theory questions that I mess up from part 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

A distribution with fat tails is most accurately described as:

A
leptokurtic.

B
platykurtic.

C
mesokurtic.

A

A
leptokurtic.

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2
Q

An analyst covering the oil and gas sector calculates an average leverage ratio of 2.31 for five of the industry’s leading firms. The analyst believes that this measure is representative of leverage ratios for other companies in the industry. The group of five firms is most accurately described as a:

A
sample.

B
sample statistic.

C
statistical inference.

A

A
sample.

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3
Q

A two-dimensional rectangular array would be most suitable for organizing a collection of raw:

A
panel data.

B
time-series data.

C
cross-sectional data.

A

A
panel data.

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4
Q

For a risky asset with volatile historical returns, which of the following measures of mean return will be most likely be highest?

A
Harmonic mean

B
Arithmetic mean

C
Geometric mean

A

B
Arithmetic mean

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5
Q

when we have a mode and a median, when is a distribution most likely positively skewed?

what about negatively skewed?

A

distribution is positively skewed if the mode is less than the median, which is less than the mean.

A distribution is negatively skewed if the mean is less than the median, which is less than the mode

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6
Q

A tag cloud, or word cloud

A

used to illustrate the frequency of textual data, which are a type of unstructured data. It allows analysts to quickly spot the most frequently used terms in a report/article

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7
Q

Which of the following most accurately characterizes the relative values of various measures of central tendency for a given data series?

A
arithmetic mean < geometric mean < harmonic mean

B
geometric mean > arithmetic mean > harmonic mean

C
arithmetic mean > geometric mean > harmonic mean

A

C
arithmetic mean > geometric mean > harmonic mean

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8
Q

A bar chart that orders categories by frequency in descending order and includes a line displaying cumulative relative frequency is best referred to as a:

A
Pareto Chart.

B
grouped bar chart.

C
frequency polygon.

A

A
Pareto Chart.

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9
Q

Published ratings on stocks ranging from 1 (strong sell) to 5 (strong buy) are most likely examples of which measurement scale?

A
Ordinal

B
Continuous

C
Nominal

A

A
Ordinal

Ordinal scales sort data into categories that are ordered with respect to some characteristic and may involve numbers to identify categories but do not assure that the differences between scale values are equal

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10
Q

A line chart with two variables—for example, revenues and earnings per share—is best suited for visualizing:

A
the joint variation in the variables.

B
underlying trends in the variables over time.

C
the degree of correlation between the variables.

A

B
underlying trends in the variables over time

An important benefit of a line chart is that it facilitates showing changes in the data and underlying trends in a clear and concise way. Often a line chart is used to display the changes in data series over time

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11
Q

A heat map is best suited for visualizing the:

A
frequency of textual data.

B
degree of correlation between different variables.

C
shape, center, and spread of the distribution of numerical data.

A

B
degree of correlation between different variables.

A heat map is commonly used for visualizing the degree of correlation between different variable

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12
Q

he average return for Portfolio A over the past twelve months is 3%, with a standard deviation of 4%. The average return for Portfolio B over this same period is also 3%, but with a standard deviation of 6%. The geometric mean return of Portfolio A is 2.85%. The geometric mean return of Portfolio B is most likely:

A
less than 2.85%.

B
equal to 2.85%.

C
greater than 2.85%.

A

A
less than 2.85%.

The more disperse a distribution, the greater the difference between the arithmetic mean and the geometric mean

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13
Q

A financial analyst wants to visualize the dispersion of the daily closing price of the FTSE 100 index in the previous year. In order to achieve this purpose, the analyst is least likely to use a:

A
histogram.

B
scatter plot.

C
box and whisker plot.

A

B
scatter plot.

A histogram uses a chart to present the distribution of numerical data such as the price of FTSE 100. This can show the dispersion in the data. Similarly, a box and whisker plot uses a box, whiskers, and fences to show different quartiles of the data as well as the range.

A scatter plot describes the joint variation in two numerical variables. There is only one numerical variable here, which is the daily closing price of FTSE 100. Therefore, a scatter plot is not an appropriate tool in this problem.

