypoxic states

A

multifocal atrial tachycardia

45
Q

Hypercalcemia >14 tx

A

IV saline FIRST, then IV bisphosphonates and calcitonins

46
Q

how do you diagnose PAD

A

ankle brachial index

47
Q

Epididymitis with bacterial growth on blue agar

A

E. coli

48
Q

patient has CHICKENS. lives in Missouri or ohio. farming. with pneumonia now.

A

histoplasmosis

49
Q

increased JVP, peripheral edema, ascites, hepatomegaly. AND accenuation of the pulmonic component of S2

A

pulmonary hypertension

50
Q

dx of septic shock

A

sepsis + Lactate >2 despite fluid rescusitation

51
Q

gross hematuria 1-2 days after upper respiratory infectin.

A

IgA nephropathy

52
Q

acute interstitial nephritis can be caused by….

A

drugs, like NSAIDS!!!

53
Q

MC area for acute arterial occlusion

A

COMMON femoral artery. becuase its most COMMON its the COMMON femoral artery

54
Q

what drug is used to provoke vasospasms for prinzmetal angina in coronary angiography

A

argovine

55
Q

what drug is used to produce bronchospasm

A

methacoline

56
Q

Treatment of hypoglycemia

A

give fast acting oral carbs UNLESS unconcious or unable to ingest food! then use dextrose or glucagon

57
Q

pleural criteria that is TRANSUDATIVE

A

LOW pleural serum protein and LDH and LOW plerual fluid LDH

caused by HF, PE, nephrotic syndrome or cirrhosis

58
Q

anal fistulas, perirectal abscesses, anal ulcers all are commonly caused by….

A

chrons disease

59
Q

opening Snap

A

mitral Stenosis

60
Q

presents with linear erythematous induration that is palpable and tender to palpation.

A

superficial thrombophlebitis

dx w venous duplex, tx w NSAIDS

61
Q

MC SE of metformin

A

GI upset (diarrhea and nuasea)

62
Q

first line tx for hemroidectomy

A

ubber band ligation UNLESS the patient is on anticoags (sclerotherapy indicated) or if hemorroids have accutely thrombosed (excision indicated)

63
Q

Acute diverticulitis dx

A

CT abdomen

64
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A

flushing
wheezing
diarrhea
sweating
hypotension

65
Q

when is carotid endartectomy indicated

A

if patient is symptomatic OR stenosis is >70%

66
Q

if TIA is suspected and CT is normal what isthe next step

A

get diffusion MRI

67
Q

Prinzmetal Angina tx

A

CCB, nitrates or ACEI

DO NOT USE BB

68
Q

Pulsatile liver, Large pulsatile neck veins + heart failure s/s

A

tricuspid regurg.

Everythings TRYing to REGURGITATE the fluids. (idk bear w me ok)

69
Q

lyme disease vector

A

Ixodes scapularis = deer tick

70
Q

PREVENTION of cluster headaches

A

short term steroid and CCB

(tx of current is 100% o2 on nonrebreather)

71
Q

change in skin color, varicose veins, ulcers all on lower extremities

A

chronic venous insufficiency

tx = compression socks and elevation

72
Q

CREST is the pneumonic for what diagnosis?

A

scleroderma!

Calcinosis Cutis
Raynauds
esophagyl dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia

73
Q

anticentromere antibody

A

scleroderma

74
Q

what flu treatment is used with pregnancy

A

oseltamivir (tamiflu)

75
Q

which hepatitis infections present with a lacey reticular rash (livedo reticularis)

A

Hep B and C

76
Q

1st line treatment for ascites

A

loop diuretics (furosemide) and salt restriction

77
Q

tx for hyperkalemia.

A
  1. calcium gluconate or calcium chloride
  2. insulin, albuterol, sodium bicarb
  3. loops
78
Q

orthostatic hypotension definitions

A

fall in systolic >20 or diastolic >10 within 2-5 minutes of quiet standing after 5 minutes of supine rest.

79
Q

Tx of acute myocarditis

A

furosemide for fluid overload
ACEI for cardiac remodeling
BB if EF<40%

80
Q

harsh systolic murmur radiating to carotids

A

aortic stenosis

81
Q

what is the MC risk factor for Aortic dissection

A

Hypertension