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14
Q

Data values that are categorical and not amenable to being organized in a logical order are most likely to be characterized as:

A
ordinal data.

B
discrete data.

C
nominal data.

A

C
nominal data.

C is correct. Nominal data are categorical values that are not amenable to being organized in a logical order.

A is incorrect because ordinal data are categorical data that can be logically ordered or ranked.

B is incorrect because discrete data are numerical values that result from a counting process; thus, they can be or- dered in various ways, such as from highest to lowest value.

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15
Q

Which visualization tool is most likely recommended to be used if the goal is to make comparisons of three or more variables over time?

A
13%
Heat map

B
66%
Bubble line chart

C
20%
Scatter plot matrix

A
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16
Q

An investor purchases a stock and intends to sell it one year from now. The stock will increase or decrease in value only at the end of each month. If the investor wants to find the probability that the stock will increase at the end of the first month, she should most likely use a:

A
uniform distribution.

B
Bernoulli distribution.

C
lognormal distribution.

A

B
Bernoulli distribution.

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17
Q

Which of the following statements is most likely accurate? When the degrees of freedom increase:

A

the skewness of the F-distribution increases.

B
the mode of the chi-square distribution shifts to the right.

C
the tails of the Student’s-distribution become fatter and longer.

A

B
the mode of the chi-square distribution shifts to the right.

When the degrees of freedom increase, the shape of the chi-square distribution begins to resemble a bell curve. This shifts the peak of the curve (i.e., the mode) to the righ

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18
Q

A normal distribution is characterized by a mean of 200 and a variance of 100. For an observation with a value of 200, the standardized value is closest to:

A
0

B
1

C
2

A

Z = (X - u) / (standard deviation)

A
0

With a normal distribution, the standardized value (Z) of a given observation (X) is calculated using the following formula:

Z score formula

basically:

(200 - 200) / Ssqrt(100)
=
0

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19
Q

Which of the following statements is most accurate? Compared to analytical methods, Monte Carlo simulation:

A
provides more precision when valuing options.

B
provides more insight into causal relationships.

C
can be used to value a wider variety of options than analytical methods.

A

C
can be used to value a wider variety of options than analytical methods.

Monte Carlo simulation can only provide statistical estimates, not precise valuations. And, unlike analytical methods, Monte Carlo simulation does not provide insight into the causal relationships between variables.

However, Monte Carlo simulation can be used to value many types of options that cannot be priced with analytical methods (e.g., Asian call options)

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20
Q

The value of the cumulative distribution function
, where
is a particular outcome, for a discrete uniform distribution:

A
sums to 1.

B
lies between 0 and 1.

C
decreases as
increases.

A

B
lies between 0 and 1.

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is most accurate? A probability distribution:

A
predicts the value of a discrete random variable.

B
lists the potential outcomes of a random variable.

C
specifies the probabilities of the value of a random variable.

A

C
specifies the probabilities of the value of a random variable.

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22
Q

An investor purchases a stock and intends to sell it one year from now. The stock can increase or decrease in value only at the end of each month. If the investor wants to find the probability that the stock will go up in value more times than it falls in value during the year, he should most likely use a:

A
Binomial distribution

B
Bernoulli distribution

C
Lognormal distribution

A

A
Binomial distribution

There are two possible outcomes at the end of each month, either the stock increases or decreases in value. Thus, the random variable could be assigned a value of 1 when the stock price increases and a value of 0 when it decreases.

Because the investor wants to look at how many months the stock increased versus how many months the stock decreased, a distribution that counts the number of up months in over a year (
= 12) should be used. This would be the binomial distribution.

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23
Q

Which parameter equals zero in a normal distribution?

A
Kurtosis

B
Skewness

C
Standard deviation

A

B
Skewness

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24
Q

The lognormal distribution is a more accurate model for the distribution of stock prices than the normal distribution because stock prices are most likely:

A
symmetrical.

B
unbounded.

C
non-negative.

A

C
non-negative.

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25
Q

Which of the following events can be best represented as a Bernoulli trial?

A
The flip of a coin

B
The closing price of a stock

C
The picking of a random integer between 1 and 10

A

A
The flip of a coin

A trial, such as a coin flip, will produce one of two outcomes. Such a trial is a Bernoulli trial.

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26
Q

Compared to Monte Carlo simulation, which of the following is most likely to be cited as an advantage of the Black-Scholes-Merton (BSM) option pricing model?

A
The BSM model can be used to value any European-style option.

B
The BSM model is more efficient for pricing European-style options.

C
Monte Carlo simulation cannot be used to value newer, more complex options.

A

B
The BSM model is more efficient for pricing European-style options.

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27
Q

The total number of parameters that fully characterizes a multivariate normal distribution for the returns on two stocks is:

A3.

B4.

C5.

A

C5.

A bivariate normal distribution (two stocks) will have:

2 means
2 variances
2(2 – 1)/2 = 1 correlation
So, there are 2 + 2 + 1 = 5 parameters in total.

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28
Q

Which one of the following statements concerning chi-square and F-distributions is most likely false?

A
They are both asymmetric distributions.

B
The domains of their pdfs are positive and negative numbers.

C
As their degrees of freedom increase, the shapes of their pdfs become more bell curve–like.

A

B
The domains of their pdfs are positive and negative numbers.

Both chi-square and F-distributions are bounded from below by zero, so the domains of their pdfs are restricted to positive numbers.

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29
Q

A random variable with an infinite number of possible values can be classified as:

A
a lognormal random variable only.

B
a continuous random variable only.

C
either a continuous or a discrete random variable.

A

C
either a continuous or a discrete random variable

a discrete random variable can have an infinite number of possibilities. Notably, stock prices are often discrete random variables in the sense that they may only have certain incremental values (e.g., $0.01, $0.02, $0.03, etc.).

However, because there is no upward limit on its potential value, a stock’s price can be modeled as a continuous random variable with a lognormal distribution.

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30
Q

A Monte Carlo simulation can most likely be used to:

A
directly provide precise valuations of call options.

B
simulate a process from historical records of returns.

C
test the sensitivity of a model to changes in assumptions—for example, on distributions of key variables.

A

C
test the sensitivity of a model to changes in assumptions—for example, on distributions of key variables.

A characteristic feature of Monte Carlo simulation is the generation of a large number of random samples from a specified probability distribution or distributions to represent the role of risk in the system. Therefore, it is very useful for investigating the sensitivity of a model to changes in assumptions—for example, on distributions of key variables.

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31
Q

In contrast to normal distributions, lognormal distributions most likely:

A
are skewed to the left.

B
have outcomes that cannot be negative.

C
are more suitable for describing asset returns than asset prices.

A

B
have outcomes that cannot be negative.

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32
Q

A limitation of Monte Carlo simulation is:

A
its failure to do “what if” analysis.

B
that it requires historical records of returns.

C
its inability to independently specify cause-and-effect relationships.

A

C
its inability to independently specify cause-and-effect relationships.

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33
Q

Which of the following is most likely one of the parameters required to completely describe a multivariate normal distribution?

A
Kurtosis

B
Skewness

C
Correlation

A

C
Correlation

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34
Q

Safety-first rules are most likely to be used by investors who:

A
consider risk symmetrically.

B
are concerned about shortfall risk.

C
do not consider the correlations of returns on assets within a portfolio.

A

B
are concerned about shortfall risk.

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35
Q

Which of the following statements is least likely accurate concerning both the chi-square and
-distributions?

A
Both distributions are asymmetric

B
Neither distribution allows for negative values

C
The F-distribution is expressed as the sum of two chi-squared distributions

A

C
The F-distribution is expressed as the sum of two chi-squared distributions

Answer choice A is accurate. Both chi-square and F-distributions are positively skewed, meaning that both have a long right tail. Small values are more likely than large values. Although both distributions more closely resemble a bell curve for increasingly higher degrees of freedom, neither is symmetric.

Answer choice B is accurate. The chi-square distribution is the sum of the squares of standard normal random variables, so it cannot be negative. Because the F-distribution is a ratio of two chi-square random variables, it follows that this distribution cannot include negative values either.

36
Q

Which of the following statements is most accurate? A probability distribution:

A
predicts the value of a discrete random variable.

B
lists the potential outcomes of a random variable.

C
specifies the probabilities of the value of a random variable

A

C
specifies the probabilities of the value of a random variable

37
Q

An investor purchases a stock and intends to sell it one year from now. The stock can increase or decrease in value only at the end of each month. If the investor wants to find the probability that the stock will go up in value more times than it falls in value during the year, he should most likely use a:

A
Binomial distribution

B
Bernoulli distribution

C
Lognormal distribution

A

A
Binomial distribution

38
Q

A hedge fund sees huge potential in the video gaming industry and plans to take a long position in a few video game developers. To better understand this industry and its latest trends, the fund sends out surveys to its analysts who play video games. The survey asks about their favorite games, the amount of time they spend on gaming, their experience with various game developers, and so on.

This sampling method is most likely known as:

A
systematic sampling.

B
judgmental sampling.

C
convenience sampling.

A

C
convenience sampling.

Convenience sampling selects samples based on how accessible they are for the researcher.

The video game industry is vast, and it may be difficult to gather first-hand experience from a large number of video gamers. The hedge fund overcomes this difficulty by surveying its internal members, which are more accessible than outsiders. This sample may not be representative of the population because the analysts may have very similar backgrounds.

39
Q

An estimator is most likely considered to be efficient if:

increasing sample size produces more accurate estimates of the population parameter.

B
the mean of its sampling distribution matches the parameter that it is meant to estimate.

C
no other unbiased estimator of the same parameter has a sampling error with a smaller variance.

A

C
no other unbiased estimator of the same parameter has a sampling error with a smaller variance

An estimator is considered to be efficient if is that it has the smallest standard deviation of all unbiased estimators of the same parameter.

When the sample distribution’s mean equals the parameter, an estimator is unbiased.

If estimates become more accurate as sample size increases, an estimator is consistent

40
Q

Which of the following biases most likely skew the result upward when evaluating the performance of an index?

A
Backfill bias

B
Look-ahead bias

C
Time-period bias

A

A
Backfill bias

Backfill bias is a type of sample selection bias. When a new fund is added to an index, its past performance may be backfilled into the index’s database. This can inflate the index return because new funds are normally added only after they have good performance.

Look-ahead bias occurs if the information is used that would not have been available on the test data. It does not create an upward bias in index return.

Time-period bias occurs if the time period over which the data represents is too long or too short. This also does not skew the index return upward.

41
Q

All else equal, an increase in which of the following will most likely narrow the width of a confidence interval?

A
Sample size

B
Sample variance

C
Sample standard deviation

A

A
Sample size

Increasing the sample mean will not change the width of the confidence interval, it will just shift the range that the confidence interval covers.

42
Q

Which of the following best describes cluster sampling?

A
A one-stage cluster sampling uses all observations in each sampled cluster

B
The samples in each cluster need to share similar characteristics based on certain criteria

C
Cluster sampling creates samples that are more representative of the population compared to simple random sampling

A

A
A one-stage cluster sampling uses all observations in each sampled cluster

43
Q

An estimator with an expected value equal to the parameter that it is intended to estimate is most likely described as:

A
efficient.

B
unbiased.

C
consistent.

A

B
unbiased.

44
Q

Compared with bootstrap resampling, jackknife resampling:

A
is done with replacement.

B
usually requires that the number of repetitions is equal to the sample size.

C
produces dissimilar results for every run because resamples are randomly drawn.

A

B
usually requires that the number of repetitions is equal to the sample size.

For a sample of size n, jackknife resampling usually requires
repetitions. In contrast, with bootstrap resampling, we are left to determine how many repetitions are appropriate.

44
Q

Xueting Jiang is a financial analyst at CrystalGlobe Fund Inc. She recently created a financial model to estimate the mean price of a specific emerging market index. When her supervisor asks about the model, Jiang says:

“I believe this model will produce estimates that, on average, match the true mean price. However, the estimates may fluctuate a lot from this true mean price if our sample size is too small, which is problematic.”

Based on Jiang’s description, her financial model is most likely:

A
biased and inefficient.

B
unbiased and consistent.

C
unbiased but inconsistent.

A

B
unbiased and consistent.

An unbiased estimator is one whose expected value equals the parameter it is estimating. Jiang’s financial model is unbiased because the estimates have an expected value equal to the true population value.

A consistent estimator gets closer to the population parameter’s value as the sample size increases. Said differently, a consistent estimator gets further from the population parameter’s value when the sample size decreases. This matches the description of Jiang’s model.

An inconsistent estimator will have the same standard error regardless of the sample size.

44
Q

Which of the following methods is most appropriate to use when only some members of a finite population can be identified?

A
Systematic sampling

B
Simple random sampling

C
Stratified random sampling

A

A
Systematic sampling

Systematic sampling can be used when not all members of a population can be coded or even identified to be placed in groups. It involves selecting every kth member of a population until the desired size of the sample is reached.

Simple random sampling often involves coding each member of a population and then randomly selecting a sample from that population.

Stratified random sampling involves dividing the population into subpopulations based on one or more classification criteria and drawing samples from each group. All members of a population need to be able to be identified and coded or grouped for these methods to work.

45
Q

Which of the following characteristics of an investment study most likely indicates time-period bias?

A
The study is based on a short time-series.

B
Information not available on the test date is used.

C
A structural change occurred prior to the start of the study’s time series.

A

A
The study is based on a short time-series.

A short time series is likely to give period-specific results that may not reflect a longer time period.

46
Q

Which of the following statements is most accurate? According to the central limit theorem:

A
the sample mean will equal the population mean only if the population is normally distributed.

B
the distribution of the sample mean is approximately normal for any population if the sample is sufficiently large.

C
the sample mean allows us to make precise probability statements about the population mean only if the population is sufficiently large.

A

B
the distribution of the sample mean is approximately normal for any population if the sample is sufficiently large.

The central limit theorem states that, if the sample is sufficiently large (e.g., more than 30 observations), the distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normal for any population - regardless of whether the population itself is normally distributed.

A sufficiently large sample size also allows us to make precise statements about the mean of any population because, according to the central limit theorem, the sample mean will be equal to the mean of the population from which the sample observations are drawn

47
Q

An analyst recommends purchasing stocks with low price-to-book (P/B) ratios. The analyst arrived at this conclusion based on the observation that stocks with low P/B ratios have earned excess risk-adjusted returns over the past 10 years, a period during which the economy experienced a full business cycle with no structural changes. The greatest concern for investors who are considering this recommendation is most likely:

A
look-ahead bias.

B
time-period bias.

C
data-mining bias.

A

A
look-ahead bias.

Look-ahead bias can occur when an analysis uses information that was not known at the time of the observation. This is a particular concern when using variables based on both market prices and accounting data. For example, a stock’s market value can be observed at any point, but its book value at that time cannot be known until the company issues its financial reports.

Survivorship bias may also be a concern if the analysis has failed to account for stocks that have been delisted over during the time period being studied.

Time-period bias should not be a significant concern with an analysis that covers a 10-year period, particularly if an entire business cycle is covered and there have been no structural changes to the economy during that time.

There is no evidence that investors should be concerned about data-mining bias. The recommendation is backed by an explicit economic rationale.

48
Q

An analyst collects a sample of 12 monthly return datapoints that have been drawn from a larger population. Wanting to reduce the bias of the expected value based on this small sample size, the analyst decides to resample the data using the jackknife method. Which of the following statements regarding this resampling process is most accurate?

A
Each repetition will include 11 observations

B
The process will be completed in 11 repetitions

C
The sample for each of the 12 repetitions will be drawn with replacement

A

A
Each repetition will include 11 observations

49
Q

When estimating a confidence interval for a population mean from an approximately normally distributed sample with less than 30 observations, it is most likely appropriate to use a
-distribution rather than the standard normal (
) distribution if:

A
the population mean is known.

B
the population variance is known.

C
the population variance is unknown.

A

C
the population variance is unknown.

50
Q

A researcher would like to gather a sample of fifty people. He divides the range of the people’s heights into ten intervals of equal length and randomly selects two people from each interval. This is most likely an example of:

A
cluster sampling.

B
stratified sampling.

C
systematic sampling.

A

B
stratified sampling.

Stratified sampling divides the population into subpopulations (strata) based on a criteria (i.e., height in this problem). Then, simple random samples are drawn from each stratum in proportion to the size of the stratum relative to the population.

Cluster sampling involves selecting only a few of the subgroups instead of all intervals. Since exactly two people are selected from each interval, this is more likely to be stratified sampling.

51
Q

The best approach for creating a stratified random sample of a population involves:

A
drawing an equal number of simple random samples from each subpopulation.

B
selecting every kth member of the population until the desired sample size is reached.

C
drawing simple random samples from each subpopulation in sizes proportional to the relative size of each subpopulation.

A

Stratified random sampling involves dividing a population into subpopulations based on one or more classification criteria. Then, simple random samples are drawn from each subpopulation in sizes proportional to the relative size of each subpopulation. These samples are then pooled to form a stratified random sample.

52
Q

A population has a non-normal distribution with mean
and variance
. The sampling distribution of the sample mean computed from samples of large size from that population will most likely have:

A
the same distribution as the population distribution.

B
its mean approximately equal to the population mean.

C
its variance approximately equal to the population variance.

A

B
its mean approximately equal to the population mean.

Given a population described by any probability distribution (normal or non-normal) with finite variance, the central limit theorem states that the sampling distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normal, with the mean approximately equal to the population mean, when the sample size is large.

53
Q

Which sampling bias is most likely investigated with an out-of-sample test?

A
Look-ahead bias

B
Data-mining bias

C
Sample selection bias

A

B
Data-mining bias

An out-of-sample test is used to investigate the presence of data-mining bias.

Such a test uses a sample that does not overlap the time period of the sample on which a variable, strategy, or model was developed.

54
Q

An estimator is most likely considered to be efficient if:

A
increasing sample size produces more accurate estimates of the population parameter.

B
the mean of its sampling distribution matches the parameter that it is meant to estimate.

C
no other unbiased estimator of the same parameter has a sampling error with a smaller variance.

A

C
no other unbiased estimator of the same parameter has a sampling error with a smaller variance.

An estimator is considered to be efficient if is that it has the smallest standard deviation of all unbiased estimators of the same parameter

When the sample distribution’s mean equals the parameter, an estimator is unbiased.

If estimates become more accurate as sample size increases, an estimator is consistent.

55
Q

Which of the following characteristics of an investment study most likely indicates time-period bias?

A
The study is based on a short time-series.

B
Information not available on the test date is used.

C
A structural change occurred prior to the start of the study’s time series.

A

A
The study is based on a short time-series.

56
Q

An analyst is conducting a market liquidity study. After studying a stratified sample of dividend-paying stocks, the analyst concludes that the economy is sufficiently liquid and that the stock market may be undervalued. The analyst’s conclusion is most likely affected by:

A
time-period bias.

B
data-mining bias.

C
sample selection bias.

A

C
sample selection bias.

57
Q

Which of the following biases most likely skew the result upward when evaluating the performance of an index?

A
Backfill bias

B
Look-ahead bias

C
Time-period bias

A

A
Backfill bias

Backfill bias is a type of sample selection bias. When a new fund is added to an index, its past performance may be backfilled into the index’s database. This can inflate the index return because new funds are normally added only after they have good performance.

58
Q

A chi-square test is most appropriate for tests concerning:

A
a single variance.

B
differences between two population means with variances assumed to be equal.

C
differences between two population means with variances assumed to not be equal.

A

A
a single variance.

59
Q

An analyst is examining the monthly returns for two funds over one year. Both funds’ returns are non-normally distributed. To test whether the mean return of one fund is greater than the mean return of the other fund, the analyst can most likely use:

A
a parametric test only.

B
a nonparametric test only.

C
both parametric and nonparametric tests.

A

B
a nonparametric test only.

There are only 12 (monthly) observations over the one year of the sample and thus the samples are small. Additionally, the funds’ returns are non-normally distributed. Therefore, the samples do not meet the distributional assumptions for a parametric test.

The Mann–Whitney U test (a nonparametric test) could be used to test the differences between population means

60
Q

When evaluating mean differences between two dependent samples, the most appropriate test is a:

A
z-test.

B
chi-square test.

C
paired comparisons test.

A

C
paired comparisons test.

61
Q

In the step “stating a decision rule” in testing a hypothesis, which of the following elements most likely must be specified?

A
Critical value

B
Power of a test

C
Value of a test statistic

A

A
Critical value

The critical value in a decision rule is the rejection point for the test. It is the point with which the test statistic is compared to determine whether to reject the null hypothesis, which is part of the fourth step in hypothesis testing.

62
Q

Which of the following statements is most likely correct with respect to the p-value?

A
It is a less precise measure of test evidence than rejection points

B
It is the largest level of significance at which the null hypothesis is rejected

C
It can be compared directly with the level of significance in reaching test conclusions

A

C
It can be compared directly with the level of significance in reaching test conclusions

When directly comparing the p-value with the level of significance, it can be used as an alternative to using rejection points to reach conclusions on hypothesis tests.

If the p-value is smaller than the specified level of significance, the null hypothesis is rejected. Otherwise, the null hypothesis is not rejected

63
Q

When making a decision about investments involving a statistically significant result, the:

A
economic result should be presumed to be meaningful.

B
statistical result should take priority over economic considerations.

C
economic logic for the future relevance of the result should be further explored.

A

C
economic logic for the future relevance of the result should be further explored.

64
Q

The probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis is most likely the:

A
p-value.

B
power of a test.

C
level of significance.

A

B
power of a test.

65
Q

Which of the following statements is most likely an example of a null hypothesis for a one-sided test?

A
The equity risk premium is equal to 5.0%.

B
The equity risk premium is greater than 6.0%.

C
The equity risk premium is less than or equal to 7.0%.

A

C
The equity risk premium is less than or equal to 7.0%.

66
Q

A pooled estimator is most likely used when testing a hypothesis concerning the:

A
equality of the variances of two normally distributed populations.

B
difference between the means of two at least approximately normally distributed populations with unknown but assumed equal variances.

C
difference between the means of two at least approximately normally distributed populations with unknown and assumed unequal variances.

A

B
difference between the means of two at least approximately normally distributed populations with unknown but assumed equal variances.

67
Q

The probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis is most likely the:

A
p-value.

B
power of a test.

C
level of significance.

A

B
power of a test.

68
Q

Which of the following most likely represents a correct statement about the
-value?

A
The p-value offers less precise information than does the rejection points approach

B
A larger p-value provides stronger evidence in support of the alternative hypothesis

C
A p-value less than the specified level of significance leads to rejection of the null hypothesis

A

C
A p-value less than the specified level of significance leads to rejection of the null hypothesis

69
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a one-tailed hypothesis test is most likely correct?

A
The rejection region increases in size as the level of significance becomes smaller.

B
A one-tailed test more strongly reflects the beliefs of the researcher than a two-tailed test.

C
The absolute value of the rejection point is larger than that of a two-tailed test at the same level of significance.

A

B
A one-tailed test more strongly reflects the beliefs of the researcher than a two-tailed test.

70
Q

Deflation is most likely to be associated with:

A
a shortage of government revenue.

B
substantial macroeconomic contraction.

C
explicit monetary policy to combat inflation.

Deflation is connected to a vicious cycle of reduced spending and higher unemployment.

A

B
substantial macroeconomic contraction.

71
Q

Evidence that a country is experiencing demand-pull inflation is most likely to be found by analyzing the:

A
unemployment rate.

B
capacity utilization rate.

C
hourly wage growth rate.

A

B
capacity utilization rate.

emand-pull inflation is observed when businesses raise prices in response to their inability to meet increased demand. In response to such conditions, workers demand higher wages in order to maintain their standard of living. A higher capacity utilization rate indicates that an economy is more likely to experience price increases due to bottlenecks that arise when demand outstrips supply.

The unemployment rate is typically used to assess for the presence of cost-push inflation, which occurs when businesses raise prices due to the higher cost of key inputs such as labor.

72
Q

Which of the following statements about employment levels over the course of a typical business cycle is most accurate?

A
The unemployment rate remains high during the recovery phase

B
Businesses slow their rate of hiring, causing the unemployment rate to begin to rise during the slowdown phase

C
Adding employees on a part-time basis in order to meet rising demand is most common in the expansion phase

A

A
The unemployment rate remains high during the recovery phase

73
Q

In order to avoid severe economic fluctuations, the monetarist school of economic thought most likely emphasizes:

A
lowering interest rates.

B
shifting aggregate demand.

C
maintaining control of the money supply.

A

C
maintaining control of the money supply.

74
Q

Which of the following statements is most accurate? Once the economy moves into the contraction phase of a typical business cycle, inflation:

A
eventually decelerates, but with a lag.

B
remains moderate and may continue to fall.

C
continues the decelerating trend that began in the slowdown phase.

A

A
eventually decelerates, but with a lag.

75
Q

Based on typical labor utilization patterns across the business cycle, productivity (output per hours worked) is most likely to be highest:

A
at the peak of a boom.

B
into a maturing expansion.

C
at the bottom of a recession.

A

C
at the bottom of a recession.

76
Q

An increase in new capital goods orders and a decrease in the weekly number of initial unemployment insurance claims are most accurately characterized as:

A
leading indicators of an economic expansion.

B
coincident indicators of an economic expansion.

C
a leading and a lagging indictor, respectively, of an economic expansion.

A

A
leading indicators of an economic expansion.

77
Q

What is the most important effect of labor productivity in a cost-push inflation scenario?

A
Rising productivity indicates a strong economy and a bias towards inflation.

B
The productivity level determines the economy’s status relative to its “natural rate of unemployment.”

C
As productivity growth proportionately exceeds wage increases, product price increases are less likely.

A

C
As productivity growth proportionately exceeds wage increases, product price increases are less likely.

78
Q

Which of the following indicators is most appropriate in predicting a turning point in the economy?

A
The Industrial Production Index

B
The average bank prime lending rate

C
Average weekly hours, manufacturing

A

C
Average weekly hours, manufacturing

Leading economic indicators have turning points that usually precede those of the overall economy.

Average weekly hours, manufacturing is a leading economic indicator.

The Industrial Production Index is a coincident economic indicator, and the average bank prime lending rate is a lagging economic indicator.

79
Q

According to Real Business Cycle models, an economic contraction is most likely caused by:

A
sticky wages.

B
rising energy prices.

C
a contraction in the money supply.

A

B
rising energy prices.

80
Q

When asked for her opinion on the recession happening in her country, Shanelle Hernandez, an economist, says that the recession is likely caused by rising oil prices and the government should not intervene with fiscal or monetary policy. Hernandez most likely identifies herself as a:

A
monetarist.

B
Keynesian.

C
neoclassical economist.

A

C
neoclassical economist.

81
Q

The term that describes when inflation declines but nonetheless remains at a positive level is:

A
deflation.

B
stagflation.

C
disinflation.

A

C
disinflation.

82
Q

Which of the following is most likely to increase after an increase in aggregate real personal income?

A
Equity prices

B
Building permits for new private housing units

C
The ratio of consumer installment debt to income

A

C
The ratio of consumer installment debt to income

83
Q

The discouraged worker category is most likely defined to include people who:

A
are overqualified for their job.

B
could look for a job but choose not to.

C
currently look for work without finding it.

A

B
could look for a job but choose not to.

84
Q

An economic peak is most closely associated with:

A
accelerating inflation.

B
stable unemployment.

C
declining capital spending.

A

A
accelerating inflation.

85
Q

uroyen bonds are most likely:

A
denominated in euros.

B
underwritten by an international syndicate.

C
issued simultaneously in both the Eurobond market and the Japanese domestic market.

A

B
underwritten by an international syndicate.

ike other Eurobonds, Euroyen bonds are underwritten by a consortium of financial institutions known as a syndicate. Unlike global bonds, which trade simultaneously in the Eurobond market and at least one domestic market, Euroyen trade exclusively in the Eurobond market.

Euroyen bonds are denominated in Japanese yen (JPY). They are not subject to any one country’s jurisdiction.